Proof of $dim ker (f circ g) le dim ker (f) + dim ker (g)$ The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InWhy is $dim(V/bigcap_i=1^nker(f_i))leq n$ for linear functionals $f_i$?$dim(mboxim(f)) = dim(U)$ and $dim(ker(g)) = dim(V)-dim(U)$$ker(T) subseteqker(S)$ implies the exist some $H$ s.t. $Hcirc T=S$$V$ be a vector space , $T:V to V$ be a linear operator , then is $ker (T) cap R(T) cong R(T)/R(T^2) $?$T^2=O$ and if $dim V=2$, $T^2=O$ ($Tneq O$), then $ker T=mathrmIm ; T$$renewcommandImtextIm$Prove that $dim(ker(T))=dim(ker(T^2))$ if $dim(Im(T))=dim(Im(T^2))$$dim(kervarphicapkerpsi)=n-2$ proofRank-Nullity Theorem: Struggling to Reconcile $rm Rank(A) +rm Nul(A) = n$ and $dim(V) = dim(rm Im(f)) +dim(rm ker(f))$.Prove/Disprove: $S$ not invertible and $dim(ker(T)+dim(ker(S)geqdim(V)$Linear transformations $f, g:Vto V$ with properties $f circ f = g circ g = 0_V$ and $f circ g + g circ f = 1_V$ imply $dim V$ is even?

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Proof of $dim ker (f circ g) le dim ker (f) + dim ker (g)$



The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InWhy is $dim(V/bigcap_i=1^nker(f_i))leq n$ for linear functionals $f_i$?$dim(mboxim(f)) = dim(U)$ and $dim(ker(g)) = dim(V)-dim(U)$$ker(T) subseteqker(S)$ implies the exist some $H$ s.t. $Hcirc T=S$$V$ be a vector space , $T:V to V$ be a linear operator , then is $ker (T) cap R(T) cong R(T)/R(T^2) $?$T^2=O$ and if $dim V=2$, $T^2=O$ ($Tneq O$), then $ker T=mathrmIm ; T$$renewcommandImtextIm$Prove that $dim(ker(T))=dim(ker(T^2))$ if $dim(Im(T))=dim(Im(T^2))$$dim(kervarphicapkerpsi)=n-2$ proofRank-Nullity Theorem: Struggling to Reconcile $rm Rank(A) +rm Nul(A) = n$ and $dim(V) = dim(rm Im(f)) +dim(rm ker(f))$.Prove/Disprove: $S$ not invertible and $dim(ker(T)+dim(ker(S)geqdim(V)$Linear transformations $f, g:Vto V$ with properties $f circ f = g circ g = 0_V$ and $f circ g + g circ f = 1_V$ imply $dim V$ is even?










0












$begingroup$


In my lecture notes I have an inequality for any linear transformations $f: X to X$, $g: X to X$ for any finite-dimensional vector space $X$:
$$dim ker (f circ g) le dim ker (f) + dim ker (g)$$



Can anyone help me with proofing it?
Of course I know basic equality: $dim ker f + dim im f = dim X$, but I do not know any inequality, which involves dimension of transpormations, therefore I do not even know where to start.



Thanks in advance










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    Can you write expression for $ker(f circ g) $?
    $endgroup$
    – shilov
    Jan 10 '16 at 22:03















0












$begingroup$


In my lecture notes I have an inequality for any linear transformations $f: X to X$, $g: X to X$ for any finite-dimensional vector space $X$:
$$dim ker (f circ g) le dim ker (f) + dim ker (g)$$



Can anyone help me with proofing it?
Of course I know basic equality: $dim ker f + dim im f = dim X$, but I do not know any inequality, which involves dimension of transpormations, therefore I do not even know where to start.



Thanks in advance










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    Can you write expression for $ker(f circ g) $?
    $endgroup$
    – shilov
    Jan 10 '16 at 22:03













0












0








0


2



$begingroup$


In my lecture notes I have an inequality for any linear transformations $f: X to X$, $g: X to X$ for any finite-dimensional vector space $X$:
$$dim ker (f circ g) le dim ker (f) + dim ker (g)$$



Can anyone help me with proofing it?
Of course I know basic equality: $dim ker f + dim im f = dim X$, but I do not know any inequality, which involves dimension of transpormations, therefore I do not even know where to start.



Thanks in advance










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




In my lecture notes I have an inequality for any linear transformations $f: X to X$, $g: X to X$ for any finite-dimensional vector space $X$:
$$dim ker (f circ g) le dim ker (f) + dim ker (g)$$



Can anyone help me with proofing it?
Of course I know basic equality: $dim ker f + dim im f = dim X$, but I do not know any inequality, which involves dimension of transpormations, therefore I do not even know where to start.



Thanks in advance







linear-algebra vector-spaces linear-transformations






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Jan 10 '16 at 22:00









AndyAndy

1606




1606











  • $begingroup$
    Can you write expression for $ker(f circ g) $?
    $endgroup$
    – shilov
    Jan 10 '16 at 22:03
















  • $begingroup$
    Can you write expression for $ker(f circ g) $?
    $endgroup$
    – shilov
    Jan 10 '16 at 22:03















$begingroup$
Can you write expression for $ker(f circ g) $?
$endgroup$
– shilov
Jan 10 '16 at 22:03




$begingroup$
Can you write expression for $ker(f circ g) $?
$endgroup$
– shilov
Jan 10 '16 at 22:03










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

Let $g:Vto W$ and $f:Wto X$. So, $fcirc g:Vto X$. Note that $ker(fcirc g)=g^-1(ker f)$. Let $V=g^-1(ker f)$. This is a subspace of $V$, and $g(V')subseteqker f$. Note that $ker gsubseteq V'$.
$$operatornamedimV=operatornamedim(ker g)+dim(g(V')),$$
and
$$dim(g(V'))=dim(ker f|_g(V'))+dim(f(g(V')).$$



Since $V'=ker(fcirc g)$, $dim(f(g(V'))=0$, and $dim(f|_g(V'))=dim(ker fcap g(V'))ledimker f$, we get the desired inquality.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Shouln't it be $g^-1(ker f)$.? Also, where is $f$ described?
    $endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Jan 10 '16 at 22:13










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, you're right. Silly me.
    $endgroup$
    – Tim Raczkowski
    Jan 10 '16 at 22:14










  • $begingroup$
    You're welcome!
    $endgroup$
    – Tim Raczkowski
    Jan 10 '16 at 22:16










  • $begingroup$
    Ok, at the first look I though that I understand, but now I am not sure, how do we know $ker(f) = g(V)$? (so that later we can say $ker(f) = im(g)$ since $g(V) =im (g)$)
    $endgroup$
    – Andy
    Jan 11 '16 at 2:30










  • $begingroup$
    You're right, I was a bit careless. I'll fix my answer.
    $endgroup$
    – Tim Raczkowski
    Jan 11 '16 at 3:29


















0












$begingroup$

I know this is an old post but I think based on Tim Raczkowski's idea, we can construct a more succinct proof:



Again, let $~g: V to W,~ f: W to X$ with $ V' = textker(fg) subseteq V $.



The important point to note is that $ V' = textker(fg) = g^-1(textkerf) $ so that $ g(V') subseteq textker(f) $. Hence, $textdim(g(V')) leq textnullity(f)$. By the Dimension Theorem, $$ textdim(V') = textdim(textker~ g|_V') + textdim(textIm~g|_V').$$
Now, $textdim(textIm~g|_V') = textdim(g(V'))$ and from above, $textdim(g(V')) leq textnullity(f)$.

Thus, $$ textdim(V') leq textdim(textker~ g|_V') + textnullity(f). $$
Since $ textker~ g subseteq V'$, $ textker~g|_V' = textker ~g $ which implies $textdim(textker~g|_V' ) = textdim(textker ~g)$.



Finally, $$ textnullity~fg = textdim(V') leq textnullity~g + textnullity~f $$
as needed.






share|cite|improve this answer









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    2 Answers
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    2 Answers
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    active

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    1












    $begingroup$

    Let $g:Vto W$ and $f:Wto X$. So, $fcirc g:Vto X$. Note that $ker(fcirc g)=g^-1(ker f)$. Let $V=g^-1(ker f)$. This is a subspace of $V$, and $g(V')subseteqker f$. Note that $ker gsubseteq V'$.
    $$operatornamedimV=operatornamedim(ker g)+dim(g(V')),$$
    and
    $$dim(g(V'))=dim(ker f|_g(V'))+dim(f(g(V')).$$



    Since $V'=ker(fcirc g)$, $dim(f(g(V'))=0$, and $dim(f|_g(V'))=dim(ker fcap g(V'))ledimker f$, we get the desired inquality.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      Shouln't it be $g^-1(ker f)$.? Also, where is $f$ described?
      $endgroup$
      – Bernard
      Jan 10 '16 at 22:13










    • $begingroup$
      Yes, you're right. Silly me.
      $endgroup$
      – Tim Raczkowski
      Jan 10 '16 at 22:14










    • $begingroup$
      You're welcome!
      $endgroup$
      – Tim Raczkowski
      Jan 10 '16 at 22:16










    • $begingroup$
      Ok, at the first look I though that I understand, but now I am not sure, how do we know $ker(f) = g(V)$? (so that later we can say $ker(f) = im(g)$ since $g(V) =im (g)$)
      $endgroup$
      – Andy
      Jan 11 '16 at 2:30










    • $begingroup$
      You're right, I was a bit careless. I'll fix my answer.
      $endgroup$
      – Tim Raczkowski
      Jan 11 '16 at 3:29















    1












    $begingroup$

    Let $g:Vto W$ and $f:Wto X$. So, $fcirc g:Vto X$. Note that $ker(fcirc g)=g^-1(ker f)$. Let $V=g^-1(ker f)$. This is a subspace of $V$, and $g(V')subseteqker f$. Note that $ker gsubseteq V'$.
    $$operatornamedimV=operatornamedim(ker g)+dim(g(V')),$$
    and
    $$dim(g(V'))=dim(ker f|_g(V'))+dim(f(g(V')).$$



    Since $V'=ker(fcirc g)$, $dim(f(g(V'))=0$, and $dim(f|_g(V'))=dim(ker fcap g(V'))ledimker f$, we get the desired inquality.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      Shouln't it be $g^-1(ker f)$.? Also, where is $f$ described?
      $endgroup$
      – Bernard
      Jan 10 '16 at 22:13










    • $begingroup$
      Yes, you're right. Silly me.
      $endgroup$
      – Tim Raczkowski
      Jan 10 '16 at 22:14










    • $begingroup$
      You're welcome!
      $endgroup$
      – Tim Raczkowski
      Jan 10 '16 at 22:16










    • $begingroup$
      Ok, at the first look I though that I understand, but now I am not sure, how do we know $ker(f) = g(V)$? (so that later we can say $ker(f) = im(g)$ since $g(V) =im (g)$)
      $endgroup$
      – Andy
      Jan 11 '16 at 2:30










    • $begingroup$
      You're right, I was a bit careless. I'll fix my answer.
      $endgroup$
      – Tim Raczkowski
      Jan 11 '16 at 3:29













    1












    1








    1





    $begingroup$

    Let $g:Vto W$ and $f:Wto X$. So, $fcirc g:Vto X$. Note that $ker(fcirc g)=g^-1(ker f)$. Let $V=g^-1(ker f)$. This is a subspace of $V$, and $g(V')subseteqker f$. Note that $ker gsubseteq V'$.
    $$operatornamedimV=operatornamedim(ker g)+dim(g(V')),$$
    and
    $$dim(g(V'))=dim(ker f|_g(V'))+dim(f(g(V')).$$



    Since $V'=ker(fcirc g)$, $dim(f(g(V'))=0$, and $dim(f|_g(V'))=dim(ker fcap g(V'))ledimker f$, we get the desired inquality.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$



    Let $g:Vto W$ and $f:Wto X$. So, $fcirc g:Vto X$. Note that $ker(fcirc g)=g^-1(ker f)$. Let $V=g^-1(ker f)$. This is a subspace of $V$, and $g(V')subseteqker f$. Note that $ker gsubseteq V'$.
    $$operatornamedimV=operatornamedim(ker g)+dim(g(V')),$$
    and
    $$dim(g(V'))=dim(ker f|_g(V'))+dim(f(g(V')).$$



    Since $V'=ker(fcirc g)$, $dim(f(g(V'))=0$, and $dim(f|_g(V'))=dim(ker fcap g(V'))ledimker f$, we get the desired inquality.







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Jan 11 '16 at 5:06

























    answered Jan 10 '16 at 22:07









    Tim RaczkowskiTim Raczkowski

    17.4k21244




    17.4k21244











    • $begingroup$
      Shouln't it be $g^-1(ker f)$.? Also, where is $f$ described?
      $endgroup$
      – Bernard
      Jan 10 '16 at 22:13










    • $begingroup$
      Yes, you're right. Silly me.
      $endgroup$
      – Tim Raczkowski
      Jan 10 '16 at 22:14










    • $begingroup$
      You're welcome!
      $endgroup$
      – Tim Raczkowski
      Jan 10 '16 at 22:16










    • $begingroup$
      Ok, at the first look I though that I understand, but now I am not sure, how do we know $ker(f) = g(V)$? (so that later we can say $ker(f) = im(g)$ since $g(V) =im (g)$)
      $endgroup$
      – Andy
      Jan 11 '16 at 2:30










    • $begingroup$
      You're right, I was a bit careless. I'll fix my answer.
      $endgroup$
      – Tim Raczkowski
      Jan 11 '16 at 3:29
















    • $begingroup$
      Shouln't it be $g^-1(ker f)$.? Also, where is $f$ described?
      $endgroup$
      – Bernard
      Jan 10 '16 at 22:13










    • $begingroup$
      Yes, you're right. Silly me.
      $endgroup$
      – Tim Raczkowski
      Jan 10 '16 at 22:14










    • $begingroup$
      You're welcome!
      $endgroup$
      – Tim Raczkowski
      Jan 10 '16 at 22:16










    • $begingroup$
      Ok, at the first look I though that I understand, but now I am not sure, how do we know $ker(f) = g(V)$? (so that later we can say $ker(f) = im(g)$ since $g(V) =im (g)$)
      $endgroup$
      – Andy
      Jan 11 '16 at 2:30










    • $begingroup$
      You're right, I was a bit careless. I'll fix my answer.
      $endgroup$
      – Tim Raczkowski
      Jan 11 '16 at 3:29















    $begingroup$
    Shouln't it be $g^-1(ker f)$.? Also, where is $f$ described?
    $endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Jan 10 '16 at 22:13




    $begingroup$
    Shouln't it be $g^-1(ker f)$.? Also, where is $f$ described?
    $endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Jan 10 '16 at 22:13












    $begingroup$
    Yes, you're right. Silly me.
    $endgroup$
    – Tim Raczkowski
    Jan 10 '16 at 22:14




    $begingroup$
    Yes, you're right. Silly me.
    $endgroup$
    – Tim Raczkowski
    Jan 10 '16 at 22:14












    $begingroup$
    You're welcome!
    $endgroup$
    – Tim Raczkowski
    Jan 10 '16 at 22:16




    $begingroup$
    You're welcome!
    $endgroup$
    – Tim Raczkowski
    Jan 10 '16 at 22:16












    $begingroup$
    Ok, at the first look I though that I understand, but now I am not sure, how do we know $ker(f) = g(V)$? (so that later we can say $ker(f) = im(g)$ since $g(V) =im (g)$)
    $endgroup$
    – Andy
    Jan 11 '16 at 2:30




    $begingroup$
    Ok, at the first look I though that I understand, but now I am not sure, how do we know $ker(f) = g(V)$? (so that later we can say $ker(f) = im(g)$ since $g(V) =im (g)$)
    $endgroup$
    – Andy
    Jan 11 '16 at 2:30












    $begingroup$
    You're right, I was a bit careless. I'll fix my answer.
    $endgroup$
    – Tim Raczkowski
    Jan 11 '16 at 3:29




    $begingroup$
    You're right, I was a bit careless. I'll fix my answer.
    $endgroup$
    – Tim Raczkowski
    Jan 11 '16 at 3:29











    0












    $begingroup$

    I know this is an old post but I think based on Tim Raczkowski's idea, we can construct a more succinct proof:



    Again, let $~g: V to W,~ f: W to X$ with $ V' = textker(fg) subseteq V $.



    The important point to note is that $ V' = textker(fg) = g^-1(textkerf) $ so that $ g(V') subseteq textker(f) $. Hence, $textdim(g(V')) leq textnullity(f)$. By the Dimension Theorem, $$ textdim(V') = textdim(textker~ g|_V') + textdim(textIm~g|_V').$$
    Now, $textdim(textIm~g|_V') = textdim(g(V'))$ and from above, $textdim(g(V')) leq textnullity(f)$.

    Thus, $$ textdim(V') leq textdim(textker~ g|_V') + textnullity(f). $$
    Since $ textker~ g subseteq V'$, $ textker~g|_V' = textker ~g $ which implies $textdim(textker~g|_V' ) = textdim(textker ~g)$.



    Finally, $$ textnullity~fg = textdim(V') leq textnullity~g + textnullity~f $$
    as needed.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$

















      0












      $begingroup$

      I know this is an old post but I think based on Tim Raczkowski's idea, we can construct a more succinct proof:



      Again, let $~g: V to W,~ f: W to X$ with $ V' = textker(fg) subseteq V $.



      The important point to note is that $ V' = textker(fg) = g^-1(textkerf) $ so that $ g(V') subseteq textker(f) $. Hence, $textdim(g(V')) leq textnullity(f)$. By the Dimension Theorem, $$ textdim(V') = textdim(textker~ g|_V') + textdim(textIm~g|_V').$$
      Now, $textdim(textIm~g|_V') = textdim(g(V'))$ and from above, $textdim(g(V')) leq textnullity(f)$.

      Thus, $$ textdim(V') leq textdim(textker~ g|_V') + textnullity(f). $$
      Since $ textker~ g subseteq V'$, $ textker~g|_V' = textker ~g $ which implies $textdim(textker~g|_V' ) = textdim(textker ~g)$.



      Finally, $$ textnullity~fg = textdim(V') leq textnullity~g + textnullity~f $$
      as needed.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        I know this is an old post but I think based on Tim Raczkowski's idea, we can construct a more succinct proof:



        Again, let $~g: V to W,~ f: W to X$ with $ V' = textker(fg) subseteq V $.



        The important point to note is that $ V' = textker(fg) = g^-1(textkerf) $ so that $ g(V') subseteq textker(f) $. Hence, $textdim(g(V')) leq textnullity(f)$. By the Dimension Theorem, $$ textdim(V') = textdim(textker~ g|_V') + textdim(textIm~g|_V').$$
        Now, $textdim(textIm~g|_V') = textdim(g(V'))$ and from above, $textdim(g(V')) leq textnullity(f)$.

        Thus, $$ textdim(V') leq textdim(textker~ g|_V') + textnullity(f). $$
        Since $ textker~ g subseteq V'$, $ textker~g|_V' = textker ~g $ which implies $textdim(textker~g|_V' ) = textdim(textker ~g)$.



        Finally, $$ textnullity~fg = textdim(V') leq textnullity~g + textnullity~f $$
        as needed.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        I know this is an old post but I think based on Tim Raczkowski's idea, we can construct a more succinct proof:



        Again, let $~g: V to W,~ f: W to X$ with $ V' = textker(fg) subseteq V $.



        The important point to note is that $ V' = textker(fg) = g^-1(textkerf) $ so that $ g(V') subseteq textker(f) $. Hence, $textdim(g(V')) leq textnullity(f)$. By the Dimension Theorem, $$ textdim(V') = textdim(textker~ g|_V') + textdim(textIm~g|_V').$$
        Now, $textdim(textIm~g|_V') = textdim(g(V'))$ and from above, $textdim(g(V')) leq textnullity(f)$.

        Thus, $$ textdim(V') leq textdim(textker~ g|_V') + textnullity(f). $$
        Since $ textker~ g subseteq V'$, $ textker~g|_V' = textker ~g $ which implies $textdim(textker~g|_V' ) = textdim(textker ~g)$.



        Finally, $$ textnullity~fg = textdim(V') leq textnullity~g + textnullity~f $$
        as needed.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Mar 22 at 19:27









        Khoa taKhoa ta

        23719




        23719



























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