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What is the following limit? $lim_x to 0xe^frac1x$
Evaluate the following limit without L'HopitalEvaluating the $lim_xto0frac4^x-18^x-1$ without L'Hopital RuleFind the following limit 0/0Limit without using the L'HÔPITAL rule:$lim_limits x to pi frac(e^sin x -1)(x-pi)$Limit of $lim_xto 1 (fracxx-1-frac1ln x)$ without HopitalLimit of the exponential functions: $lim_xto 0 frace^x-e^x cos x x +sin x$Find the limit $lim_x to fracpi2(fraccos(5x)cos(3x))$ without using L'Hospital's ruleHow to compute $lim_xto 0frace^x -1-x-fracx^22x^3$ without using L'Hospital rule?Evalutation of the limit $lim_x to+ infty x - x^2 cdot lnleft(1+ frac 1 xright)$How to calculate $ lim_xto 4 (fracfracpi6 - arcsin(fracsqrtx4)sqrt[3]2x-7-1) $ without the rule of L'Hôpital?
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I need to find lateral limits of this one $$lim_x to 0xe^frac1x$$ I tried and I got that when $x$ is smaller than $0$ the limit is $0$. But what do I do when $x$ is bigger than $0$?
limits-without-lhopital
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I need to find lateral limits of this one $$lim_x to 0xe^frac1x$$ I tried and I got that when $x$ is smaller than $0$ the limit is $0$. But what do I do when $x$ is bigger than $0$?
limits-without-lhopital
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Could you show how the limit goes to zero when $x<0$?
$endgroup$
– Rafael Wagner
Feb 28 '17 at 17:02
$begingroup$
You are saying that $e^1/0 = 1$?
$endgroup$
– Rafael Wagner
Feb 28 '17 at 17:05
1
$begingroup$
i am saying that when x is smaller than 0 you get $e^1/0-=1/e^infty=0$
$endgroup$
– Ghost
Feb 28 '17 at 17:06
$begingroup$
Ok then I get it now
$endgroup$
– Rafael Wagner
Feb 28 '17 at 17:08
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I need to find lateral limits of this one $$lim_x to 0xe^frac1x$$ I tried and I got that when $x$ is smaller than $0$ the limit is $0$. But what do I do when $x$ is bigger than $0$?
limits-without-lhopital
$endgroup$
I need to find lateral limits of this one $$lim_x to 0xe^frac1x$$ I tried and I got that when $x$ is smaller than $0$ the limit is $0$. But what do I do when $x$ is bigger than $0$?
limits-without-lhopital
limits-without-lhopital
edited Feb 28 '17 at 17:08
zahbaz
8,43921938
8,43921938
asked Feb 28 '17 at 16:56
GhostGhost
564210
564210
$begingroup$
Could you show how the limit goes to zero when $x<0$?
$endgroup$
– Rafael Wagner
Feb 28 '17 at 17:02
$begingroup$
You are saying that $e^1/0 = 1$?
$endgroup$
– Rafael Wagner
Feb 28 '17 at 17:05
1
$begingroup$
i am saying that when x is smaller than 0 you get $e^1/0-=1/e^infty=0$
$endgroup$
– Ghost
Feb 28 '17 at 17:06
$begingroup$
Ok then I get it now
$endgroup$
– Rafael Wagner
Feb 28 '17 at 17:08
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Could you show how the limit goes to zero when $x<0$?
$endgroup$
– Rafael Wagner
Feb 28 '17 at 17:02
$begingroup$
You are saying that $e^1/0 = 1$?
$endgroup$
– Rafael Wagner
Feb 28 '17 at 17:05
1
$begingroup$
i am saying that when x is smaller than 0 you get $e^1/0-=1/e^infty=0$
$endgroup$
– Ghost
Feb 28 '17 at 17:06
$begingroup$
Ok then I get it now
$endgroup$
– Rafael Wagner
Feb 28 '17 at 17:08
$begingroup$
Could you show how the limit goes to zero when $x<0$?
$endgroup$
– Rafael Wagner
Feb 28 '17 at 17:02
$begingroup$
Could you show how the limit goes to zero when $x<0$?
$endgroup$
– Rafael Wagner
Feb 28 '17 at 17:02
$begingroup$
You are saying that $e^1/0 = 1$?
$endgroup$
– Rafael Wagner
Feb 28 '17 at 17:05
$begingroup$
You are saying that $e^1/0 = 1$?
$endgroup$
– Rafael Wagner
Feb 28 '17 at 17:05
1
1
$begingroup$
i am saying that when x is smaller than 0 you get $e^1/0-=1/e^infty=0$
$endgroup$
– Ghost
Feb 28 '17 at 17:06
$begingroup$
i am saying that when x is smaller than 0 you get $e^1/0-=1/e^infty=0$
$endgroup$
– Ghost
Feb 28 '17 at 17:06
$begingroup$
Ok then I get it now
$endgroup$
– Rafael Wagner
Feb 28 '17 at 17:08
$begingroup$
Ok then I get it now
$endgroup$
– Rafael Wagner
Feb 28 '17 at 17:08
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Is it allowed to use Taylor series in this question? If so, then we have
$$lim_xrightarrow0^+xcdot e^frac1xqquadqquadqquadqquad$$
$$quad= lim_xrightarrow0^+xcdotleft(1+frac1x+frac12!x^2+frac13!x^3+cdotsright)$$
$$= lim_xrightarrow0^+left(x+1+frac12!x+frac13!x^2+cdotsright) ,$$
$$= +inftyqquadqquadqquadqquadqquadquad $$
This is true because every fraction with $x$ in its denominator tends to infinity.
Another approach that only involves differentiation and a little analysis:
$left.right.$
Let $,f(y)=e^y, g(y)=(y^2)/2$, then we have $$f'(y)=e^y, textand ,g'(y)=y$$
Now differentiate again and we get
$$f''(y)=e^y, textand ,g''(y)=1$$
When $,y>0$, $ e^y>1,$ and that means $,f''(y)>g''(y)$.
Also, $ f'(0)=1>0=g'(0)$, so $,f'(y)>g'(y),$ for all $,y>0$
Again, since $ f(0)=1>0=g(0)$, so $,f(y)>g(y),$ for all $,y>0$
So far we have proved that if $,y>0,$ then $,e^y>(y^2)/2$
$left.right.$
Now back to the limit, and we have that
$$lim_xrightarrow0xe^frac1x=lim_yrightarrowinftyfrace^yygeqlim_yrightarrowinftyfrac(y^2)/2y=infty$$
And that is the "exponential dominating a polynomial" in Zahbaz's answer
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I have heard of Taylor series but I do not know how to use it :(
$endgroup$
– Ghost
Feb 28 '17 at 17:07
$begingroup$
I see, so we need to use some very basic knowledge here, and that could be a little tricky then...
$endgroup$
– Mengchun Zhang
Feb 28 '17 at 17:09
2
$begingroup$
By the way, could you prove $e^xgeq (x^2)/2$ for $x>0$ by comparing their derivatives? If you have proved that, then you can work out the limit
$endgroup$
– Mengchun Zhang
Feb 28 '17 at 17:14
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Are you permitted to rely on an exponential dominating a polynomial in the limit? These limits may look more approachable by transforming $xto frac1y$ such that as $xto0^pm$, $ytopminfty$.
$$lim_x to 0^+xe^frac1x=lim_y to inftyfrace^yy = infty$$
$$lim_x to 0^-xe^frac1x=lim_y to -inftyfrace^yy = 0$$
The last step would be justified with a Taylor expansion, but I'm unclear if that is in your toolkit. You could use an argument like this for the first limit,
$$frace^yy > frace^ye^y/2$$
so
$$lim_y to infty frace^yy > lim_y to inftyfrace^ye^y/2 = lim_y to inftye^y/2=infty$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$lim_xto 0+𝑥𝑒^1/𝑥= 0 cdot infty$ which is an indefinite form.
We could apply L'Hopital Rule but it can only be done if we have a $0/0$ or $infty/infty$ indefinite forms.
So rewrite $lim_𝑥to0+𝑥𝑒^1/𝑥$ as
$$
lim_𝑥to 0+frac𝑒^1/𝑥frac1x
$$
by putting $x$ in the denominator as $1/x$. Then plug in the limit as $𝑥to 0+$, we get the $infty/infty$ form. Now use L'Hopital's Rule.
- Take the derivatives of numerator and denominator. We get
$$
lim_𝑥to 0+frac-frace^1/xx^2-frac1x^2text the negatives and $x^2$ cancel
$$ - Simplify, then plug in the limit as $𝑥to0+$. We get
$lim_𝑥to0+ e^1/x=infty$!!!!
A tip: graph the numerator and denominator separately so you can see the trend
New contributor
JenniferMC is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
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Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange! A quick tour will enhance your experience. Here are helpful tips to write a good question and write a good answer. For equations, please use MathJax.
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Is it allowed to use Taylor series in this question? If so, then we have
$$lim_xrightarrow0^+xcdot e^frac1xqquadqquadqquadqquad$$
$$quad= lim_xrightarrow0^+xcdotleft(1+frac1x+frac12!x^2+frac13!x^3+cdotsright)$$
$$= lim_xrightarrow0^+left(x+1+frac12!x+frac13!x^2+cdotsright) ,$$
$$= +inftyqquadqquadqquadqquadqquadquad $$
This is true because every fraction with $x$ in its denominator tends to infinity.
Another approach that only involves differentiation and a little analysis:
$left.right.$
Let $,f(y)=e^y, g(y)=(y^2)/2$, then we have $$f'(y)=e^y, textand ,g'(y)=y$$
Now differentiate again and we get
$$f''(y)=e^y, textand ,g''(y)=1$$
When $,y>0$, $ e^y>1,$ and that means $,f''(y)>g''(y)$.
Also, $ f'(0)=1>0=g'(0)$, so $,f'(y)>g'(y),$ for all $,y>0$
Again, since $ f(0)=1>0=g(0)$, so $,f(y)>g(y),$ for all $,y>0$
So far we have proved that if $,y>0,$ then $,e^y>(y^2)/2$
$left.right.$
Now back to the limit, and we have that
$$lim_xrightarrow0xe^frac1x=lim_yrightarrowinftyfrace^yygeqlim_yrightarrowinftyfrac(y^2)/2y=infty$$
And that is the "exponential dominating a polynomial" in Zahbaz's answer
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I have heard of Taylor series but I do not know how to use it :(
$endgroup$
– Ghost
Feb 28 '17 at 17:07
$begingroup$
I see, so we need to use some very basic knowledge here, and that could be a little tricky then...
$endgroup$
– Mengchun Zhang
Feb 28 '17 at 17:09
2
$begingroup$
By the way, could you prove $e^xgeq (x^2)/2$ for $x>0$ by comparing their derivatives? If you have proved that, then you can work out the limit
$endgroup$
– Mengchun Zhang
Feb 28 '17 at 17:14
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Is it allowed to use Taylor series in this question? If so, then we have
$$lim_xrightarrow0^+xcdot e^frac1xqquadqquadqquadqquad$$
$$quad= lim_xrightarrow0^+xcdotleft(1+frac1x+frac12!x^2+frac13!x^3+cdotsright)$$
$$= lim_xrightarrow0^+left(x+1+frac12!x+frac13!x^2+cdotsright) ,$$
$$= +inftyqquadqquadqquadqquadqquadquad $$
This is true because every fraction with $x$ in its denominator tends to infinity.
Another approach that only involves differentiation and a little analysis:
$left.right.$
Let $,f(y)=e^y, g(y)=(y^2)/2$, then we have $$f'(y)=e^y, textand ,g'(y)=y$$
Now differentiate again and we get
$$f''(y)=e^y, textand ,g''(y)=1$$
When $,y>0$, $ e^y>1,$ and that means $,f''(y)>g''(y)$.
Also, $ f'(0)=1>0=g'(0)$, so $,f'(y)>g'(y),$ for all $,y>0$
Again, since $ f(0)=1>0=g(0)$, so $,f(y)>g(y),$ for all $,y>0$
So far we have proved that if $,y>0,$ then $,e^y>(y^2)/2$
$left.right.$
Now back to the limit, and we have that
$$lim_xrightarrow0xe^frac1x=lim_yrightarrowinftyfrace^yygeqlim_yrightarrowinftyfrac(y^2)/2y=infty$$
And that is the "exponential dominating a polynomial" in Zahbaz's answer
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I have heard of Taylor series but I do not know how to use it :(
$endgroup$
– Ghost
Feb 28 '17 at 17:07
$begingroup$
I see, so we need to use some very basic knowledge here, and that could be a little tricky then...
$endgroup$
– Mengchun Zhang
Feb 28 '17 at 17:09
2
$begingroup$
By the way, could you prove $e^xgeq (x^2)/2$ for $x>0$ by comparing their derivatives? If you have proved that, then you can work out the limit
$endgroup$
– Mengchun Zhang
Feb 28 '17 at 17:14
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Is it allowed to use Taylor series in this question? If so, then we have
$$lim_xrightarrow0^+xcdot e^frac1xqquadqquadqquadqquad$$
$$quad= lim_xrightarrow0^+xcdotleft(1+frac1x+frac12!x^2+frac13!x^3+cdotsright)$$
$$= lim_xrightarrow0^+left(x+1+frac12!x+frac13!x^2+cdotsright) ,$$
$$= +inftyqquadqquadqquadqquadqquadquad $$
This is true because every fraction with $x$ in its denominator tends to infinity.
Another approach that only involves differentiation and a little analysis:
$left.right.$
Let $,f(y)=e^y, g(y)=(y^2)/2$, then we have $$f'(y)=e^y, textand ,g'(y)=y$$
Now differentiate again and we get
$$f''(y)=e^y, textand ,g''(y)=1$$
When $,y>0$, $ e^y>1,$ and that means $,f''(y)>g''(y)$.
Also, $ f'(0)=1>0=g'(0)$, so $,f'(y)>g'(y),$ for all $,y>0$
Again, since $ f(0)=1>0=g(0)$, so $,f(y)>g(y),$ for all $,y>0$
So far we have proved that if $,y>0,$ then $,e^y>(y^2)/2$
$left.right.$
Now back to the limit, and we have that
$$lim_xrightarrow0xe^frac1x=lim_yrightarrowinftyfrace^yygeqlim_yrightarrowinftyfrac(y^2)/2y=infty$$
And that is the "exponential dominating a polynomial" in Zahbaz's answer
$endgroup$
Is it allowed to use Taylor series in this question? If so, then we have
$$lim_xrightarrow0^+xcdot e^frac1xqquadqquadqquadqquad$$
$$quad= lim_xrightarrow0^+xcdotleft(1+frac1x+frac12!x^2+frac13!x^3+cdotsright)$$
$$= lim_xrightarrow0^+left(x+1+frac12!x+frac13!x^2+cdotsright) ,$$
$$= +inftyqquadqquadqquadqquadqquadquad $$
This is true because every fraction with $x$ in its denominator tends to infinity.
Another approach that only involves differentiation and a little analysis:
$left.right.$
Let $,f(y)=e^y, g(y)=(y^2)/2$, then we have $$f'(y)=e^y, textand ,g'(y)=y$$
Now differentiate again and we get
$$f''(y)=e^y, textand ,g''(y)=1$$
When $,y>0$, $ e^y>1,$ and that means $,f''(y)>g''(y)$.
Also, $ f'(0)=1>0=g'(0)$, so $,f'(y)>g'(y),$ for all $,y>0$
Again, since $ f(0)=1>0=g(0)$, so $,f(y)>g(y),$ for all $,y>0$
So far we have proved that if $,y>0,$ then $,e^y>(y^2)/2$
$left.right.$
Now back to the limit, and we have that
$$lim_xrightarrow0xe^frac1x=lim_yrightarrowinftyfrace^yygeqlim_yrightarrowinftyfrac(y^2)/2y=infty$$
And that is the "exponential dominating a polynomial" in Zahbaz's answer
edited Feb 28 '17 at 17:32
answered Feb 28 '17 at 17:06
Mengchun ZhangMengchun Zhang
88339
88339
$begingroup$
I have heard of Taylor series but I do not know how to use it :(
$endgroup$
– Ghost
Feb 28 '17 at 17:07
$begingroup$
I see, so we need to use some very basic knowledge here, and that could be a little tricky then...
$endgroup$
– Mengchun Zhang
Feb 28 '17 at 17:09
2
$begingroup$
By the way, could you prove $e^xgeq (x^2)/2$ for $x>0$ by comparing their derivatives? If you have proved that, then you can work out the limit
$endgroup$
– Mengchun Zhang
Feb 28 '17 at 17:14
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I have heard of Taylor series but I do not know how to use it :(
$endgroup$
– Ghost
Feb 28 '17 at 17:07
$begingroup$
I see, so we need to use some very basic knowledge here, and that could be a little tricky then...
$endgroup$
– Mengchun Zhang
Feb 28 '17 at 17:09
2
$begingroup$
By the way, could you prove $e^xgeq (x^2)/2$ for $x>0$ by comparing their derivatives? If you have proved that, then you can work out the limit
$endgroup$
– Mengchun Zhang
Feb 28 '17 at 17:14
$begingroup$
I have heard of Taylor series but I do not know how to use it :(
$endgroup$
– Ghost
Feb 28 '17 at 17:07
$begingroup$
I have heard of Taylor series but I do not know how to use it :(
$endgroup$
– Ghost
Feb 28 '17 at 17:07
$begingroup$
I see, so we need to use some very basic knowledge here, and that could be a little tricky then...
$endgroup$
– Mengchun Zhang
Feb 28 '17 at 17:09
$begingroup$
I see, so we need to use some very basic knowledge here, and that could be a little tricky then...
$endgroup$
– Mengchun Zhang
Feb 28 '17 at 17:09
2
2
$begingroup$
By the way, could you prove $e^xgeq (x^2)/2$ for $x>0$ by comparing their derivatives? If you have proved that, then you can work out the limit
$endgroup$
– Mengchun Zhang
Feb 28 '17 at 17:14
$begingroup$
By the way, could you prove $e^xgeq (x^2)/2$ for $x>0$ by comparing their derivatives? If you have proved that, then you can work out the limit
$endgroup$
– Mengchun Zhang
Feb 28 '17 at 17:14
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Are you permitted to rely on an exponential dominating a polynomial in the limit? These limits may look more approachable by transforming $xto frac1y$ such that as $xto0^pm$, $ytopminfty$.
$$lim_x to 0^+xe^frac1x=lim_y to inftyfrace^yy = infty$$
$$lim_x to 0^-xe^frac1x=lim_y to -inftyfrace^yy = 0$$
The last step would be justified with a Taylor expansion, but I'm unclear if that is in your toolkit. You could use an argument like this for the first limit,
$$frace^yy > frace^ye^y/2$$
so
$$lim_y to infty frace^yy > lim_y to inftyfrace^ye^y/2 = lim_y to inftye^y/2=infty$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Are you permitted to rely on an exponential dominating a polynomial in the limit? These limits may look more approachable by transforming $xto frac1y$ such that as $xto0^pm$, $ytopminfty$.
$$lim_x to 0^+xe^frac1x=lim_y to inftyfrace^yy = infty$$
$$lim_x to 0^-xe^frac1x=lim_y to -inftyfrace^yy = 0$$
The last step would be justified with a Taylor expansion, but I'm unclear if that is in your toolkit. You could use an argument like this for the first limit,
$$frace^yy > frace^ye^y/2$$
so
$$lim_y to infty frace^yy > lim_y to inftyfrace^ye^y/2 = lim_y to inftye^y/2=infty$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Are you permitted to rely on an exponential dominating a polynomial in the limit? These limits may look more approachable by transforming $xto frac1y$ such that as $xto0^pm$, $ytopminfty$.
$$lim_x to 0^+xe^frac1x=lim_y to inftyfrace^yy = infty$$
$$lim_x to 0^-xe^frac1x=lim_y to -inftyfrace^yy = 0$$
The last step would be justified with a Taylor expansion, but I'm unclear if that is in your toolkit. You could use an argument like this for the first limit,
$$frace^yy > frace^ye^y/2$$
so
$$lim_y to infty frace^yy > lim_y to inftyfrace^ye^y/2 = lim_y to inftye^y/2=infty$$
$endgroup$
Are you permitted to rely on an exponential dominating a polynomial in the limit? These limits may look more approachable by transforming $xto frac1y$ such that as $xto0^pm$, $ytopminfty$.
$$lim_x to 0^+xe^frac1x=lim_y to inftyfrace^yy = infty$$
$$lim_x to 0^-xe^frac1x=lim_y to -inftyfrace^yy = 0$$
The last step would be justified with a Taylor expansion, but I'm unclear if that is in your toolkit. You could use an argument like this for the first limit,
$$frace^yy > frace^ye^y/2$$
so
$$lim_y to infty frace^yy > lim_y to inftyfrace^ye^y/2 = lim_y to inftye^y/2=infty$$
edited Feb 28 '17 at 17:29
answered Feb 28 '17 at 17:20
zahbazzahbaz
8,43921938
8,43921938
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$lim_xto 0+𝑥𝑒^1/𝑥= 0 cdot infty$ which is an indefinite form.
We could apply L'Hopital Rule but it can only be done if we have a $0/0$ or $infty/infty$ indefinite forms.
So rewrite $lim_𝑥to0+𝑥𝑒^1/𝑥$ as
$$
lim_𝑥to 0+frac𝑒^1/𝑥frac1x
$$
by putting $x$ in the denominator as $1/x$. Then plug in the limit as $𝑥to 0+$, we get the $infty/infty$ form. Now use L'Hopital's Rule.
- Take the derivatives of numerator and denominator. We get
$$
lim_𝑥to 0+frac-frace^1/xx^2-frac1x^2text the negatives and $x^2$ cancel
$$ - Simplify, then plug in the limit as $𝑥to0+$. We get
$lim_𝑥to0+ e^1/x=infty$!!!!
A tip: graph the numerator and denominator separately so you can see the trend
New contributor
JenniferMC is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
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Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange! A quick tour will enhance your experience. Here are helpful tips to write a good question and write a good answer. For equations, please use MathJax.
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– dantopa
Mar 13 at 18:37
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$lim_xto 0+𝑥𝑒^1/𝑥= 0 cdot infty$ which is an indefinite form.
We could apply L'Hopital Rule but it can only be done if we have a $0/0$ or $infty/infty$ indefinite forms.
So rewrite $lim_𝑥to0+𝑥𝑒^1/𝑥$ as
$$
lim_𝑥to 0+frac𝑒^1/𝑥frac1x
$$
by putting $x$ in the denominator as $1/x$. Then plug in the limit as $𝑥to 0+$, we get the $infty/infty$ form. Now use L'Hopital's Rule.
- Take the derivatives of numerator and denominator. We get
$$
lim_𝑥to 0+frac-frace^1/xx^2-frac1x^2text the negatives and $x^2$ cancel
$$ - Simplify, then plug in the limit as $𝑥to0+$. We get
$lim_𝑥to0+ e^1/x=infty$!!!!
A tip: graph the numerator and denominator separately so you can see the trend
New contributor
JenniferMC is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange! A quick tour will enhance your experience. Here are helpful tips to write a good question and write a good answer. For equations, please use MathJax.
$endgroup$
– dantopa
Mar 13 at 18:37
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$lim_xto 0+𝑥𝑒^1/𝑥= 0 cdot infty$ which is an indefinite form.
We could apply L'Hopital Rule but it can only be done if we have a $0/0$ or $infty/infty$ indefinite forms.
So rewrite $lim_𝑥to0+𝑥𝑒^1/𝑥$ as
$$
lim_𝑥to 0+frac𝑒^1/𝑥frac1x
$$
by putting $x$ in the denominator as $1/x$. Then plug in the limit as $𝑥to 0+$, we get the $infty/infty$ form. Now use L'Hopital's Rule.
- Take the derivatives of numerator and denominator. We get
$$
lim_𝑥to 0+frac-frace^1/xx^2-frac1x^2text the negatives and $x^2$ cancel
$$ - Simplify, then plug in the limit as $𝑥to0+$. We get
$lim_𝑥to0+ e^1/x=infty$!!!!
A tip: graph the numerator and denominator separately so you can see the trend
New contributor
JenniferMC is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
$endgroup$
$lim_xto 0+𝑥𝑒^1/𝑥= 0 cdot infty$ which is an indefinite form.
We could apply L'Hopital Rule but it can only be done if we have a $0/0$ or $infty/infty$ indefinite forms.
So rewrite $lim_𝑥to0+𝑥𝑒^1/𝑥$ as
$$
lim_𝑥to 0+frac𝑒^1/𝑥frac1x
$$
by putting $x$ in the denominator as $1/x$. Then plug in the limit as $𝑥to 0+$, we get the $infty/infty$ form. Now use L'Hopital's Rule.
- Take the derivatives of numerator and denominator. We get
$$
lim_𝑥to 0+frac-frace^1/xx^2-frac1x^2text the negatives and $x^2$ cancel
$$ - Simplify, then plug in the limit as $𝑥to0+$. We get
$lim_𝑥to0+ e^1/x=infty$!!!!
A tip: graph the numerator and denominator separately so you can see the trend
New contributor
JenniferMC is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
edited Mar 13 at 19:25
Daniele Tampieri
2,5322922
2,5322922
New contributor
JenniferMC is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
answered Mar 13 at 16:11
JenniferMCJenniferMC
1
1
New contributor
JenniferMC is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
New contributor
JenniferMC is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
JenniferMC is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
$begingroup$
Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange! A quick tour will enhance your experience. Here are helpful tips to write a good question and write a good answer. For equations, please use MathJax.
$endgroup$
– dantopa
Mar 13 at 18:37
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange! A quick tour will enhance your experience. Here are helpful tips to write a good question and write a good answer. For equations, please use MathJax.
$endgroup$
– dantopa
Mar 13 at 18:37
$begingroup$
Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange! A quick tour will enhance your experience. Here are helpful tips to write a good question and write a good answer. For equations, please use MathJax.
$endgroup$
– dantopa
Mar 13 at 18:37
$begingroup$
Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange! A quick tour will enhance your experience. Here are helpful tips to write a good question and write a good answer. For equations, please use MathJax.
$endgroup$
– dantopa
Mar 13 at 18:37
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
Could you show how the limit goes to zero when $x<0$?
$endgroup$
– Rafael Wagner
Feb 28 '17 at 17:02
$begingroup$
You are saying that $e^1/0 = 1$?
$endgroup$
– Rafael Wagner
Feb 28 '17 at 17:05
1
$begingroup$
i am saying that when x is smaller than 0 you get $e^1/0-=1/e^infty=0$
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– Ghost
Feb 28 '17 at 17:06
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Ok then I get it now
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– Rafael Wagner
Feb 28 '17 at 17:08