There exists a lattice point $(a,b)$ whose distance from every *visible* point is greater than $n$.Prove that there exists a $m×m$ lattice square in the $x-y$ plane such that none of its coordinates are visibleEvery integer greater than 1 is divisible by a primesucessive primes with distance greater than kProve that for any natural number $n$ there exists a prime number $p$ greater than $n$Every prime divisor of $n! + 1$ is an odd integer greater than $n$A point whose coordinates are both integers is called a lattice point. How many lattice points lie on the hyperbola $x^2 -y^2 = 2000^2$A new property of Rowland's sequence or there is a counterexample? Each element $a_i$ is a witness of a greater $a_j$ whose index $j$ is always primeProve that among any five consecutive positive integers there is one integer which is relatively prime to the other four integers.A question about lattice visible point in the planeIs there a prime $p$ whose successor is greater than $2p$?$IMO 2014$ shortlist question. PigeonHole-Principle to solve?

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There exists a lattice point $(a,b)$ whose distance from every *visible* point is greater than $n$.


Prove that there exists a $m×m$ lattice square in the $x-y$ plane such that none of its coordinates are visibleEvery integer greater than 1 is divisible by a primesucessive primes with distance greater than kProve that for any natural number $n$ there exists a prime number $p$ greater than $n$Every prime divisor of $n! + 1$ is an odd integer greater than $n$A point whose coordinates are both integers is called a lattice point. How many lattice points lie on the hyperbola $x^2 -y^2 = 2000^2$A new property of Rowland's sequence or there is a counterexample? Each element $a_i$ is a witness of a greater $a_j$ whose index $j$ is always primeProve that among any five consecutive positive integers there is one integer which is relatively prime to the other four integers.A question about lattice visible point in the planeIs there a prime $p$ whose successor is greater than $2p$?$IMO 2014$ shortlist question. PigeonHole-Principle to solve?













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$begingroup$


Question- A lattice point $(x,y)inmathbbZ^2$ is called visible if $gcd(x,y)=1$. Prove that given a positive integer $n$, there exists a lattice point $(a,b)$ whose distance from every visible point is greater than $n$.



I am totally nowhere near progress on this. I was thinking of trying pigeon hole principle, but cant find any appropriate candidate pigeons. Please give any hints to start.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    Anyone please help!
    $endgroup$
    – gambler101
    Aug 21 '16 at 12:33















5












$begingroup$


Question- A lattice point $(x,y)inmathbbZ^2$ is called visible if $gcd(x,y)=1$. Prove that given a positive integer $n$, there exists a lattice point $(a,b)$ whose distance from every visible point is greater than $n$.



I am totally nowhere near progress on this. I was thinking of trying pigeon hole principle, but cant find any appropriate candidate pigeons. Please give any hints to start.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    Anyone please help!
    $endgroup$
    – gambler101
    Aug 21 '16 at 12:33













5












5








5


2



$begingroup$


Question- A lattice point $(x,y)inmathbbZ^2$ is called visible if $gcd(x,y)=1$. Prove that given a positive integer $n$, there exists a lattice point $(a,b)$ whose distance from every visible point is greater than $n$.



I am totally nowhere near progress on this. I was thinking of trying pigeon hole principle, but cant find any appropriate candidate pigeons. Please give any hints to start.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Question- A lattice point $(x,y)inmathbbZ^2$ is called visible if $gcd(x,y)=1$. Prove that given a positive integer $n$, there exists a lattice point $(a,b)$ whose distance from every visible point is greater than $n$.



I am totally nowhere near progress on this. I was thinking of trying pigeon hole principle, but cant find any appropriate candidate pigeons. Please give any hints to start.







number-theory elementary-number-theory contest-math






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share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 21 '16 at 18:02







gambler101

















asked Aug 17 '16 at 15:53









gambler101gambler101

707214




707214











  • $begingroup$
    Anyone please help!
    $endgroup$
    – gambler101
    Aug 21 '16 at 12:33
















  • $begingroup$
    Anyone please help!
    $endgroup$
    – gambler101
    Aug 21 '16 at 12:33















$begingroup$
Anyone please help!
$endgroup$
– gambler101
Aug 21 '16 at 12:33




$begingroup$
Anyone please help!
$endgroup$
– gambler101
Aug 21 '16 at 12:33










1 Answer
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$begingroup$

This follows from Theorem 7.3 in the book “Mathematical Journeys,” by Peter D. Schumer. The proof, which uses the Chinese remainder theorem, can be seen on Google Books here or (summarized) by hovering over the spoiler paragraph below.



Schumer constructs an $ntimes n$ square of invisible lattice points as follows. (You can choose $(a,b)$ at the center of such a square of side $2n$.)



The proof goes like this:




Arrange the first $n^2$ primes in an $ntimes n$ array and denote by $m_i$ the product across the $i$-th row and by $M_i$ the product down the $i$-th column. Then consider two systems of congruences: The system $xequiv -i mod m_i$ and the system $yequiv -imod M_i$. Modulo $P=prod m_i=prod M_i$, these systems have unique solutions $xequiv_P a$ and $yequiv_P b$ (by the Chinese Reminder Theorem). Then the square with lower left corner $(a+1,b+1)$ and upper right corner $(a+n,b+n)$ contains no visible lattice points, because for any integers $i,j$ between $1$ and $n$, both $a+i$ and $b+j$ will be divisible by the prime $p$ in row $i$ and column $j$ of the array of primes.







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    $begingroup$

    This follows from Theorem 7.3 in the book “Mathematical Journeys,” by Peter D. Schumer. The proof, which uses the Chinese remainder theorem, can be seen on Google Books here or (summarized) by hovering over the spoiler paragraph below.



    Schumer constructs an $ntimes n$ square of invisible lattice points as follows. (You can choose $(a,b)$ at the center of such a square of side $2n$.)



    The proof goes like this:




    Arrange the first $n^2$ primes in an $ntimes n$ array and denote by $m_i$ the product across the $i$-th row and by $M_i$ the product down the $i$-th column. Then consider two systems of congruences: The system $xequiv -i mod m_i$ and the system $yequiv -imod M_i$. Modulo $P=prod m_i=prod M_i$, these systems have unique solutions $xequiv_P a$ and $yequiv_P b$ (by the Chinese Reminder Theorem). Then the square with lower left corner $(a+1,b+1)$ and upper right corner $(a+n,b+n)$ contains no visible lattice points, because for any integers $i,j$ between $1$ and $n$, both $a+i$ and $b+j$ will be divisible by the prime $p$ in row $i$ and column $j$ of the array of primes.







    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$

















      2












      $begingroup$

      This follows from Theorem 7.3 in the book “Mathematical Journeys,” by Peter D. Schumer. The proof, which uses the Chinese remainder theorem, can be seen on Google Books here or (summarized) by hovering over the spoiler paragraph below.



      Schumer constructs an $ntimes n$ square of invisible lattice points as follows. (You can choose $(a,b)$ at the center of such a square of side $2n$.)



      The proof goes like this:




      Arrange the first $n^2$ primes in an $ntimes n$ array and denote by $m_i$ the product across the $i$-th row and by $M_i$ the product down the $i$-th column. Then consider two systems of congruences: The system $xequiv -i mod m_i$ and the system $yequiv -imod M_i$. Modulo $P=prod m_i=prod M_i$, these systems have unique solutions $xequiv_P a$ and $yequiv_P b$ (by the Chinese Reminder Theorem). Then the square with lower left corner $(a+1,b+1)$ and upper right corner $(a+n,b+n)$ contains no visible lattice points, because for any integers $i,j$ between $1$ and $n$, both $a+i$ and $b+j$ will be divisible by the prime $p$ in row $i$ and column $j$ of the array of primes.







      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$















        2












        2








        2





        $begingroup$

        This follows from Theorem 7.3 in the book “Mathematical Journeys,” by Peter D. Schumer. The proof, which uses the Chinese remainder theorem, can be seen on Google Books here or (summarized) by hovering over the spoiler paragraph below.



        Schumer constructs an $ntimes n$ square of invisible lattice points as follows. (You can choose $(a,b)$ at the center of such a square of side $2n$.)



        The proof goes like this:




        Arrange the first $n^2$ primes in an $ntimes n$ array and denote by $m_i$ the product across the $i$-th row and by $M_i$ the product down the $i$-th column. Then consider two systems of congruences: The system $xequiv -i mod m_i$ and the system $yequiv -imod M_i$. Modulo $P=prod m_i=prod M_i$, these systems have unique solutions $xequiv_P a$ and $yequiv_P b$ (by the Chinese Reminder Theorem). Then the square with lower left corner $(a+1,b+1)$ and upper right corner $(a+n,b+n)$ contains no visible lattice points, because for any integers $i,j$ between $1$ and $n$, both $a+i$ and $b+j$ will be divisible by the prime $p$ in row $i$ and column $j$ of the array of primes.







        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        This follows from Theorem 7.3 in the book “Mathematical Journeys,” by Peter D. Schumer. The proof, which uses the Chinese remainder theorem, can be seen on Google Books here or (summarized) by hovering over the spoiler paragraph below.



        Schumer constructs an $ntimes n$ square of invisible lattice points as follows. (You can choose $(a,b)$ at the center of such a square of side $2n$.)



        The proof goes like this:




        Arrange the first $n^2$ primes in an $ntimes n$ array and denote by $m_i$ the product across the $i$-th row and by $M_i$ the product down the $i$-th column. Then consider two systems of congruences: The system $xequiv -i mod m_i$ and the system $yequiv -imod M_i$. Modulo $P=prod m_i=prod M_i$, these systems have unique solutions $xequiv_P a$ and $yequiv_P b$ (by the Chinese Reminder Theorem). Then the square with lower left corner $(a+1,b+1)$ and upper right corner $(a+n,b+n)$ contains no visible lattice points, because for any integers $i,j$ between $1$ and $n$, both $a+i$ and $b+j$ will be divisible by the prime $p$ in row $i$ and column $j$ of the array of primes.








        share|cite|improve this answer














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        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Aug 21 '16 at 19:12

























        answered Aug 21 '16 at 19:00









        Steve KassSteve Kass

        11.4k11530




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