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Prove that there exist infinitely many $n$ such that $d(n+1)>d(n)$, where $d(n)$ is number of positive factors


Existence of infinitely many integers $n$ such that $2^n$ ends with $n$Prove that there exist infinitely many squares $a$ such that $sqrtsqrta$ is a squareProve that there are infinitely many natural numbers that can't be written as $a^2+p$Does there exist a positive $k$ s.t. for all $rgeq k$, “$sigma_r(m)<sigma_r(n)$ for every $m<n$” for infinitely many odd positive integers $n$?Does there exist an $a$ such that $a^n+1$ is divisible by $n^3$ for infinitely many $n$?Show that there are infinitely many integers $n$ with a given number of divisorsProve there exists infinitely many real numbers $a$ such that $a(a - 3a)$ is an integerDoes there exist such a positive integer?Infinitely many positive integers of the form $1998k+1$ such that all digits in their decimal representation are equalinfinitely many integers such that …













0












$begingroup$



Prove that there exist infinitely many $n$ such that $d(n+1)>d(n)$, where $d(n)$ is number of positive factors of $n$.




I have think of using proof by contradiction, by setting a largest integer $k$ such that $d(k+1)>d(k)$. Does anyone has any idea or hints?










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  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Can you use the fact that there are infinitely many primes?
    $endgroup$
    – Rocket Man
    Mar 13 at 17:02










  • $begingroup$
    Thank you for your reply. I don't think so....
    $endgroup$
    – fiveplustwois7
    Mar 13 at 17:09










  • $begingroup$
    Well, if $n$ is prime then $n+1$ is not prime. So $d(n) = 2$ and $d(n+1) > 2$. So as there are infinitely "special cases" where $d(n) = 2$ and $d(n+1) > 2$, there are infinitely "general cases" where $d(n+1) > d(n)$. So, yes, you can use the fact that there are infinitely many primes.
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Mar 13 at 19:10















0












$begingroup$



Prove that there exist infinitely many $n$ such that $d(n+1)>d(n)$, where $d(n)$ is number of positive factors of $n$.




I have think of using proof by contradiction, by setting a largest integer $k$ such that $d(k+1)>d(k)$. Does anyone has any idea or hints?










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




fiveplustwois7 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Can you use the fact that there are infinitely many primes?
    $endgroup$
    – Rocket Man
    Mar 13 at 17:02










  • $begingroup$
    Thank you for your reply. I don't think so....
    $endgroup$
    – fiveplustwois7
    Mar 13 at 17:09










  • $begingroup$
    Well, if $n$ is prime then $n+1$ is not prime. So $d(n) = 2$ and $d(n+1) > 2$. So as there are infinitely "special cases" where $d(n) = 2$ and $d(n+1) > 2$, there are infinitely "general cases" where $d(n+1) > d(n)$. So, yes, you can use the fact that there are infinitely many primes.
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Mar 13 at 19:10













0












0








0





$begingroup$



Prove that there exist infinitely many $n$ such that $d(n+1)>d(n)$, where $d(n)$ is number of positive factors of $n$.




I have think of using proof by contradiction, by setting a largest integer $k$ such that $d(k+1)>d(k)$. Does anyone has any idea or hints?










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




fiveplustwois7 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$





Prove that there exist infinitely many $n$ such that $d(n+1)>d(n)$, where $d(n)$ is number of positive factors of $n$.




I have think of using proof by contradiction, by setting a largest integer $k$ such that $d(k+1)>d(k)$. Does anyone has any idea or hints?







elementary-number-theory divisor-counting-function






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share|cite|improve this question




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edited Mar 13 at 19:05









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asked Mar 13 at 16:59









fiveplustwois7fiveplustwois7

6




6




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  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Can you use the fact that there are infinitely many primes?
    $endgroup$
    – Rocket Man
    Mar 13 at 17:02










  • $begingroup$
    Thank you for your reply. I don't think so....
    $endgroup$
    – fiveplustwois7
    Mar 13 at 17:09










  • $begingroup$
    Well, if $n$ is prime then $n+1$ is not prime. So $d(n) = 2$ and $d(n+1) > 2$. So as there are infinitely "special cases" where $d(n) = 2$ and $d(n+1) > 2$, there are infinitely "general cases" where $d(n+1) > d(n)$. So, yes, you can use the fact that there are infinitely many primes.
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Mar 13 at 19:10












  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Can you use the fact that there are infinitely many primes?
    $endgroup$
    – Rocket Man
    Mar 13 at 17:02










  • $begingroup$
    Thank you for your reply. I don't think so....
    $endgroup$
    – fiveplustwois7
    Mar 13 at 17:09










  • $begingroup$
    Well, if $n$ is prime then $n+1$ is not prime. So $d(n) = 2$ and $d(n+1) > 2$. So as there are infinitely "special cases" where $d(n) = 2$ and $d(n+1) > 2$, there are infinitely "general cases" where $d(n+1) > d(n)$. So, yes, you can use the fact that there are infinitely many primes.
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Mar 13 at 19:10







2




2




$begingroup$
Can you use the fact that there are infinitely many primes?
$endgroup$
– Rocket Man
Mar 13 at 17:02




$begingroup$
Can you use the fact that there are infinitely many primes?
$endgroup$
– Rocket Man
Mar 13 at 17:02












$begingroup$
Thank you for your reply. I don't think so....
$endgroup$
– fiveplustwois7
Mar 13 at 17:09




$begingroup$
Thank you for your reply. I don't think so....
$endgroup$
– fiveplustwois7
Mar 13 at 17:09












$begingroup$
Well, if $n$ is prime then $n+1$ is not prime. So $d(n) = 2$ and $d(n+1) > 2$. So as there are infinitely "special cases" where $d(n) = 2$ and $d(n+1) > 2$, there are infinitely "general cases" where $d(n+1) > d(n)$. So, yes, you can use the fact that there are infinitely many primes.
$endgroup$
– fleablood
Mar 13 at 19:10




$begingroup$
Well, if $n$ is prime then $n+1$ is not prime. So $d(n) = 2$ and $d(n+1) > 2$. So as there are infinitely "special cases" where $d(n) = 2$ and $d(n+1) > 2$, there are infinitely "general cases" where $d(n+1) > d(n)$. So, yes, you can use the fact that there are infinitely many primes.
$endgroup$
– fleablood
Mar 13 at 19:10










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

The number of divisors of $2^n$ is $n+1$, so the number of divisors can become arbitary large. If from some point on , $d(n+1)le d(n)$ would always hold, the number of divisors would be bounded for all positive integers. This is a contradiction.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$




















    1












    $begingroup$


    I have think of using proof by contradiction, by setting a largest integer $k$ such that $d(k+1)>d(k)$.




    This approach is good, and will work. Let's continue it. So $k$ is the largest integer such that $d(k+1) > d(k)$. What does that mean about $d(k+1)$, $d(k+2)$, $d(k+3)$, and so on? Well, it means that



    • $d(k+2)$ is NOT larger than $d(k+1)$, that is, $d(k+2) le d(k+1)$;


    • $d(k+3)$ is NOT larger than $d(k+2)$, that is, $d(k+3) le d(k+2)$;


    and so on. So we conclude that
    $$
    d(k+1) ge d(k+2) ge d(k+3) ge d(k+4) ge d(k+5) ge cdots
    $$

    and so on.



    What this means is that $d(n)$ is "weakly decreasing" for $n > k$, or in simpler terms, $d(n)$ never gets larger than $d(k)$.



    So to get a contradiction, we should come up with some $n$ such that $d(n)$ keeps getting larger and larger. Peter's answer gives one idea: $n$ is a power of two $(n = 2^m$). Another idea would be to consider
    $$
    n = p_1 p_2 p_3 ldots p_m,
    $$

    the product of the first $m$ prime numbers.






    share|cite|improve this answer









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      2 Answers
      2






      active

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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      1












      $begingroup$

      The number of divisors of $2^n$ is $n+1$, so the number of divisors can become arbitary large. If from some point on , $d(n+1)le d(n)$ would always hold, the number of divisors would be bounded for all positive integers. This is a contradiction.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$

















        1












        $begingroup$

        The number of divisors of $2^n$ is $n+1$, so the number of divisors can become arbitary large. If from some point on , $d(n+1)le d(n)$ would always hold, the number of divisors would be bounded for all positive integers. This is a contradiction.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$















          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          The number of divisors of $2^n$ is $n+1$, so the number of divisors can become arbitary large. If from some point on , $d(n+1)le d(n)$ would always hold, the number of divisors would be bounded for all positive integers. This is a contradiction.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          The number of divisors of $2^n$ is $n+1$, so the number of divisors can become arbitary large. If from some point on , $d(n+1)le d(n)$ would always hold, the number of divisors would be bounded for all positive integers. This is a contradiction.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Mar 13 at 18:38









          PeterPeter

          48.8k1239136




          48.8k1239136





















              1












              $begingroup$


              I have think of using proof by contradiction, by setting a largest integer $k$ such that $d(k+1)>d(k)$.




              This approach is good, and will work. Let's continue it. So $k$ is the largest integer such that $d(k+1) > d(k)$. What does that mean about $d(k+1)$, $d(k+2)$, $d(k+3)$, and so on? Well, it means that



              • $d(k+2)$ is NOT larger than $d(k+1)$, that is, $d(k+2) le d(k+1)$;


              • $d(k+3)$ is NOT larger than $d(k+2)$, that is, $d(k+3) le d(k+2)$;


              and so on. So we conclude that
              $$
              d(k+1) ge d(k+2) ge d(k+3) ge d(k+4) ge d(k+5) ge cdots
              $$

              and so on.



              What this means is that $d(n)$ is "weakly decreasing" for $n > k$, or in simpler terms, $d(n)$ never gets larger than $d(k)$.



              So to get a contradiction, we should come up with some $n$ such that $d(n)$ keeps getting larger and larger. Peter's answer gives one idea: $n$ is a power of two $(n = 2^m$). Another idea would be to consider
              $$
              n = p_1 p_2 p_3 ldots p_m,
              $$

              the product of the first $m$ prime numbers.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$

















                1












                $begingroup$


                I have think of using proof by contradiction, by setting a largest integer $k$ such that $d(k+1)>d(k)$.




                This approach is good, and will work. Let's continue it. So $k$ is the largest integer such that $d(k+1) > d(k)$. What does that mean about $d(k+1)$, $d(k+2)$, $d(k+3)$, and so on? Well, it means that



                • $d(k+2)$ is NOT larger than $d(k+1)$, that is, $d(k+2) le d(k+1)$;


                • $d(k+3)$ is NOT larger than $d(k+2)$, that is, $d(k+3) le d(k+2)$;


                and so on. So we conclude that
                $$
                d(k+1) ge d(k+2) ge d(k+3) ge d(k+4) ge d(k+5) ge cdots
                $$

                and so on.



                What this means is that $d(n)$ is "weakly decreasing" for $n > k$, or in simpler terms, $d(n)$ never gets larger than $d(k)$.



                So to get a contradiction, we should come up with some $n$ such that $d(n)$ keeps getting larger and larger. Peter's answer gives one idea: $n$ is a power of two $(n = 2^m$). Another idea would be to consider
                $$
                n = p_1 p_2 p_3 ldots p_m,
                $$

                the product of the first $m$ prime numbers.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$















                  1












                  1








                  1





                  $begingroup$


                  I have think of using proof by contradiction, by setting a largest integer $k$ such that $d(k+1)>d(k)$.




                  This approach is good, and will work. Let's continue it. So $k$ is the largest integer such that $d(k+1) > d(k)$. What does that mean about $d(k+1)$, $d(k+2)$, $d(k+3)$, and so on? Well, it means that



                  • $d(k+2)$ is NOT larger than $d(k+1)$, that is, $d(k+2) le d(k+1)$;


                  • $d(k+3)$ is NOT larger than $d(k+2)$, that is, $d(k+3) le d(k+2)$;


                  and so on. So we conclude that
                  $$
                  d(k+1) ge d(k+2) ge d(k+3) ge d(k+4) ge d(k+5) ge cdots
                  $$

                  and so on.



                  What this means is that $d(n)$ is "weakly decreasing" for $n > k$, or in simpler terms, $d(n)$ never gets larger than $d(k)$.



                  So to get a contradiction, we should come up with some $n$ such that $d(n)$ keeps getting larger and larger. Peter's answer gives one idea: $n$ is a power of two $(n = 2^m$). Another idea would be to consider
                  $$
                  n = p_1 p_2 p_3 ldots p_m,
                  $$

                  the product of the first $m$ prime numbers.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$




                  I have think of using proof by contradiction, by setting a largest integer $k$ such that $d(k+1)>d(k)$.




                  This approach is good, and will work. Let's continue it. So $k$ is the largest integer such that $d(k+1) > d(k)$. What does that mean about $d(k+1)$, $d(k+2)$, $d(k+3)$, and so on? Well, it means that



                  • $d(k+2)$ is NOT larger than $d(k+1)$, that is, $d(k+2) le d(k+1)$;


                  • $d(k+3)$ is NOT larger than $d(k+2)$, that is, $d(k+3) le d(k+2)$;


                  and so on. So we conclude that
                  $$
                  d(k+1) ge d(k+2) ge d(k+3) ge d(k+4) ge d(k+5) ge cdots
                  $$

                  and so on.



                  What this means is that $d(n)$ is "weakly decreasing" for $n > k$, or in simpler terms, $d(n)$ never gets larger than $d(k)$.



                  So to get a contradiction, we should come up with some $n$ such that $d(n)$ keeps getting larger and larger. Peter's answer gives one idea: $n$ is a power of two $(n = 2^m$). Another idea would be to consider
                  $$
                  n = p_1 p_2 p_3 ldots p_m,
                  $$

                  the product of the first $m$ prime numbers.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Mar 13 at 19:03









                  60056005

                  37k751127




                  37k751127




















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