Convergent functions and integralsShow that the following sequence is convergent pointwise but not uniformly convergent.limit of the integrations of a sequence of integrable functionslimit superior and inferior of measurable setsexistence of a sequence of continuous functions with two conditionsReal Analysis - Integral of a sequence of functionsReal Analysis, 2.18 (Fatou's Lemma) Integration of Nonnegative functionsDual result of Fatou lemmaif $lim_n to infty sup _x |f_n(x) - f(x)| = 0$, then $lim _n to infty int_a^b f_n = int_a^b f$Arzelà's Dominated Convergence Theorem for improper integrals?Sequence of functions and improper integrals
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Convergent functions and integrals
Show that the following sequence is convergent pointwise but not uniformly convergent.limit of the integrations of a sequence of integrable functionslimit superior and inferior of measurable setsexistence of a sequence of continuous functions with two conditionsReal Analysis - Integral of a sequence of functionsReal Analysis, 2.18 (Fatou's Lemma) Integration of Nonnegative functionsDual result of Fatou lemmaif $lim_n to infty sup _x |f_n(x) - f(x)| = 0$, then $lim _n to infty int_a^b f_n = int_a^b f$Arzelà's Dominated Convergence Theorem for improper integrals?Sequence of functions and improper integrals
$begingroup$
Let $V$ be real normed vector space of Riemann integrable functions $f : [0,1]tomathbbR$ with norm
$||f||:=sup:xin[0,1]$.
Let $f_n:[0,1]tomathbbR$ be continuous for $ninmathbbN$ and let there be a function $fin V$ such that
$lim_ntoinfty ||f-f_n|| = 0$.
I have to show that $lim_ntoinfty int_0^1f_n(x)dx=int^1_0f(x)dx$.
I have already shown that $f$ is continous.
My strategy:
Prove that $lim_ntoinfty int_0^1f_n(x)dx -int^1_0f(x)dx = 0$
so $lim_ntoinfty int_0^1(f_n(x) - f(x))dx = 0$.
I then think I have to use the squeeze theorem:
$lim_ntoinftyinf_[0,1](f_n(x) - f(x)) leqlim_ntoinfty int_0^1(f_n(x) - f(x))dx leq lim_ntoinftysup_[0,1](f_n(x) - f(x))$
Is it then allowed to put the limit inside the supremum and infimum, which makes them both equal to 0?
real-analysis convergence definite-integrals
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $V$ be real normed vector space of Riemann integrable functions $f : [0,1]tomathbbR$ with norm
$||f||:=sup:xin[0,1]$.
Let $f_n:[0,1]tomathbbR$ be continuous for $ninmathbbN$ and let there be a function $fin V$ such that
$lim_ntoinfty ||f-f_n|| = 0$.
I have to show that $lim_ntoinfty int_0^1f_n(x)dx=int^1_0f(x)dx$.
I have already shown that $f$ is continous.
My strategy:
Prove that $lim_ntoinfty int_0^1f_n(x)dx -int^1_0f(x)dx = 0$
so $lim_ntoinfty int_0^1(f_n(x) - f(x))dx = 0$.
I then think I have to use the squeeze theorem:
$lim_ntoinftyinf_[0,1](f_n(x) - f(x)) leqlim_ntoinfty int_0^1(f_n(x) - f(x))dx leq lim_ntoinftysup_[0,1](f_n(x) - f(x))$
Is it then allowed to put the limit inside the supremum and infimum, which makes them both equal to 0?
real-analysis convergence definite-integrals
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $V$ be real normed vector space of Riemann integrable functions $f : [0,1]tomathbbR$ with norm
$||f||:=sup:xin[0,1]$.
Let $f_n:[0,1]tomathbbR$ be continuous for $ninmathbbN$ and let there be a function $fin V$ such that
$lim_ntoinfty ||f-f_n|| = 0$.
I have to show that $lim_ntoinfty int_0^1f_n(x)dx=int^1_0f(x)dx$.
I have already shown that $f$ is continous.
My strategy:
Prove that $lim_ntoinfty int_0^1f_n(x)dx -int^1_0f(x)dx = 0$
so $lim_ntoinfty int_0^1(f_n(x) - f(x))dx = 0$.
I then think I have to use the squeeze theorem:
$lim_ntoinftyinf_[0,1](f_n(x) - f(x)) leqlim_ntoinfty int_0^1(f_n(x) - f(x))dx leq lim_ntoinftysup_[0,1](f_n(x) - f(x))$
Is it then allowed to put the limit inside the supremum and infimum, which makes them both equal to 0?
real-analysis convergence definite-integrals
$endgroup$
Let $V$ be real normed vector space of Riemann integrable functions $f : [0,1]tomathbbR$ with norm
$||f||:=sup:xin[0,1]$.
Let $f_n:[0,1]tomathbbR$ be continuous for $ninmathbbN$ and let there be a function $fin V$ such that
$lim_ntoinfty ||f-f_n|| = 0$.
I have to show that $lim_ntoinfty int_0^1f_n(x)dx=int^1_0f(x)dx$.
I have already shown that $f$ is continous.
My strategy:
Prove that $lim_ntoinfty int_0^1f_n(x)dx -int^1_0f(x)dx = 0$
so $lim_ntoinfty int_0^1(f_n(x) - f(x))dx = 0$.
I then think I have to use the squeeze theorem:
$lim_ntoinftyinf_[0,1](f_n(x) - f(x)) leqlim_ntoinfty int_0^1(f_n(x) - f(x))dx leq lim_ntoinftysup_[0,1](f_n(x) - f(x))$
Is it then allowed to put the limit inside the supremum and infimum, which makes them both equal to 0?
real-analysis convergence definite-integrals
real-analysis convergence definite-integrals
edited Mar 14 at 23:29
The Coding Wombat
asked Jul 15 '18 at 12:07
The Coding WombatThe Coding Wombat
23919
23919
add a comment |
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
You are almost done, just modify the last line as
$$0leq left|int_0^1(f_n(x) - f(x))dxright|leq int_0^1left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|dx leq sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|$$
then use $sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|=|f-f_n|to 0$
and apply the squeeze theorem.
P.S. Following your approach, you need
$$-sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|leqinf_[0,1](f_n(x) - f(x)) leq int_0^1(f_n(x) - f(x))dx\ leq sup_[0,1](f_n(x) - f(x))leqsup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|$$
and again use $sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|=|f-f_n|to 0$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
How does the limit fit into this?
$endgroup$
– The Coding Wombat
Jul 15 '18 at 12:17
1
$begingroup$
Take the limit of both sides and you are done. Recall then $sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|=||f-f_n||to 0$
$endgroup$
– Robert Z
Jul 15 '18 at 12:20
$begingroup$
Alright! And the absolute value bars? Where did they come from, how did you transform it into this?
$endgroup$
– The Coding Wombat
Jul 15 '18 at 12:22
1
$begingroup$
I edited my P.S. Any further doubt?
$endgroup$
– Robert Z
Jul 15 '18 at 12:42
1
$begingroup$
After the squeeze theorem, I state that the LIMIT of the absolute value of the integral is equal to 0, and therefore the LIMIT of integral itself is equal to 0
$endgroup$
– Robert Z
Jul 15 '18 at 13:05
|
show 2 more comments
$begingroup$
Is it then allowed to put the limit inside the supremum and infimum, which makes them both equal to 0?
You can't switch infimum/supremum and the limit in general.
Consider $f_n(x)=maxx-n$. Then $sup_xinmathbb R|f_n(x)|=1$ while $lim_ntoinfty |f_n(x)|=0$. Hence,
$$
lim_ntoinftysup_xinmathbb R|f_n(x)|=1neq 0=sup_xinmathbb Rlim_ntoinfty |f_n(x)|.
$$
But your case is a bit more special because $[0,1]$ is compact and $f_n$ and $f$ are continuous. Hence, the infimum and supremum are achieved at some points. Then you can apply the limit as your last step.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The map $f mapsto int_0^1 f(x),dx$ is continuous w.r.t your norm $|cdot|$.
Indeed, it is linear and bounded:
$$left|int_0^1 f(x),dxright| le int_0^1 |f(x)|,dx le int_0^1 |f|,dx = |f|$$
Therefore $f_n xrightarrow f$ implies $ int_0^1 f_n(x),dx to int_0^1 f(x),dx$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
Your Answer
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
You are almost done, just modify the last line as
$$0leq left|int_0^1(f_n(x) - f(x))dxright|leq int_0^1left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|dx leq sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|$$
then use $sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|=|f-f_n|to 0$
and apply the squeeze theorem.
P.S. Following your approach, you need
$$-sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|leqinf_[0,1](f_n(x) - f(x)) leq int_0^1(f_n(x) - f(x))dx\ leq sup_[0,1](f_n(x) - f(x))leqsup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|$$
and again use $sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|=|f-f_n|to 0$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
How does the limit fit into this?
$endgroup$
– The Coding Wombat
Jul 15 '18 at 12:17
1
$begingroup$
Take the limit of both sides and you are done. Recall then $sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|=||f-f_n||to 0$
$endgroup$
– Robert Z
Jul 15 '18 at 12:20
$begingroup$
Alright! And the absolute value bars? Where did they come from, how did you transform it into this?
$endgroup$
– The Coding Wombat
Jul 15 '18 at 12:22
1
$begingroup$
I edited my P.S. Any further doubt?
$endgroup$
– Robert Z
Jul 15 '18 at 12:42
1
$begingroup$
After the squeeze theorem, I state that the LIMIT of the absolute value of the integral is equal to 0, and therefore the LIMIT of integral itself is equal to 0
$endgroup$
– Robert Z
Jul 15 '18 at 13:05
|
show 2 more comments
$begingroup$
You are almost done, just modify the last line as
$$0leq left|int_0^1(f_n(x) - f(x))dxright|leq int_0^1left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|dx leq sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|$$
then use $sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|=|f-f_n|to 0$
and apply the squeeze theorem.
P.S. Following your approach, you need
$$-sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|leqinf_[0,1](f_n(x) - f(x)) leq int_0^1(f_n(x) - f(x))dx\ leq sup_[0,1](f_n(x) - f(x))leqsup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|$$
and again use $sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|=|f-f_n|to 0$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
How does the limit fit into this?
$endgroup$
– The Coding Wombat
Jul 15 '18 at 12:17
1
$begingroup$
Take the limit of both sides and you are done. Recall then $sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|=||f-f_n||to 0$
$endgroup$
– Robert Z
Jul 15 '18 at 12:20
$begingroup$
Alright! And the absolute value bars? Where did they come from, how did you transform it into this?
$endgroup$
– The Coding Wombat
Jul 15 '18 at 12:22
1
$begingroup$
I edited my P.S. Any further doubt?
$endgroup$
– Robert Z
Jul 15 '18 at 12:42
1
$begingroup$
After the squeeze theorem, I state that the LIMIT of the absolute value of the integral is equal to 0, and therefore the LIMIT of integral itself is equal to 0
$endgroup$
– Robert Z
Jul 15 '18 at 13:05
|
show 2 more comments
$begingroup$
You are almost done, just modify the last line as
$$0leq left|int_0^1(f_n(x) - f(x))dxright|leq int_0^1left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|dx leq sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|$$
then use $sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|=|f-f_n|to 0$
and apply the squeeze theorem.
P.S. Following your approach, you need
$$-sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|leqinf_[0,1](f_n(x) - f(x)) leq int_0^1(f_n(x) - f(x))dx\ leq sup_[0,1](f_n(x) - f(x))leqsup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|$$
and again use $sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|=|f-f_n|to 0$.
$endgroup$
You are almost done, just modify the last line as
$$0leq left|int_0^1(f_n(x) - f(x))dxright|leq int_0^1left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|dx leq sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|$$
then use $sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|=|f-f_n|to 0$
and apply the squeeze theorem.
P.S. Following your approach, you need
$$-sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|leqinf_[0,1](f_n(x) - f(x)) leq int_0^1(f_n(x) - f(x))dx\ leq sup_[0,1](f_n(x) - f(x))leqsup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|$$
and again use $sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|=|f-f_n|to 0$.
edited Jul 15 '18 at 12:41
answered Jul 15 '18 at 12:12
Robert ZRobert Z
101k1070143
101k1070143
$begingroup$
How does the limit fit into this?
$endgroup$
– The Coding Wombat
Jul 15 '18 at 12:17
1
$begingroup$
Take the limit of both sides and you are done. Recall then $sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|=||f-f_n||to 0$
$endgroup$
– Robert Z
Jul 15 '18 at 12:20
$begingroup$
Alright! And the absolute value bars? Where did they come from, how did you transform it into this?
$endgroup$
– The Coding Wombat
Jul 15 '18 at 12:22
1
$begingroup$
I edited my P.S. Any further doubt?
$endgroup$
– Robert Z
Jul 15 '18 at 12:42
1
$begingroup$
After the squeeze theorem, I state that the LIMIT of the absolute value of the integral is equal to 0, and therefore the LIMIT of integral itself is equal to 0
$endgroup$
– Robert Z
Jul 15 '18 at 13:05
|
show 2 more comments
$begingroup$
How does the limit fit into this?
$endgroup$
– The Coding Wombat
Jul 15 '18 at 12:17
1
$begingroup$
Take the limit of both sides and you are done. Recall then $sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|=||f-f_n||to 0$
$endgroup$
– Robert Z
Jul 15 '18 at 12:20
$begingroup$
Alright! And the absolute value bars? Where did they come from, how did you transform it into this?
$endgroup$
– The Coding Wombat
Jul 15 '18 at 12:22
1
$begingroup$
I edited my P.S. Any further doubt?
$endgroup$
– Robert Z
Jul 15 '18 at 12:42
1
$begingroup$
After the squeeze theorem, I state that the LIMIT of the absolute value of the integral is equal to 0, and therefore the LIMIT of integral itself is equal to 0
$endgroup$
– Robert Z
Jul 15 '18 at 13:05
$begingroup$
How does the limit fit into this?
$endgroup$
– The Coding Wombat
Jul 15 '18 at 12:17
$begingroup$
How does the limit fit into this?
$endgroup$
– The Coding Wombat
Jul 15 '18 at 12:17
1
1
$begingroup$
Take the limit of both sides and you are done. Recall then $sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|=||f-f_n||to 0$
$endgroup$
– Robert Z
Jul 15 '18 at 12:20
$begingroup$
Take the limit of both sides and you are done. Recall then $sup_[0,1]left|f_n(x) - f(x)right|=||f-f_n||to 0$
$endgroup$
– Robert Z
Jul 15 '18 at 12:20
$begingroup$
Alright! And the absolute value bars? Where did they come from, how did you transform it into this?
$endgroup$
– The Coding Wombat
Jul 15 '18 at 12:22
$begingroup$
Alright! And the absolute value bars? Where did they come from, how did you transform it into this?
$endgroup$
– The Coding Wombat
Jul 15 '18 at 12:22
1
1
$begingroup$
I edited my P.S. Any further doubt?
$endgroup$
– Robert Z
Jul 15 '18 at 12:42
$begingroup$
I edited my P.S. Any further doubt?
$endgroup$
– Robert Z
Jul 15 '18 at 12:42
1
1
$begingroup$
After the squeeze theorem, I state that the LIMIT of the absolute value of the integral is equal to 0, and therefore the LIMIT of integral itself is equal to 0
$endgroup$
– Robert Z
Jul 15 '18 at 13:05
$begingroup$
After the squeeze theorem, I state that the LIMIT of the absolute value of the integral is equal to 0, and therefore the LIMIT of integral itself is equal to 0
$endgroup$
– Robert Z
Jul 15 '18 at 13:05
|
show 2 more comments
$begingroup$
Is it then allowed to put the limit inside the supremum and infimum, which makes them both equal to 0?
You can't switch infimum/supremum and the limit in general.
Consider $f_n(x)=maxx-n$. Then $sup_xinmathbb R|f_n(x)|=1$ while $lim_ntoinfty |f_n(x)|=0$. Hence,
$$
lim_ntoinftysup_xinmathbb R|f_n(x)|=1neq 0=sup_xinmathbb Rlim_ntoinfty |f_n(x)|.
$$
But your case is a bit more special because $[0,1]$ is compact and $f_n$ and $f$ are continuous. Hence, the infimum and supremum are achieved at some points. Then you can apply the limit as your last step.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Is it then allowed to put the limit inside the supremum and infimum, which makes them both equal to 0?
You can't switch infimum/supremum and the limit in general.
Consider $f_n(x)=maxx-n$. Then $sup_xinmathbb R|f_n(x)|=1$ while $lim_ntoinfty |f_n(x)|=0$. Hence,
$$
lim_ntoinftysup_xinmathbb R|f_n(x)|=1neq 0=sup_xinmathbb Rlim_ntoinfty |f_n(x)|.
$$
But your case is a bit more special because $[0,1]$ is compact and $f_n$ and $f$ are continuous. Hence, the infimum and supremum are achieved at some points. Then you can apply the limit as your last step.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Is it then allowed to put the limit inside the supremum and infimum, which makes them both equal to 0?
You can't switch infimum/supremum and the limit in general.
Consider $f_n(x)=maxx-n$. Then $sup_xinmathbb R|f_n(x)|=1$ while $lim_ntoinfty |f_n(x)|=0$. Hence,
$$
lim_ntoinftysup_xinmathbb R|f_n(x)|=1neq 0=sup_xinmathbb Rlim_ntoinfty |f_n(x)|.
$$
But your case is a bit more special because $[0,1]$ is compact and $f_n$ and $f$ are continuous. Hence, the infimum and supremum are achieved at some points. Then you can apply the limit as your last step.
$endgroup$
Is it then allowed to put the limit inside the supremum and infimum, which makes them both equal to 0?
You can't switch infimum/supremum and the limit in general.
Consider $f_n(x)=maxx-n$. Then $sup_xinmathbb R|f_n(x)|=1$ while $lim_ntoinfty |f_n(x)|=0$. Hence,
$$
lim_ntoinftysup_xinmathbb R|f_n(x)|=1neq 0=sup_xinmathbb Rlim_ntoinfty |f_n(x)|.
$$
But your case is a bit more special because $[0,1]$ is compact and $f_n$ and $f$ are continuous. Hence, the infimum and supremum are achieved at some points. Then you can apply the limit as your last step.
edited Jul 15 '18 at 12:32
answered Jul 15 '18 at 12:14
Mundron SchmidtMundron Schmidt
7,5042729
7,5042729
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The map $f mapsto int_0^1 f(x),dx$ is continuous w.r.t your norm $|cdot|$.
Indeed, it is linear and bounded:
$$left|int_0^1 f(x),dxright| le int_0^1 |f(x)|,dx le int_0^1 |f|,dx = |f|$$
Therefore $f_n xrightarrow f$ implies $ int_0^1 f_n(x),dx to int_0^1 f(x),dx$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The map $f mapsto int_0^1 f(x),dx$ is continuous w.r.t your norm $|cdot|$.
Indeed, it is linear and bounded:
$$left|int_0^1 f(x),dxright| le int_0^1 |f(x)|,dx le int_0^1 |f|,dx = |f|$$
Therefore $f_n xrightarrow f$ implies $ int_0^1 f_n(x),dx to int_0^1 f(x),dx$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The map $f mapsto int_0^1 f(x),dx$ is continuous w.r.t your norm $|cdot|$.
Indeed, it is linear and bounded:
$$left|int_0^1 f(x),dxright| le int_0^1 |f(x)|,dx le int_0^1 |f|,dx = |f|$$
Therefore $f_n xrightarrow f$ implies $ int_0^1 f_n(x),dx to int_0^1 f(x),dx$
$endgroup$
The map $f mapsto int_0^1 f(x),dx$ is continuous w.r.t your norm $|cdot|$.
Indeed, it is linear and bounded:
$$left|int_0^1 f(x),dxright| le int_0^1 |f(x)|,dx le int_0^1 |f|,dx = |f|$$
Therefore $f_n xrightarrow f$ implies $ int_0^1 f_n(x),dx to int_0^1 f(x),dx$
answered Jul 15 '18 at 19:48
mechanodroidmechanodroid
28.9k62548
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