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Prove if p is a prime number that does not divide a, then $a^p^2$ congruent to $a^pmod p^2$


How to prove that if $aequiv b pmodkn$ then $a^kequiv b^k pmodk^2n$Prove that $x^2 equiv -1 pmod p$ has no solutions if prime $p equiv 3 pmod 4$.Show that Fermat's Little Theorem doesn't hold if p is not prime …Let $p$ be a prime and $q$ a prime divisor of $2^p -1$. Use Fermat's Little Theorem to prove that $qequiv 1 (mod space p)$How to select the right modulus to prove that there do not exist integers $a$ and $b$ such that $a^2+b^2=1234567$?Prove that if a $in mathbbZ$ then $a^3 equiv a(mod 3)$A prime number generator algorithm based on $x^2+(x-1)^2$ that generates only primesProof that there are infinitely many prime numbers $p$ such that $p-2$ is not prime.Prove that for integers $a$, $b$, and $n$, if $a$ and $b$ are each relatively prime to $n$, then the product $ab$ is also relatively prime to $n$.Prove that $4^n+ 1$ is not divisible by $3$How does one prove that a prime $p$ does not generate the multiplicative group of integers mod $4p-1$?













0












$begingroup$


I tried to do proof by contradiction, so I started to do use real arbitrary numbers. I decided I use p for prime still, but a being a multiple of p and by doing this, the statement is still true. I tried it with p=3, a =6 or p=2 and a =6. Anyways to solve it by contradiction or should I use another method










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Kevin Wang is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$
















    0












    $begingroup$


    I tried to do proof by contradiction, so I started to do use real arbitrary numbers. I decided I use p for prime still, but a being a multiple of p and by doing this, the statement is still true. I tried it with p=3, a =6 or p=2 and a =6. Anyways to solve it by contradiction or should I use another method










    share|cite|improve this question









    New contributor




    Kevin Wang is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.







    $endgroup$














      0












      0








      0


      1



      $begingroup$


      I tried to do proof by contradiction, so I started to do use real arbitrary numbers. I decided I use p for prime still, but a being a multiple of p and by doing this, the statement is still true. I tried it with p=3, a =6 or p=2 and a =6. Anyways to solve it by contradiction or should I use another method










      share|cite|improve this question









      New contributor




      Kevin Wang is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.







      $endgroup$




      I tried to do proof by contradiction, so I started to do use real arbitrary numbers. I decided I use p for prime still, but a being a multiple of p and by doing this, the statement is still true. I tried it with p=3, a =6 or p=2 and a =6. Anyways to solve it by contradiction or should I use another method







      modular-arithmetic






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      Kevin Wang is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.











      share|cite|improve this question









      New contributor




      Kevin Wang is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Mar 13 at 18:32









      Wuestenfux

      5,1721513




      5,1721513






      New contributor




      Kevin Wang is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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      asked Mar 13 at 18:29









      Kevin WangKevin Wang

      241




      241




      New contributor




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      New contributor





      Kevin Wang is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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          4 Answers
          4






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          3












          $begingroup$

          You have



          $$a^p^2 - a^p =a^p(a^p^2-p -1) =$$ $$ a^p(a^phi(p^2)-1)equiv a^p(1-1) pmodp^2,$$



          where Euler's theorem is used in the last step.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$




















            1












            $begingroup$

            Recall $ bequiv a pmod!m,Rightarrow,b^large mequiv a^large m pmod!m^large 2.,$ Put $,b=a^large p, m = p$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$












            • $begingroup$
              It's a special case of the polynomial double root test - as I explain in the linked answer.
              $endgroup$
              – Bill Dubuque
              Mar 13 at 22:13



















            0












            $begingroup$

            As by Fermat's little theorem $a^pequiv apmod p$ for any integer $a$



            $(a^p)^pequiv( a)^p$



            So, we don't need $pnmid a$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$




















              -1












              $begingroup$

              Simple, $phi(p^2)=(p-1)p$ and $p^2-(p-1)p=p$



              Therefore $a^pequiv a^p bmod p^2$ which is true.



              This generalizes to $a^p^nequiv a^p^n-1bmod p^n$






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$












              • $begingroup$
                You can mark me down all you want it still holds.
                $endgroup$
                – Roddy MacPhee
                Mar 14 at 21:31










              Your Answer





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              4 Answers
              4






              active

              oldest

              votes








              4 Answers
              4






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes









              3












              $begingroup$

              You have



              $$a^p^2 - a^p =a^p(a^p^2-p -1) =$$ $$ a^p(a^phi(p^2)-1)equiv a^p(1-1) pmodp^2,$$



              where Euler's theorem is used in the last step.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$

















                3












                $begingroup$

                You have



                $$a^p^2 - a^p =a^p(a^p^2-p -1) =$$ $$ a^p(a^phi(p^2)-1)equiv a^p(1-1) pmodp^2,$$



                where Euler's theorem is used in the last step.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$















                  3












                  3








                  3





                  $begingroup$

                  You have



                  $$a^p^2 - a^p =a^p(a^p^2-p -1) =$$ $$ a^p(a^phi(p^2)-1)equiv a^p(1-1) pmodp^2,$$



                  where Euler's theorem is used in the last step.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  You have



                  $$a^p^2 - a^p =a^p(a^p^2-p -1) =$$ $$ a^p(a^phi(p^2)-1)equiv a^p(1-1) pmodp^2,$$



                  where Euler's theorem is used in the last step.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Mar 13 at 18:36









                  B. GoddardB. Goddard

                  19.7k21442




                  19.7k21442





















                      1












                      $begingroup$

                      Recall $ bequiv a pmod!m,Rightarrow,b^large mequiv a^large m pmod!m^large 2.,$ Put $,b=a^large p, m = p$






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$












                      • $begingroup$
                        It's a special case of the polynomial double root test - as I explain in the linked answer.
                        $endgroup$
                        – Bill Dubuque
                        Mar 13 at 22:13
















                      1












                      $begingroup$

                      Recall $ bequiv a pmod!m,Rightarrow,b^large mequiv a^large m pmod!m^large 2.,$ Put $,b=a^large p, m = p$






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$












                      • $begingroup$
                        It's a special case of the polynomial double root test - as I explain in the linked answer.
                        $endgroup$
                        – Bill Dubuque
                        Mar 13 at 22:13














                      1












                      1








                      1





                      $begingroup$

                      Recall $ bequiv a pmod!m,Rightarrow,b^large mequiv a^large m pmod!m^large 2.,$ Put $,b=a^large p, m = p$






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$



                      Recall $ bequiv a pmod!m,Rightarrow,b^large mequiv a^large m pmod!m^large 2.,$ Put $,b=a^large p, m = p$







                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer










                      answered Mar 13 at 22:07









                      Bill DubuqueBill Dubuque

                      212k29195654




                      212k29195654











                      • $begingroup$
                        It's a special case of the polynomial double root test - as I explain in the linked answer.
                        $endgroup$
                        – Bill Dubuque
                        Mar 13 at 22:13

















                      • $begingroup$
                        It's a special case of the polynomial double root test - as I explain in the linked answer.
                        $endgroup$
                        – Bill Dubuque
                        Mar 13 at 22:13
















                      $begingroup$
                      It's a special case of the polynomial double root test - as I explain in the linked answer.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Bill Dubuque
                      Mar 13 at 22:13





                      $begingroup$
                      It's a special case of the polynomial double root test - as I explain in the linked answer.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Bill Dubuque
                      Mar 13 at 22:13












                      0












                      $begingroup$

                      As by Fermat's little theorem $a^pequiv apmod p$ for any integer $a$



                      $(a^p)^pequiv( a)^p$



                      So, we don't need $pnmid a$






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$

















                        0












                        $begingroup$

                        As by Fermat's little theorem $a^pequiv apmod p$ for any integer $a$



                        $(a^p)^pequiv( a)^p$



                        So, we don't need $pnmid a$






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$















                          0












                          0








                          0





                          $begingroup$

                          As by Fermat's little theorem $a^pequiv apmod p$ for any integer $a$



                          $(a^p)^pequiv( a)^p$



                          So, we don't need $pnmid a$






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          As by Fermat's little theorem $a^pequiv apmod p$ for any integer $a$



                          $(a^p)^pequiv( a)^p$



                          So, we don't need $pnmid a$







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Mar 13 at 18:32









                          lab bhattacharjeelab bhattacharjee

                          227k15158275




                          227k15158275





















                              -1












                              $begingroup$

                              Simple, $phi(p^2)=(p-1)p$ and $p^2-(p-1)p=p$



                              Therefore $a^pequiv a^p bmod p^2$ which is true.



                              This generalizes to $a^p^nequiv a^p^n-1bmod p^n$






                              share|cite|improve this answer









                              $endgroup$












                              • $begingroup$
                                You can mark me down all you want it still holds.
                                $endgroup$
                                – Roddy MacPhee
                                Mar 14 at 21:31















                              -1












                              $begingroup$

                              Simple, $phi(p^2)=(p-1)p$ and $p^2-(p-1)p=p$



                              Therefore $a^pequiv a^p bmod p^2$ which is true.



                              This generalizes to $a^p^nequiv a^p^n-1bmod p^n$






                              share|cite|improve this answer









                              $endgroup$












                              • $begingroup$
                                You can mark me down all you want it still holds.
                                $endgroup$
                                – Roddy MacPhee
                                Mar 14 at 21:31













                              -1












                              -1








                              -1





                              $begingroup$

                              Simple, $phi(p^2)=(p-1)p$ and $p^2-(p-1)p=p$



                              Therefore $a^pequiv a^p bmod p^2$ which is true.



                              This generalizes to $a^p^nequiv a^p^n-1bmod p^n$






                              share|cite|improve this answer









                              $endgroup$



                              Simple, $phi(p^2)=(p-1)p$ and $p^2-(p-1)p=p$



                              Therefore $a^pequiv a^p bmod p^2$ which is true.



                              This generalizes to $a^p^nequiv a^p^n-1bmod p^n$







                              share|cite|improve this answer












                              share|cite|improve this answer



                              share|cite|improve this answer










                              answered Mar 14 at 18:03









                              Roddy MacPheeRoddy MacPhee

                              436117




                              436117











                              • $begingroup$
                                You can mark me down all you want it still holds.
                                $endgroup$
                                – Roddy MacPhee
                                Mar 14 at 21:31
















                              • $begingroup$
                                You can mark me down all you want it still holds.
                                $endgroup$
                                – Roddy MacPhee
                                Mar 14 at 21:31















                              $begingroup$
                              You can mark me down all you want it still holds.
                              $endgroup$
                              – Roddy MacPhee
                              Mar 14 at 21:31




                              $begingroup$
                              You can mark me down all you want it still holds.
                              $endgroup$
                              – Roddy MacPhee
                              Mar 14 at 21:31










                              Kevin Wang is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.









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