Validity of construction involving recursively defined functions.What is the set-theoretic definition of a function?Existence of infinite intersectionWhy $omega$ can't be bijectively mapped to $omega +1$Why do we need the axiom of choice in showing the non-emptiness of an infinite Cartesian productWhy isn't Axiom of Choice a trivial result? Is it needed to prove existence of this recursive function?Are there any properties of a function that are valid when a function is defined on an open interval but not when it's defined on R?Is my proof that the set of all functions from $X' subseteq X$ to $Y'subseteq Y$ exist validProve the set $A= f:mathbbNtomathbbN mathrm;is;a;function$ is infinite.The special role of certain Sets in the theory of setsDisjoint unions and countability

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Validity of construction involving recursively defined functions.


What is the set-theoretic definition of a function?Existence of infinite intersectionWhy $omega$ can't be bijectively mapped to $omega +1$Why do we need the axiom of choice in showing the non-emptiness of an infinite Cartesian productWhy isn't Axiom of Choice a trivial result? Is it needed to prove existence of this recursive function?Are there any properties of a function that are valid when a function is defined on an open interval but not when it's defined on R?Is my proof that the set of all functions from $X' subseteq X$ to $Y'subseteq Y$ exist validProve the set $A= f $ is infinite.The special role of certain Sets in the theory of setsDisjoint unions and countability













2












$begingroup$


I'm currently struggling with the validity of defining a function using what I think is membership of a recursively defined set. I am confused as to whether this construction requires the axiom of choice, and I am unsure as to whether, even with the axiom of choice, what I am doing is valid, (in a set theoretic ZFC sense). I have not studied super strict axiomatic set theory, and I am unsure about how you can rigorously construct a function.



Here is the proof I am unsure about. I am proving a variant of every sequence having a monotone subsequence. There are two constructions that are a bit different and I am unsure about the validity of both of them.



Let $L$ be an infinite chain. Since $L$ is infinite we can define an injection $Phi : Bbb N to L$. If $Phi (n) >Phi (m)$ for all $n>m$, then I will call $n$ a peak.



If there are a finite number of peaks, then there exists an $N$ such that for all $n ge N$ $n$ is not a peak. Let $f(1)=N$. Given $f(n)$, and given $f(n) ge N$, there must exist a $m gt f(n)$ such that $Phi (m) gt Phi (f(n))$. Let $f(n+1)=m$
(I am unsure about this bit )



If there are an infinite number of peaks, then let $f(1)$ be the first peak, and let $f(n+1)= mathrm min m in Bbb N land
m , mathrm is , mathrm a , mathrmpeak , land m>f(n) $



Summing up, I want to know whether what I have done is valid, how to make it valid, whether the axiom of choice matters, and in general how to tell if a function I construct is ok.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$
















    2












    $begingroup$


    I'm currently struggling with the validity of defining a function using what I think is membership of a recursively defined set. I am confused as to whether this construction requires the axiom of choice, and I am unsure as to whether, even with the axiom of choice, what I am doing is valid, (in a set theoretic ZFC sense). I have not studied super strict axiomatic set theory, and I am unsure about how you can rigorously construct a function.



    Here is the proof I am unsure about. I am proving a variant of every sequence having a monotone subsequence. There are two constructions that are a bit different and I am unsure about the validity of both of them.



    Let $L$ be an infinite chain. Since $L$ is infinite we can define an injection $Phi : Bbb N to L$. If $Phi (n) >Phi (m)$ for all $n>m$, then I will call $n$ a peak.



    If there are a finite number of peaks, then there exists an $N$ such that for all $n ge N$ $n$ is not a peak. Let $f(1)=N$. Given $f(n)$, and given $f(n) ge N$, there must exist a $m gt f(n)$ such that $Phi (m) gt Phi (f(n))$. Let $f(n+1)=m$
    (I am unsure about this bit )



    If there are an infinite number of peaks, then let $f(1)$ be the first peak, and let $f(n+1)= mathrm min m in Bbb N land
    m , mathrm is , mathrm a , mathrmpeak , land m>f(n) $



    Summing up, I want to know whether what I have done is valid, how to make it valid, whether the axiom of choice matters, and in general how to tell if a function I construct is ok.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$














      2












      2








      2





      $begingroup$


      I'm currently struggling with the validity of defining a function using what I think is membership of a recursively defined set. I am confused as to whether this construction requires the axiom of choice, and I am unsure as to whether, even with the axiom of choice, what I am doing is valid, (in a set theoretic ZFC sense). I have not studied super strict axiomatic set theory, and I am unsure about how you can rigorously construct a function.



      Here is the proof I am unsure about. I am proving a variant of every sequence having a monotone subsequence. There are two constructions that are a bit different and I am unsure about the validity of both of them.



      Let $L$ be an infinite chain. Since $L$ is infinite we can define an injection $Phi : Bbb N to L$. If $Phi (n) >Phi (m)$ for all $n>m$, then I will call $n$ a peak.



      If there are a finite number of peaks, then there exists an $N$ such that for all $n ge N$ $n$ is not a peak. Let $f(1)=N$. Given $f(n)$, and given $f(n) ge N$, there must exist a $m gt f(n)$ such that $Phi (m) gt Phi (f(n))$. Let $f(n+1)=m$
      (I am unsure about this bit )



      If there are an infinite number of peaks, then let $f(1)$ be the first peak, and let $f(n+1)= mathrm min m in Bbb N land
      m , mathrm is , mathrm a , mathrmpeak , land m>f(n) $



      Summing up, I want to know whether what I have done is valid, how to make it valid, whether the axiom of choice matters, and in general how to tell if a function I construct is ok.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I'm currently struggling with the validity of defining a function using what I think is membership of a recursively defined set. I am confused as to whether this construction requires the axiom of choice, and I am unsure as to whether, even with the axiom of choice, what I am doing is valid, (in a set theoretic ZFC sense). I have not studied super strict axiomatic set theory, and I am unsure about how you can rigorously construct a function.



      Here is the proof I am unsure about. I am proving a variant of every sequence having a monotone subsequence. There are two constructions that are a bit different and I am unsure about the validity of both of them.



      Let $L$ be an infinite chain. Since $L$ is infinite we can define an injection $Phi : Bbb N to L$. If $Phi (n) >Phi (m)$ for all $n>m$, then I will call $n$ a peak.



      If there are a finite number of peaks, then there exists an $N$ such that for all $n ge N$ $n$ is not a peak. Let $f(1)=N$. Given $f(n)$, and given $f(n) ge N$, there must exist a $m gt f(n)$ such that $Phi (m) gt Phi (f(n))$. Let $f(n+1)=m$
      (I am unsure about this bit )



      If there are an infinite number of peaks, then let $f(1)$ be the first peak, and let $f(n+1)= mathrm min m in Bbb N land
      m , mathrm is , mathrm a , mathrmpeak , land m>f(n) $



      Summing up, I want to know whether what I have done is valid, how to make it valid, whether the axiom of choice matters, and in general how to tell if a function I construct is ok.







      functions elementary-set-theory recursion






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