Convergent functions and integralsShow that the following sequence is convergent pointwise but not uniformly convergent.limit of the integrations of a sequence of integrable functionslimit superior and inferior of measurable setsexistence of a sequence of continuous functions with two conditionsReal Analysis - Integral of a sequence of functionsReal Analysis, 2.18 (Fatou's Lemma) Integration of Nonnegative functionsDual result of Fatou lemmaif $lim_n to infty sup _x |f_n(x) - f(x)| = 0$, then $lim _n to infty int_a^b f_n = int_a^b f$Arzelà's Dominated Convergence Theorem for improper integrals?Sequence of functions and improper integrals

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Open a doc from terminal, but not by its name



Convergent functions and integrals


Show that the following sequence is convergent pointwise but not uniformly convergent.limit of the integrations of a sequence of integrable functionslimit superior and inferior of measurable setsexistence of a sequence of continuous functions with two conditionsReal Analysis - Integral of a sequence of functionsReal Analysis, 2.18 (Fatou's Lemma) Integration of Nonnegative functionsDual result of Fatou lemmaif $lim_n to infty sup _x |f_n(x) - f(x)| = 0$, then $lim _n to infty int_a^b f_n = int_a^b f$Arzelà's Dominated Convergence Theorem for improper integrals?Sequence of functions and improper integrals













2












$begingroup$


Let $V$ be real normed vector space of Riemann integrable functions $f : [0,1]tomathbbR$ with norm



$||f||:=sup:xin[0,1]$.



Let $f_n:[0,1]tomathbbR$ be continuous for $ninmathbbN$ and let there be a function $fin V$ such that



$lim_ntoinfty ||f-f_n|| = 0$.



I have to show that $lim_ntoinfty int_0^1f_n(x)dx=int^1_0f(x)dx$.



I have already shown that $f$ is continous.



My strategy:



Prove that $lim_ntoinfty int_0^1f_n(x)dx -int^1_0f(x)dx = 0$



so $lim_ntoinfty int_0^1(f_n(x) - f(x))dx = 0$.



I then think I have to use the squeeze theorem:



$lim_ntoinftyinf_[0,1](f_n(x) - f(x)) leqlim_ntoinfty int_0^1(f_n(x) - f(x))dx leq lim_ntoinftysup_[0,1](f_n(x) - f(x))$



Is it then allowed to put the limit inside the supremum and infimum, which makes them both equal to 0?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$
















    2












    $begingroup$


    Let $V$ be real normed vector space of Riemann integrable functions $f : [0,1]tomathbbR$ with norm



    $||f||:=sup:xin[0,1]$.



    Let $f_n:[0,1]tomathbbR$ be continuous for $ninmathbbN$ and let there be a function $fin V$ such that



    $lim_ntoinfty ||f-f_n|| = 0$.



    I have to show that $lim_ntoinfty int_0^1f_n(x)dx=int^1_0f(x)dx$.



    I have already shown that $f$ is continous.



    My strategy:



    Prove that $lim_ntoinfty int_0^1f_n(x)dx -int^1_0f(x)dx = 0$



    so $lim_ntoinfty int_0^1(f_n(x) - f(x))dx = 0$.



    I then think I have to use the squeeze theorem:



    $lim_ntoinftyinf_[0,1](f_n(x) - f(x)) leqlim_ntoinfty int_0^1(f_n(x) - f(x))dx leq lim_ntoinftysup_[0,1](f_n(x) - f(x))$



    Is it then allowed to put the limit inside the supremum and infimum, which makes them both equal to 0?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      2












      2








      2





      $begingroup$


      Let $V$ be real normed vector space of Riemann integrable functions $f : [0,1]tomathbbR$ with norm



      $||f||:=sup:xin[0,1]$.



      Let $f_n:[0,1]tomathbbR$ be continuous for $ninmathbbN$ and let there be a function $fin V$ such that



      $lim_ntoinfty ||f-f_n|| = 0$.



      I have to show that $lim_ntoinfty int_0^1f_n(x)dx=int^1_0f(x)dx$.



      I have already shown that $f$ is continous.



      My strategy:



      Prove that $lim_ntoinfty int_0^1f_n(x)dx -int^1_0f(x)dx = 0$



      so $lim_ntoinfty int_0^1(f_n(x) - f(x))dx = 0$.



      I then think I have to use the squeeze theorem:



      $lim_ntoinftyinf_[0,1](f_n(x) - f(x)) leqlim_ntoinfty int_0^1(f_n(x) - f(x))dx leq lim_ntoinftysup_[0,1](f_n(x) - f(x))$



      Is it then allowed to put the limit inside the supremum and infimum, which makes them both equal to 0?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Let $V$ be real normed vector space of Riemann integrable functions $f : [0,1]tomathbbR$ with norm



      $||f||:=sup:xin[0,1]$.



      Let $f_n:[0,1]tomathbbR$ be continuous for $ninmathbbN$ and let there be a function $fin V$ such that



      $lim_ntoinfty ||f-f_n|| = 0$.



      I have to show that $lim_ntoinfty int_0^1f_n(x)dx=int^1_0f(x)dx$.



      I have already shown that $f$ is continous.



      My strategy:



      Prove that $lim_ntoinfty int_0^1f_n(x)dx -int^1_0f(x)dx = 0$



      so $lim_ntoinfty int_0^1(f_n(x) - f(x))dx = 0$.



      I then think I have to use the squeeze theorem:



      $lim_ntoinftyinf_[0,1](f_n(x) - f(x)) leqlim_ntoinfty int_0^1(f_n(x) - f(x))dx leq lim_ntoinftysup_[0,1](f_n(x) - f(x))$



      Is it then allowed to put the limit inside the supremum and infimum, which makes them both equal to 0?







      real-analysis convergence definite-integrals






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Mar 14 at 23:29







      The Coding Wombat

















      asked Jul 15 '18 at 12:07









      The Coding WombatThe Coding Wombat

      23919




      23919




















          3 Answers
          3






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          1












          $begingroup$

          You are almost done, just modify the last line as
          $$0leq left|int_0^1(f_n(x) - f(x))dxright|leq int_0^1left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|dx leq sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|$$
          then use $sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|=|f-f_n|to 0$
          and apply the squeeze theorem.



          P.S. Following your approach, you need
          $$-sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|leqinf_[0,1](f_n(x) - f(x)) leq int_0^1(f_n(x) - f(x))dx\ leq sup_[0,1](f_n(x) - f(x))leqsup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|$$
          and again use $sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|=|f-f_n|to 0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            How does the limit fit into this?
            $endgroup$
            – The Coding Wombat
            Jul 15 '18 at 12:17






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Take the limit of both sides and you are done. Recall then $sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|=||f-f_n||to 0$
            $endgroup$
            – Robert Z
            Jul 15 '18 at 12:20











          • $begingroup$
            Alright! And the absolute value bars? Where did they come from, how did you transform it into this?
            $endgroup$
            – The Coding Wombat
            Jul 15 '18 at 12:22






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            I edited my P.S. Any further doubt?
            $endgroup$
            – Robert Z
            Jul 15 '18 at 12:42






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            After the squeeze theorem, I state that the LIMIT of the absolute value of the integral is equal to 0, and therefore the LIMIT of integral itself is equal to 0
            $endgroup$
            – Robert Z
            Jul 15 '18 at 13:05


















          1












          $begingroup$


          Is it then allowed to put the limit inside the supremum and infimum, which makes them both equal to 0?




          You can't switch infimum/supremum and the limit in general.



          Consider $f_n(x)=maxx-n$. Then $sup_xinmathbb R|f_n(x)|=1$ while $lim_ntoinfty |f_n(x)|=0$. Hence,
          $$
          lim_ntoinftysup_xinmathbb R|f_n(x)|=1neq 0=sup_xinmathbb Rlim_ntoinfty |f_n(x)|.
          $$



          But your case is a bit more special because $[0,1]$ is compact and $f_n$ and $f$ are continuous. Hence, the infimum and supremum are achieved at some points. Then you can apply the limit as your last step.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$




















            0












            $begingroup$

            The map $f mapsto int_0^1 f(x),dx$ is continuous w.r.t your norm $|cdot|$.



            Indeed, it is linear and bounded:



            $$left|int_0^1 f(x),dxright| le int_0^1 |f(x)|,dx le int_0^1 |f|,dx = |f|$$



            Therefore $f_n xrightarrow f$ implies $ int_0^1 f_n(x),dx to int_0^1 f(x),dx$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$












              Your Answer





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              3 Answers
              3






              active

              oldest

              votes








              3 Answers
              3






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes









              1












              $begingroup$

              You are almost done, just modify the last line as
              $$0leq left|int_0^1(f_n(x) - f(x))dxright|leq int_0^1left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|dx leq sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|$$
              then use $sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|=|f-f_n|to 0$
              and apply the squeeze theorem.



              P.S. Following your approach, you need
              $$-sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|leqinf_[0,1](f_n(x) - f(x)) leq int_0^1(f_n(x) - f(x))dx\ leq sup_[0,1](f_n(x) - f(x))leqsup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|$$
              and again use $sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|=|f-f_n|to 0$.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$












              • $begingroup$
                How does the limit fit into this?
                $endgroup$
                – The Coding Wombat
                Jul 15 '18 at 12:17






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                Take the limit of both sides and you are done. Recall then $sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|=||f-f_n||to 0$
                $endgroup$
                – Robert Z
                Jul 15 '18 at 12:20











              • $begingroup$
                Alright! And the absolute value bars? Where did they come from, how did you transform it into this?
                $endgroup$
                – The Coding Wombat
                Jul 15 '18 at 12:22






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                I edited my P.S. Any further doubt?
                $endgroup$
                – Robert Z
                Jul 15 '18 at 12:42






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                After the squeeze theorem, I state that the LIMIT of the absolute value of the integral is equal to 0, and therefore the LIMIT of integral itself is equal to 0
                $endgroup$
                – Robert Z
                Jul 15 '18 at 13:05















              1












              $begingroup$

              You are almost done, just modify the last line as
              $$0leq left|int_0^1(f_n(x) - f(x))dxright|leq int_0^1left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|dx leq sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|$$
              then use $sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|=|f-f_n|to 0$
              and apply the squeeze theorem.



              P.S. Following your approach, you need
              $$-sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|leqinf_[0,1](f_n(x) - f(x)) leq int_0^1(f_n(x) - f(x))dx\ leq sup_[0,1](f_n(x) - f(x))leqsup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|$$
              and again use $sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|=|f-f_n|to 0$.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$












              • $begingroup$
                How does the limit fit into this?
                $endgroup$
                – The Coding Wombat
                Jul 15 '18 at 12:17






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                Take the limit of both sides and you are done. Recall then $sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|=||f-f_n||to 0$
                $endgroup$
                – Robert Z
                Jul 15 '18 at 12:20











              • $begingroup$
                Alright! And the absolute value bars? Where did they come from, how did you transform it into this?
                $endgroup$
                – The Coding Wombat
                Jul 15 '18 at 12:22






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                I edited my P.S. Any further doubt?
                $endgroup$
                – Robert Z
                Jul 15 '18 at 12:42






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                After the squeeze theorem, I state that the LIMIT of the absolute value of the integral is equal to 0, and therefore the LIMIT of integral itself is equal to 0
                $endgroup$
                – Robert Z
                Jul 15 '18 at 13:05













              1












              1








              1





              $begingroup$

              You are almost done, just modify the last line as
              $$0leq left|int_0^1(f_n(x) - f(x))dxright|leq int_0^1left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|dx leq sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|$$
              then use $sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|=|f-f_n|to 0$
              and apply the squeeze theorem.



              P.S. Following your approach, you need
              $$-sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|leqinf_[0,1](f_n(x) - f(x)) leq int_0^1(f_n(x) - f(x))dx\ leq sup_[0,1](f_n(x) - f(x))leqsup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|$$
              and again use $sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|=|f-f_n|to 0$.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$



              You are almost done, just modify the last line as
              $$0leq left|int_0^1(f_n(x) - f(x))dxright|leq int_0^1left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|dx leq sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|$$
              then use $sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|=|f-f_n|to 0$
              and apply the squeeze theorem.



              P.S. Following your approach, you need
              $$-sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|leqinf_[0,1](f_n(x) - f(x)) leq int_0^1(f_n(x) - f(x))dx\ leq sup_[0,1](f_n(x) - f(x))leqsup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|$$
              and again use $sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|=|f-f_n|to 0$.







              share|cite|improve this answer














              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer








              edited Jul 15 '18 at 12:41

























              answered Jul 15 '18 at 12:12









              Robert ZRobert Z

              101k1070143




              101k1070143











              • $begingroup$
                How does the limit fit into this?
                $endgroup$
                – The Coding Wombat
                Jul 15 '18 at 12:17






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                Take the limit of both sides and you are done. Recall then $sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|=||f-f_n||to 0$
                $endgroup$
                – Robert Z
                Jul 15 '18 at 12:20











              • $begingroup$
                Alright! And the absolute value bars? Where did they come from, how did you transform it into this?
                $endgroup$
                – The Coding Wombat
                Jul 15 '18 at 12:22






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                I edited my P.S. Any further doubt?
                $endgroup$
                – Robert Z
                Jul 15 '18 at 12:42






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                After the squeeze theorem, I state that the LIMIT of the absolute value of the integral is equal to 0, and therefore the LIMIT of integral itself is equal to 0
                $endgroup$
                – Robert Z
                Jul 15 '18 at 13:05
















              • $begingroup$
                How does the limit fit into this?
                $endgroup$
                – The Coding Wombat
                Jul 15 '18 at 12:17






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                Take the limit of both sides and you are done. Recall then $sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|=||f-f_n||to 0$
                $endgroup$
                – Robert Z
                Jul 15 '18 at 12:20











              • $begingroup$
                Alright! And the absolute value bars? Where did they come from, how did you transform it into this?
                $endgroup$
                – The Coding Wombat
                Jul 15 '18 at 12:22






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                I edited my P.S. Any further doubt?
                $endgroup$
                – Robert Z
                Jul 15 '18 at 12:42






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                After the squeeze theorem, I state that the LIMIT of the absolute value of the integral is equal to 0, and therefore the LIMIT of integral itself is equal to 0
                $endgroup$
                – Robert Z
                Jul 15 '18 at 13:05















              $begingroup$
              How does the limit fit into this?
              $endgroup$
              – The Coding Wombat
              Jul 15 '18 at 12:17




              $begingroup$
              How does the limit fit into this?
              $endgroup$
              – The Coding Wombat
              Jul 15 '18 at 12:17




              1




              1




              $begingroup$
              Take the limit of both sides and you are done. Recall then $sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|=||f-f_n||to 0$
              $endgroup$
              – Robert Z
              Jul 15 '18 at 12:20





              $begingroup$
              Take the limit of both sides and you are done. Recall then $sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|=||f-f_n||to 0$
              $endgroup$
              – Robert Z
              Jul 15 '18 at 12:20













              $begingroup$
              Alright! And the absolute value bars? Where did they come from, how did you transform it into this?
              $endgroup$
              – The Coding Wombat
              Jul 15 '18 at 12:22




              $begingroup$
              Alright! And the absolute value bars? Where did they come from, how did you transform it into this?
              $endgroup$
              – The Coding Wombat
              Jul 15 '18 at 12:22




              1




              1




              $begingroup$
              I edited my P.S. Any further doubt?
              $endgroup$
              – Robert Z
              Jul 15 '18 at 12:42




              $begingroup$
              I edited my P.S. Any further doubt?
              $endgroup$
              – Robert Z
              Jul 15 '18 at 12:42




              1




              1




              $begingroup$
              After the squeeze theorem, I state that the LIMIT of the absolute value of the integral is equal to 0, and therefore the LIMIT of integral itself is equal to 0
              $endgroup$
              – Robert Z
              Jul 15 '18 at 13:05




              $begingroup$
              After the squeeze theorem, I state that the LIMIT of the absolute value of the integral is equal to 0, and therefore the LIMIT of integral itself is equal to 0
              $endgroup$
              – Robert Z
              Jul 15 '18 at 13:05











              1












              $begingroup$


              Is it then allowed to put the limit inside the supremum and infimum, which makes them both equal to 0?




              You can't switch infimum/supremum and the limit in general.



              Consider $f_n(x)=maxx-n$. Then $sup_xinmathbb R|f_n(x)|=1$ while $lim_ntoinfty |f_n(x)|=0$. Hence,
              $$
              lim_ntoinftysup_xinmathbb R|f_n(x)|=1neq 0=sup_xinmathbb Rlim_ntoinfty |f_n(x)|.
              $$



              But your case is a bit more special because $[0,1]$ is compact and $f_n$ and $f$ are continuous. Hence, the infimum and supremum are achieved at some points. Then you can apply the limit as your last step.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$

















                1












                $begingroup$


                Is it then allowed to put the limit inside the supremum and infimum, which makes them both equal to 0?




                You can't switch infimum/supremum and the limit in general.



                Consider $f_n(x)=maxx-n$. Then $sup_xinmathbb R|f_n(x)|=1$ while $lim_ntoinfty |f_n(x)|=0$. Hence,
                $$
                lim_ntoinftysup_xinmathbb R|f_n(x)|=1neq 0=sup_xinmathbb Rlim_ntoinfty |f_n(x)|.
                $$



                But your case is a bit more special because $[0,1]$ is compact and $f_n$ and $f$ are continuous. Hence, the infimum and supremum are achieved at some points. Then you can apply the limit as your last step.






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$















                  1












                  1








                  1





                  $begingroup$


                  Is it then allowed to put the limit inside the supremum and infimum, which makes them both equal to 0?




                  You can't switch infimum/supremum and the limit in general.



                  Consider $f_n(x)=maxx-n$. Then $sup_xinmathbb R|f_n(x)|=1$ while $lim_ntoinfty |f_n(x)|=0$. Hence,
                  $$
                  lim_ntoinftysup_xinmathbb R|f_n(x)|=1neq 0=sup_xinmathbb Rlim_ntoinfty |f_n(x)|.
                  $$



                  But your case is a bit more special because $[0,1]$ is compact and $f_n$ and $f$ are continuous. Hence, the infimum and supremum are achieved at some points. Then you can apply the limit as your last step.






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$




                  Is it then allowed to put the limit inside the supremum and infimum, which makes them both equal to 0?




                  You can't switch infimum/supremum and the limit in general.



                  Consider $f_n(x)=maxx-n$. Then $sup_xinmathbb R|f_n(x)|=1$ while $lim_ntoinfty |f_n(x)|=0$. Hence,
                  $$
                  lim_ntoinftysup_xinmathbb R|f_n(x)|=1neq 0=sup_xinmathbb Rlim_ntoinfty |f_n(x)|.
                  $$



                  But your case is a bit more special because $[0,1]$ is compact and $f_n$ and $f$ are continuous. Hence, the infimum and supremum are achieved at some points. Then you can apply the limit as your last step.







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                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Jul 15 '18 at 12:32

























                  answered Jul 15 '18 at 12:14









                  Mundron SchmidtMundron Schmidt

                  7,5042729




                  7,5042729





















                      0












                      $begingroup$

                      The map $f mapsto int_0^1 f(x),dx$ is continuous w.r.t your norm $|cdot|$.



                      Indeed, it is linear and bounded:



                      $$left|int_0^1 f(x),dxright| le int_0^1 |f(x)|,dx le int_0^1 |f|,dx = |f|$$



                      Therefore $f_n xrightarrow f$ implies $ int_0^1 f_n(x),dx to int_0^1 f(x),dx$






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$

















                        0












                        $begingroup$

                        The map $f mapsto int_0^1 f(x),dx$ is continuous w.r.t your norm $|cdot|$.



                        Indeed, it is linear and bounded:



                        $$left|int_0^1 f(x),dxright| le int_0^1 |f(x)|,dx le int_0^1 |f|,dx = |f|$$



                        Therefore $f_n xrightarrow f$ implies $ int_0^1 f_n(x),dx to int_0^1 f(x),dx$






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$















                          0












                          0








                          0





                          $begingroup$

                          The map $f mapsto int_0^1 f(x),dx$ is continuous w.r.t your norm $|cdot|$.



                          Indeed, it is linear and bounded:



                          $$left|int_0^1 f(x),dxright| le int_0^1 |f(x)|,dx le int_0^1 |f|,dx = |f|$$



                          Therefore $f_n xrightarrow f$ implies $ int_0^1 f_n(x),dx to int_0^1 f(x),dx$






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          The map $f mapsto int_0^1 f(x),dx$ is continuous w.r.t your norm $|cdot|$.



                          Indeed, it is linear and bounded:



                          $$left|int_0^1 f(x),dxright| le int_0^1 |f(x)|,dx le int_0^1 |f|,dx = |f|$$



                          Therefore $f_n xrightarrow f$ implies $ int_0^1 f_n(x),dx to int_0^1 f(x),dx$







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Jul 15 '18 at 19:48









                          mechanodroidmechanodroid

                          28.9k62548




                          28.9k62548



























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