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Analytic function need not have a primitive


convergence of analytic functionsHow to understand the Identity Theorem in complex analysis, from the point of view of power series expansionsHolomorphic function on a domain has a primitiveLimit of nonnegative analytic functionsIf analytic $f_n rightrightarrows f$ on a closed disk and $f$ is injective, then almost all $f_n$ are injectiveIf $f$ is analytic then $|f|$ is not constant unless $f$ is constantCondition for $f-fracAz-a-fracBz-b-fracCz-c$ to have primitiveCauchy integral theorem in a Jordan domain?Confusion about the definition of analytic and singularity.A function on a domain $D$ has a primitive on $D$ but is not analytic on $D$?













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$begingroup$


I am told that an analytic function need not possess a primitive in its domain of analyticity. However, if $f$ is analytic in the disk $textB(a,r)$, then it has a primitive in that disk. Suppose $f$ is analytic in an open set $G$. Then for each $ain G$, $exists r_a>0$ such that the disk $textB(a,r_a)subset G$. In each of these disks $f$ has a primitive. Why can't we always "stitch" these "local primitives" to obtain a primitive for $f$ in the set $G$? When can we do such a thing?










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    0












    $begingroup$


    I am told that an analytic function need not possess a primitive in its domain of analyticity. However, if $f$ is analytic in the disk $textB(a,r)$, then it has a primitive in that disk. Suppose $f$ is analytic in an open set $G$. Then for each $ain G$, $exists r_a>0$ such that the disk $textB(a,r_a)subset G$. In each of these disks $f$ has a primitive. Why can't we always "stitch" these "local primitives" to obtain a primitive for $f$ in the set $G$? When can we do such a thing?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$














      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      I am told that an analytic function need not possess a primitive in its domain of analyticity. However, if $f$ is analytic in the disk $textB(a,r)$, then it has a primitive in that disk. Suppose $f$ is analytic in an open set $G$. Then for each $ain G$, $exists r_a>0$ such that the disk $textB(a,r_a)subset G$. In each of these disks $f$ has a primitive. Why can't we always "stitch" these "local primitives" to obtain a primitive for $f$ in the set $G$? When can we do such a thing?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I am told that an analytic function need not possess a primitive in its domain of analyticity. However, if $f$ is analytic in the disk $textB(a,r)$, then it has a primitive in that disk. Suppose $f$ is analytic in an open set $G$. Then for each $ain G$, $exists r_a>0$ such that the disk $textB(a,r_a)subset G$. In each of these disks $f$ has a primitive. Why can't we always "stitch" these "local primitives" to obtain a primitive for $f$ in the set $G$? When can we do such a thing?







      complex-analysis soft-question analytic-functions






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      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Mar 21 at 6:40









      Hrit RoyHrit Roy

      896215




      896215




















          1 Answer
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          $begingroup$

          If $Omega$ is simply connected, then every holomorphic function on $Omega$ has an anti-derivative. This is a standard theorem proven in almost every textbook.



          Conversely, if $Omega$ is not simply connected, you can always find an example of a holomorphic function on $Omega$ that doesn't admit an anti-derivative. The canonical example is $f(z) = 1/z$ on the punctured disk (or punctured plane), and this example is easy to adapt to any non-simply connected domain.



          Note that if $f$ has an anti-derivative $F$, then
          $$
          int_gamma f(z),dz = F(b)-F(a)
          $$

          if $gamma$ is a curve from $a$ to $b$. (This is the complex analogue of the fundamental theorem of calculus.) In particular, the integral of $f$ along any closed curve in $Omega$ is $0$, whereas e.g.
          $$
          int_=1 fracdzz = 2pi i.
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer









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            active

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            1












            $begingroup$

            If $Omega$ is simply connected, then every holomorphic function on $Omega$ has an anti-derivative. This is a standard theorem proven in almost every textbook.



            Conversely, if $Omega$ is not simply connected, you can always find an example of a holomorphic function on $Omega$ that doesn't admit an anti-derivative. The canonical example is $f(z) = 1/z$ on the punctured disk (or punctured plane), and this example is easy to adapt to any non-simply connected domain.



            Note that if $f$ has an anti-derivative $F$, then
            $$
            int_gamma f(z),dz = F(b)-F(a)
            $$

            if $gamma$ is a curve from $a$ to $b$. (This is the complex analogue of the fundamental theorem of calculus.) In particular, the integral of $f$ along any closed curve in $Omega$ is $0$, whereas e.g.
            $$
            int_=1 fracdzz = 2pi i.
            $$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$

















              1












              $begingroup$

              If $Omega$ is simply connected, then every holomorphic function on $Omega$ has an anti-derivative. This is a standard theorem proven in almost every textbook.



              Conversely, if $Omega$ is not simply connected, you can always find an example of a holomorphic function on $Omega$ that doesn't admit an anti-derivative. The canonical example is $f(z) = 1/z$ on the punctured disk (or punctured plane), and this example is easy to adapt to any non-simply connected domain.



              Note that if $f$ has an anti-derivative $F$, then
              $$
              int_gamma f(z),dz = F(b)-F(a)
              $$

              if $gamma$ is a curve from $a$ to $b$. (This is the complex analogue of the fundamental theorem of calculus.) In particular, the integral of $f$ along any closed curve in $Omega$ is $0$, whereas e.g.
              $$
              int_=1 fracdzz = 2pi i.
              $$






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$















                1












                1








                1





                $begingroup$

                If $Omega$ is simply connected, then every holomorphic function on $Omega$ has an anti-derivative. This is a standard theorem proven in almost every textbook.



                Conversely, if $Omega$ is not simply connected, you can always find an example of a holomorphic function on $Omega$ that doesn't admit an anti-derivative. The canonical example is $f(z) = 1/z$ on the punctured disk (or punctured plane), and this example is easy to adapt to any non-simply connected domain.



                Note that if $f$ has an anti-derivative $F$, then
                $$
                int_gamma f(z),dz = F(b)-F(a)
                $$

                if $gamma$ is a curve from $a$ to $b$. (This is the complex analogue of the fundamental theorem of calculus.) In particular, the integral of $f$ along any closed curve in $Omega$ is $0$, whereas e.g.
                $$
                int_=1 fracdzz = 2pi i.
                $$






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                If $Omega$ is simply connected, then every holomorphic function on $Omega$ has an anti-derivative. This is a standard theorem proven in almost every textbook.



                Conversely, if $Omega$ is not simply connected, you can always find an example of a holomorphic function on $Omega$ that doesn't admit an anti-derivative. The canonical example is $f(z) = 1/z$ on the punctured disk (or punctured plane), and this example is easy to adapt to any non-simply connected domain.



                Note that if $f$ has an anti-derivative $F$, then
                $$
                int_gamma f(z),dz = F(b)-F(a)
                $$

                if $gamma$ is a curve from $a$ to $b$. (This is the complex analogue of the fundamental theorem of calculus.) In particular, the integral of $f$ along any closed curve in $Omega$ is $0$, whereas e.g.
                $$
                int_=1 fracdzz = 2pi i.
                $$







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Mar 21 at 12:40









                mrfmrf

                37.6k64786




                37.6k64786



























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