What is the following limit? $lim_x to 0xe^frac1x$Evaluate the following limit without L'HopitalEvaluating the $lim_xto0frac4^x-18^x-1$ without L'Hopital RuleFind the following limit 0/0Limit without using the L'HÔPITAL rule:$lim_limits x to pi frac(e^sin x -1)(x-pi)$Limit of $lim_xto 1 (fracxx-1-frac1ln x)$ without HopitalLimit of the exponential functions: $lim_xto 0 frace^x-e^x cos x x +sin x$Find the limit $lim_x to fracpi2(fraccos(5x)cos(3x))$ without using L'Hospital's ruleHow to compute $lim_xto 0frace^x -1-x-fracx^22x^3$ without using L'Hospital rule?Evalutation of the limit $lim_x to+ infty x - x^2 cdot lnleft(1+ frac 1 xright)$How to calculate $ lim_xto 4 (fracfracpi6 - arcsin(fracsqrtx4)sqrt[3]2x-7-1) $ without the rule of L'Hôpital?

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What is the following limit? $lim_x to 0xe^frac1x$


Evaluate the following limit without L'HopitalEvaluating the $lim_xto0frac4^x-18^x-1$ without L'Hopital RuleFind the following limit 0/0Limit without using the L'HÔPITAL rule:$lim_limits x to pi frac(e^sin x -1)(x-pi)$Limit of $lim_xto 1 (fracxx-1-frac1ln x)$ without HopitalLimit of the exponential functions: $lim_xto 0 frace^x-e^x cos x x +sin x$Find the limit $lim_x to fracpi2(fraccos(5x)cos(3x))$ without using L'Hospital's ruleHow to compute $lim_xto 0frace^x -1-x-fracx^22x^3$ without using L'Hospital rule?Evalutation of the limit $lim_x to+ infty x - x^2 cdot lnleft(1+ frac 1 xright)$How to calculate $ lim_xto 4 (fracfracpi6 - arcsin(fracsqrtx4)sqrt[3]2x-7-1) $ without the rule of L'Hôpital?













0












$begingroup$


I need to find lateral limits of this one $$lim_x to 0xe^frac1x$$ I tried and I got that when $x$ is smaller than $0$ the limit is $0$. But what do I do when $x$ is bigger than $0$?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    Could you show how the limit goes to zero when $x<0$?
    $endgroup$
    – Rafael Wagner
    Feb 28 '17 at 17:02










  • $begingroup$
    You are saying that $e^1/0 = 1$?
    $endgroup$
    – Rafael Wagner
    Feb 28 '17 at 17:05






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    i am saying that when x is smaller than 0 you get $e^1/0-=1/e^infty=0$
    $endgroup$
    – Ghost
    Feb 28 '17 at 17:06










  • $begingroup$
    Ok then I get it now
    $endgroup$
    – Rafael Wagner
    Feb 28 '17 at 17:08















0












$begingroup$


I need to find lateral limits of this one $$lim_x to 0xe^frac1x$$ I tried and I got that when $x$ is smaller than $0$ the limit is $0$. But what do I do when $x$ is bigger than $0$?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    Could you show how the limit goes to zero when $x<0$?
    $endgroup$
    – Rafael Wagner
    Feb 28 '17 at 17:02










  • $begingroup$
    You are saying that $e^1/0 = 1$?
    $endgroup$
    – Rafael Wagner
    Feb 28 '17 at 17:05






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    i am saying that when x is smaller than 0 you get $e^1/0-=1/e^infty=0$
    $endgroup$
    – Ghost
    Feb 28 '17 at 17:06










  • $begingroup$
    Ok then I get it now
    $endgroup$
    – Rafael Wagner
    Feb 28 '17 at 17:08













0












0








0


1



$begingroup$


I need to find lateral limits of this one $$lim_x to 0xe^frac1x$$ I tried and I got that when $x$ is smaller than $0$ the limit is $0$. But what do I do when $x$ is bigger than $0$?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I need to find lateral limits of this one $$lim_x to 0xe^frac1x$$ I tried and I got that when $x$ is smaller than $0$ the limit is $0$. But what do I do when $x$ is bigger than $0$?







limits-without-lhopital






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Feb 28 '17 at 17:08









zahbaz

8,43921938




8,43921938










asked Feb 28 '17 at 16:56









GhostGhost

564210




564210











  • $begingroup$
    Could you show how the limit goes to zero when $x<0$?
    $endgroup$
    – Rafael Wagner
    Feb 28 '17 at 17:02










  • $begingroup$
    You are saying that $e^1/0 = 1$?
    $endgroup$
    – Rafael Wagner
    Feb 28 '17 at 17:05






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    i am saying that when x is smaller than 0 you get $e^1/0-=1/e^infty=0$
    $endgroup$
    – Ghost
    Feb 28 '17 at 17:06










  • $begingroup$
    Ok then I get it now
    $endgroup$
    – Rafael Wagner
    Feb 28 '17 at 17:08
















  • $begingroup$
    Could you show how the limit goes to zero when $x<0$?
    $endgroup$
    – Rafael Wagner
    Feb 28 '17 at 17:02










  • $begingroup$
    You are saying that $e^1/0 = 1$?
    $endgroup$
    – Rafael Wagner
    Feb 28 '17 at 17:05






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    i am saying that when x is smaller than 0 you get $e^1/0-=1/e^infty=0$
    $endgroup$
    – Ghost
    Feb 28 '17 at 17:06










  • $begingroup$
    Ok then I get it now
    $endgroup$
    – Rafael Wagner
    Feb 28 '17 at 17:08















$begingroup$
Could you show how the limit goes to zero when $x<0$?
$endgroup$
– Rafael Wagner
Feb 28 '17 at 17:02




$begingroup$
Could you show how the limit goes to zero when $x<0$?
$endgroup$
– Rafael Wagner
Feb 28 '17 at 17:02












$begingroup$
You are saying that $e^1/0 = 1$?
$endgroup$
– Rafael Wagner
Feb 28 '17 at 17:05




$begingroup$
You are saying that $e^1/0 = 1$?
$endgroup$
– Rafael Wagner
Feb 28 '17 at 17:05




1




1




$begingroup$
i am saying that when x is smaller than 0 you get $e^1/0-=1/e^infty=0$
$endgroup$
– Ghost
Feb 28 '17 at 17:06




$begingroup$
i am saying that when x is smaller than 0 you get $e^1/0-=1/e^infty=0$
$endgroup$
– Ghost
Feb 28 '17 at 17:06












$begingroup$
Ok then I get it now
$endgroup$
– Rafael Wagner
Feb 28 '17 at 17:08




$begingroup$
Ok then I get it now
$endgroup$
– Rafael Wagner
Feb 28 '17 at 17:08










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

Is it allowed to use Taylor series in this question? If so, then we have
$$lim_xrightarrow0^+xcdot e^frac1xqquadqquadqquadqquad$$
$$quad= lim_xrightarrow0^+xcdotleft(1+frac1x+frac12!x^2+frac13!x^3+cdotsright)$$
$$= lim_xrightarrow0^+left(x+1+frac12!x+frac13!x^2+cdotsright) ,$$
$$= +inftyqquadqquadqquadqquadqquadquad $$



This is true because every fraction with $x$ in its denominator tends to infinity.




Another approach that only involves differentiation and a little analysis:



$left.right.$



Let $,f(y)=e^y, g(y)=(y^2)/2$, then we have $$f'(y)=e^y, textand ,g'(y)=y$$
Now differentiate again and we get
$$f''(y)=e^y, textand ,g''(y)=1$$
When $,y>0$, $ e^y>1,$ and that means $,f''(y)>g''(y)$.



Also, $ f'(0)=1>0=g'(0)$, so $,f'(y)>g'(y),$ for all $,y>0$



Again, since $ f(0)=1>0=g(0)$, so $,f(y)>g(y),$ for all $,y>0$



So far we have proved that if $,y>0,$ then $,e^y>(y^2)/2$



$left.right.$



Now back to the limit, and we have that



$$lim_xrightarrow0xe^frac1x=lim_yrightarrowinftyfrace^yygeqlim_yrightarrowinftyfrac(y^2)/2y=infty$$



And that is the "exponential dominating a polynomial" in Zahbaz's answer






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    I have heard of Taylor series but I do not know how to use it :(
    $endgroup$
    – Ghost
    Feb 28 '17 at 17:07










  • $begingroup$
    I see, so we need to use some very basic knowledge here, and that could be a little tricky then...
    $endgroup$
    – Mengchun Zhang
    Feb 28 '17 at 17:09






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    By the way, could you prove $e^xgeq (x^2)/2$ for $x>0$ by comparing their derivatives? If you have proved that, then you can work out the limit
    $endgroup$
    – Mengchun Zhang
    Feb 28 '17 at 17:14



















1












$begingroup$

Are you permitted to rely on an exponential dominating a polynomial in the limit? These limits may look more approachable by transforming $xto frac1y$ such that as $xto0^pm$, $ytopminfty$.



$$lim_x to 0^+xe^frac1x=lim_y to inftyfrace^yy = infty$$



$$lim_x to 0^-xe^frac1x=lim_y to -inftyfrace^yy = 0$$



The last step would be justified with a Taylor expansion, but I'm unclear if that is in your toolkit. You could use an argument like this for the first limit,



$$frace^yy > frace^ye^y/2$$



so



$$lim_y to infty frace^yy > lim_y to inftyfrace^ye^y/2 = lim_y to inftye^y/2=infty$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$




















    -1












    $begingroup$

    $lim_xto 0+𝑥𝑒^1/𝑥= 0 cdot infty$ which is an indefinite form.



    We could apply L'Hopital Rule but it can only be done if we have a $0/0$ or $infty/infty$ indefinite forms.
    So rewrite $lim_𝑥to0+𝑥𝑒^1/𝑥$ as
    $$
    lim_𝑥to 0+frac𝑒^1/𝑥frac1x
    $$

    by putting $x$ in the denominator as $1/x$. Then plug in the limit as $𝑥to 0+$, we get the $infty/infty$ form. Now use L'Hopital's Rule.



    1. Take the derivatives of numerator and denominator. We get
      $$
      lim_𝑥to 0+frac-frace^1/xx^2-frac1x^2text the negatives and $x^2$ cancel
      $$


    2. Simplify, then plug in the limit as $𝑥to0+$. We get
      $lim_𝑥to0+ e^1/x=infty$!!!!

    A tip: graph the numerator and denominator separately so you can see the trend






    share|cite|improve this answer










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    JenniferMC is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes








    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    2












    $begingroup$

    Is it allowed to use Taylor series in this question? If so, then we have
    $$lim_xrightarrow0^+xcdot e^frac1xqquadqquadqquadqquad$$
    $$quad= lim_xrightarrow0^+xcdotleft(1+frac1x+frac12!x^2+frac13!x^3+cdotsright)$$
    $$= lim_xrightarrow0^+left(x+1+frac12!x+frac13!x^2+cdotsright) ,$$
    $$= +inftyqquadqquadqquadqquadqquadquad $$



    This is true because every fraction with $x$ in its denominator tends to infinity.




    Another approach that only involves differentiation and a little analysis:



    $left.right.$



    Let $,f(y)=e^y, g(y)=(y^2)/2$, then we have $$f'(y)=e^y, textand ,g'(y)=y$$
    Now differentiate again and we get
    $$f''(y)=e^y, textand ,g''(y)=1$$
    When $,y>0$, $ e^y>1,$ and that means $,f''(y)>g''(y)$.



    Also, $ f'(0)=1>0=g'(0)$, so $,f'(y)>g'(y),$ for all $,y>0$



    Again, since $ f(0)=1>0=g(0)$, so $,f(y)>g(y),$ for all $,y>0$



    So far we have proved that if $,y>0,$ then $,e^y>(y^2)/2$



    $left.right.$



    Now back to the limit, and we have that



    $$lim_xrightarrow0xe^frac1x=lim_yrightarrowinftyfrace^yygeqlim_yrightarrowinftyfrac(y^2)/2y=infty$$



    And that is the "exponential dominating a polynomial" in Zahbaz's answer






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      I have heard of Taylor series but I do not know how to use it :(
      $endgroup$
      – Ghost
      Feb 28 '17 at 17:07










    • $begingroup$
      I see, so we need to use some very basic knowledge here, and that could be a little tricky then...
      $endgroup$
      – Mengchun Zhang
      Feb 28 '17 at 17:09






    • 2




      $begingroup$
      By the way, could you prove $e^xgeq (x^2)/2$ for $x>0$ by comparing their derivatives? If you have proved that, then you can work out the limit
      $endgroup$
      – Mengchun Zhang
      Feb 28 '17 at 17:14
















    2












    $begingroup$

    Is it allowed to use Taylor series in this question? If so, then we have
    $$lim_xrightarrow0^+xcdot e^frac1xqquadqquadqquadqquad$$
    $$quad= lim_xrightarrow0^+xcdotleft(1+frac1x+frac12!x^2+frac13!x^3+cdotsright)$$
    $$= lim_xrightarrow0^+left(x+1+frac12!x+frac13!x^2+cdotsright) ,$$
    $$= +inftyqquadqquadqquadqquadqquadquad $$



    This is true because every fraction with $x$ in its denominator tends to infinity.




    Another approach that only involves differentiation and a little analysis:



    $left.right.$



    Let $,f(y)=e^y, g(y)=(y^2)/2$, then we have $$f'(y)=e^y, textand ,g'(y)=y$$
    Now differentiate again and we get
    $$f''(y)=e^y, textand ,g''(y)=1$$
    When $,y>0$, $ e^y>1,$ and that means $,f''(y)>g''(y)$.



    Also, $ f'(0)=1>0=g'(0)$, so $,f'(y)>g'(y),$ for all $,y>0$



    Again, since $ f(0)=1>0=g(0)$, so $,f(y)>g(y),$ for all $,y>0$



    So far we have proved that if $,y>0,$ then $,e^y>(y^2)/2$



    $left.right.$



    Now back to the limit, and we have that



    $$lim_xrightarrow0xe^frac1x=lim_yrightarrowinftyfrace^yygeqlim_yrightarrowinftyfrac(y^2)/2y=infty$$



    And that is the "exponential dominating a polynomial" in Zahbaz's answer






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      I have heard of Taylor series but I do not know how to use it :(
      $endgroup$
      – Ghost
      Feb 28 '17 at 17:07










    • $begingroup$
      I see, so we need to use some very basic knowledge here, and that could be a little tricky then...
      $endgroup$
      – Mengchun Zhang
      Feb 28 '17 at 17:09






    • 2




      $begingroup$
      By the way, could you prove $e^xgeq (x^2)/2$ for $x>0$ by comparing their derivatives? If you have proved that, then you can work out the limit
      $endgroup$
      – Mengchun Zhang
      Feb 28 '17 at 17:14














    2












    2








    2





    $begingroup$

    Is it allowed to use Taylor series in this question? If so, then we have
    $$lim_xrightarrow0^+xcdot e^frac1xqquadqquadqquadqquad$$
    $$quad= lim_xrightarrow0^+xcdotleft(1+frac1x+frac12!x^2+frac13!x^3+cdotsright)$$
    $$= lim_xrightarrow0^+left(x+1+frac12!x+frac13!x^2+cdotsright) ,$$
    $$= +inftyqquadqquadqquadqquadqquadquad $$



    This is true because every fraction with $x$ in its denominator tends to infinity.




    Another approach that only involves differentiation and a little analysis:



    $left.right.$



    Let $,f(y)=e^y, g(y)=(y^2)/2$, then we have $$f'(y)=e^y, textand ,g'(y)=y$$
    Now differentiate again and we get
    $$f''(y)=e^y, textand ,g''(y)=1$$
    When $,y>0$, $ e^y>1,$ and that means $,f''(y)>g''(y)$.



    Also, $ f'(0)=1>0=g'(0)$, so $,f'(y)>g'(y),$ for all $,y>0$



    Again, since $ f(0)=1>0=g(0)$, so $,f(y)>g(y),$ for all $,y>0$



    So far we have proved that if $,y>0,$ then $,e^y>(y^2)/2$



    $left.right.$



    Now back to the limit, and we have that



    $$lim_xrightarrow0xe^frac1x=lim_yrightarrowinftyfrace^yygeqlim_yrightarrowinftyfrac(y^2)/2y=infty$$



    And that is the "exponential dominating a polynomial" in Zahbaz's answer






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$



    Is it allowed to use Taylor series in this question? If so, then we have
    $$lim_xrightarrow0^+xcdot e^frac1xqquadqquadqquadqquad$$
    $$quad= lim_xrightarrow0^+xcdotleft(1+frac1x+frac12!x^2+frac13!x^3+cdotsright)$$
    $$= lim_xrightarrow0^+left(x+1+frac12!x+frac13!x^2+cdotsright) ,$$
    $$= +inftyqquadqquadqquadqquadqquadquad $$



    This is true because every fraction with $x$ in its denominator tends to infinity.




    Another approach that only involves differentiation and a little analysis:



    $left.right.$



    Let $,f(y)=e^y, g(y)=(y^2)/2$, then we have $$f'(y)=e^y, textand ,g'(y)=y$$
    Now differentiate again and we get
    $$f''(y)=e^y, textand ,g''(y)=1$$
    When $,y>0$, $ e^y>1,$ and that means $,f''(y)>g''(y)$.



    Also, $ f'(0)=1>0=g'(0)$, so $,f'(y)>g'(y),$ for all $,y>0$



    Again, since $ f(0)=1>0=g(0)$, so $,f(y)>g(y),$ for all $,y>0$



    So far we have proved that if $,y>0,$ then $,e^y>(y^2)/2$



    $left.right.$



    Now back to the limit, and we have that



    $$lim_xrightarrow0xe^frac1x=lim_yrightarrowinftyfrace^yygeqlim_yrightarrowinftyfrac(y^2)/2y=infty$$



    And that is the "exponential dominating a polynomial" in Zahbaz's answer







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Feb 28 '17 at 17:32

























    answered Feb 28 '17 at 17:06









    Mengchun ZhangMengchun Zhang

    88339




    88339











    • $begingroup$
      I have heard of Taylor series but I do not know how to use it :(
      $endgroup$
      – Ghost
      Feb 28 '17 at 17:07










    • $begingroup$
      I see, so we need to use some very basic knowledge here, and that could be a little tricky then...
      $endgroup$
      – Mengchun Zhang
      Feb 28 '17 at 17:09






    • 2




      $begingroup$
      By the way, could you prove $e^xgeq (x^2)/2$ for $x>0$ by comparing their derivatives? If you have proved that, then you can work out the limit
      $endgroup$
      – Mengchun Zhang
      Feb 28 '17 at 17:14

















    • $begingroup$
      I have heard of Taylor series but I do not know how to use it :(
      $endgroup$
      – Ghost
      Feb 28 '17 at 17:07










    • $begingroup$
      I see, so we need to use some very basic knowledge here, and that could be a little tricky then...
      $endgroup$
      – Mengchun Zhang
      Feb 28 '17 at 17:09






    • 2




      $begingroup$
      By the way, could you prove $e^xgeq (x^2)/2$ for $x>0$ by comparing their derivatives? If you have proved that, then you can work out the limit
      $endgroup$
      – Mengchun Zhang
      Feb 28 '17 at 17:14
















    $begingroup$
    I have heard of Taylor series but I do not know how to use it :(
    $endgroup$
    – Ghost
    Feb 28 '17 at 17:07




    $begingroup$
    I have heard of Taylor series but I do not know how to use it :(
    $endgroup$
    – Ghost
    Feb 28 '17 at 17:07












    $begingroup$
    I see, so we need to use some very basic knowledge here, and that could be a little tricky then...
    $endgroup$
    – Mengchun Zhang
    Feb 28 '17 at 17:09




    $begingroup$
    I see, so we need to use some very basic knowledge here, and that could be a little tricky then...
    $endgroup$
    – Mengchun Zhang
    Feb 28 '17 at 17:09




    2




    2




    $begingroup$
    By the way, could you prove $e^xgeq (x^2)/2$ for $x>0$ by comparing their derivatives? If you have proved that, then you can work out the limit
    $endgroup$
    – Mengchun Zhang
    Feb 28 '17 at 17:14





    $begingroup$
    By the way, could you prove $e^xgeq (x^2)/2$ for $x>0$ by comparing their derivatives? If you have proved that, then you can work out the limit
    $endgroup$
    – Mengchun Zhang
    Feb 28 '17 at 17:14












    1












    $begingroup$

    Are you permitted to rely on an exponential dominating a polynomial in the limit? These limits may look more approachable by transforming $xto frac1y$ such that as $xto0^pm$, $ytopminfty$.



    $$lim_x to 0^+xe^frac1x=lim_y to inftyfrace^yy = infty$$



    $$lim_x to 0^-xe^frac1x=lim_y to -inftyfrace^yy = 0$$



    The last step would be justified with a Taylor expansion, but I'm unclear if that is in your toolkit. You could use an argument like this for the first limit,



    $$frace^yy > frace^ye^y/2$$



    so



    $$lim_y to infty frace^yy > lim_y to inftyfrace^ye^y/2 = lim_y to inftye^y/2=infty$$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$

















      1












      $begingroup$

      Are you permitted to rely on an exponential dominating a polynomial in the limit? These limits may look more approachable by transforming $xto frac1y$ such that as $xto0^pm$, $ytopminfty$.



      $$lim_x to 0^+xe^frac1x=lim_y to inftyfrace^yy = infty$$



      $$lim_x to 0^-xe^frac1x=lim_y to -inftyfrace^yy = 0$$



      The last step would be justified with a Taylor expansion, but I'm unclear if that is in your toolkit. You could use an argument like this for the first limit,



      $$frace^yy > frace^ye^y/2$$



      so



      $$lim_y to infty frace^yy > lim_y to inftyfrace^ye^y/2 = lim_y to inftye^y/2=infty$$






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        Are you permitted to rely on an exponential dominating a polynomial in the limit? These limits may look more approachable by transforming $xto frac1y$ such that as $xto0^pm$, $ytopminfty$.



        $$lim_x to 0^+xe^frac1x=lim_y to inftyfrace^yy = infty$$



        $$lim_x to 0^-xe^frac1x=lim_y to -inftyfrace^yy = 0$$



        The last step would be justified with a Taylor expansion, but I'm unclear if that is in your toolkit. You could use an argument like this for the first limit,



        $$frace^yy > frace^ye^y/2$$



        so



        $$lim_y to infty frace^yy > lim_y to inftyfrace^ye^y/2 = lim_y to inftye^y/2=infty$$






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        Are you permitted to rely on an exponential dominating a polynomial in the limit? These limits may look more approachable by transforming $xto frac1y$ such that as $xto0^pm$, $ytopminfty$.



        $$lim_x to 0^+xe^frac1x=lim_y to inftyfrace^yy = infty$$



        $$lim_x to 0^-xe^frac1x=lim_y to -inftyfrace^yy = 0$$



        The last step would be justified with a Taylor expansion, but I'm unclear if that is in your toolkit. You could use an argument like this for the first limit,



        $$frace^yy > frace^ye^y/2$$



        so



        $$lim_y to infty frace^yy > lim_y to inftyfrace^ye^y/2 = lim_y to inftye^y/2=infty$$







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Feb 28 '17 at 17:29

























        answered Feb 28 '17 at 17:20









        zahbazzahbaz

        8,43921938




        8,43921938





















            -1












            $begingroup$

            $lim_xto 0+𝑥𝑒^1/𝑥= 0 cdot infty$ which is an indefinite form.



            We could apply L'Hopital Rule but it can only be done if we have a $0/0$ or $infty/infty$ indefinite forms.
            So rewrite $lim_𝑥to0+𝑥𝑒^1/𝑥$ as
            $$
            lim_𝑥to 0+frac𝑒^1/𝑥frac1x
            $$

            by putting $x$ in the denominator as $1/x$. Then plug in the limit as $𝑥to 0+$, we get the $infty/infty$ form. Now use L'Hopital's Rule.



            1. Take the derivatives of numerator and denominator. We get
              $$
              lim_𝑥to 0+frac-frace^1/xx^2-frac1x^2text the negatives and $x^2$ cancel
              $$


            2. Simplify, then plug in the limit as $𝑥to0+$. We get
              $lim_𝑥to0+ e^1/x=infty$!!!!

            A tip: graph the numerator and denominator separately so you can see the trend






            share|cite|improve this answer










            New contributor




            JenniferMC is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
            Check out our Code of Conduct.






            $endgroup$












            • $begingroup$
              Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange! A quick tour will enhance your experience. Here are helpful tips to write a good question and write a good answer. For equations, please use MathJax.
              $endgroup$
              – dantopa
              Mar 13 at 18:37















            -1












            $begingroup$

            $lim_xto 0+𝑥𝑒^1/𝑥= 0 cdot infty$ which is an indefinite form.



            We could apply L'Hopital Rule but it can only be done if we have a $0/0$ or $infty/infty$ indefinite forms.
            So rewrite $lim_𝑥to0+𝑥𝑒^1/𝑥$ as
            $$
            lim_𝑥to 0+frac𝑒^1/𝑥frac1x
            $$

            by putting $x$ in the denominator as $1/x$. Then plug in the limit as $𝑥to 0+$, we get the $infty/infty$ form. Now use L'Hopital's Rule.



            1. Take the derivatives of numerator and denominator. We get
              $$
              lim_𝑥to 0+frac-frace^1/xx^2-frac1x^2text the negatives and $x^2$ cancel
              $$


            2. Simplify, then plug in the limit as $𝑥to0+$. We get
              $lim_𝑥to0+ e^1/x=infty$!!!!

            A tip: graph the numerator and denominator separately so you can see the trend






            share|cite|improve this answer










            New contributor




            JenniferMC is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
            Check out our Code of Conduct.






            $endgroup$












            • $begingroup$
              Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange! A quick tour will enhance your experience. Here are helpful tips to write a good question and write a good answer. For equations, please use MathJax.
              $endgroup$
              – dantopa
              Mar 13 at 18:37













            -1












            -1








            -1





            $begingroup$

            $lim_xto 0+𝑥𝑒^1/𝑥= 0 cdot infty$ which is an indefinite form.



            We could apply L'Hopital Rule but it can only be done if we have a $0/0$ or $infty/infty$ indefinite forms.
            So rewrite $lim_𝑥to0+𝑥𝑒^1/𝑥$ as
            $$
            lim_𝑥to 0+frac𝑒^1/𝑥frac1x
            $$

            by putting $x$ in the denominator as $1/x$. Then plug in the limit as $𝑥to 0+$, we get the $infty/infty$ form. Now use L'Hopital's Rule.



            1. Take the derivatives of numerator and denominator. We get
              $$
              lim_𝑥to 0+frac-frace^1/xx^2-frac1x^2text the negatives and $x^2$ cancel
              $$


            2. Simplify, then plug in the limit as $𝑥to0+$. We get
              $lim_𝑥to0+ e^1/x=infty$!!!!

            A tip: graph the numerator and denominator separately so you can see the trend






            share|cite|improve this answer










            New contributor




            JenniferMC is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
            Check out our Code of Conduct.






            $endgroup$



            $lim_xto 0+𝑥𝑒^1/𝑥= 0 cdot infty$ which is an indefinite form.



            We could apply L'Hopital Rule but it can only be done if we have a $0/0$ or $infty/infty$ indefinite forms.
            So rewrite $lim_𝑥to0+𝑥𝑒^1/𝑥$ as
            $$
            lim_𝑥to 0+frac𝑒^1/𝑥frac1x
            $$

            by putting $x$ in the denominator as $1/x$. Then plug in the limit as $𝑥to 0+$, we get the $infty/infty$ form. Now use L'Hopital's Rule.



            1. Take the derivatives of numerator and denominator. We get
              $$
              lim_𝑥to 0+frac-frace^1/xx^2-frac1x^2text the negatives and $x^2$ cancel
              $$


            2. Simplify, then plug in the limit as $𝑥to0+$. We get
              $lim_𝑥to0+ e^1/x=infty$!!!!

            A tip: graph the numerator and denominator separately so you can see the trend







            share|cite|improve this answer










            New contributor




            JenniferMC is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
            Check out our Code of Conduct.









            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Mar 13 at 19:25









            Daniele Tampieri

            2,5322922




            2,5322922






            New contributor




            JenniferMC is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
            Check out our Code of Conduct.









            answered Mar 13 at 16:11









            JenniferMCJenniferMC

            1




            1




            New contributor




            JenniferMC is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
            Check out our Code of Conduct.





            New contributor





            JenniferMC is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
            Check out our Code of Conduct.






            JenniferMC is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
            Check out our Code of Conduct.











            • $begingroup$
              Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange! A quick tour will enhance your experience. Here are helpful tips to write a good question and write a good answer. For equations, please use MathJax.
              $endgroup$
              – dantopa
              Mar 13 at 18:37
















            • $begingroup$
              Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange! A quick tour will enhance your experience. Here are helpful tips to write a good question and write a good answer. For equations, please use MathJax.
              $endgroup$
              – dantopa
              Mar 13 at 18:37















            $begingroup$
            Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange! A quick tour will enhance your experience. Here are helpful tips to write a good question and write a good answer. For equations, please use MathJax.
            $endgroup$
            – dantopa
            Mar 13 at 18:37




            $begingroup$
            Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange! A quick tour will enhance your experience. Here are helpful tips to write a good question and write a good answer. For equations, please use MathJax.
            $endgroup$
            – dantopa
            Mar 13 at 18:37

















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