Do non-negative submartingales with finite second moment converge almost surely?Do non-negative submartingales with bounded second moments converge almost surely?Confusions regarding the concept of a stopping time for a martingaleConvergence of expected values as random variables converge almost surelyConvergence of ExpectationsDoes this sequence converge almost surely or not?Show that $X_n/n$ does not converge almost surelyDoes this self-conjured RV converge almost surely?Existence of a sequence of L1 random variablesAlmost surely finite stopping time for a random walkweighted sequence of arbitrary sequence of random variables can converge to zero almost surelyMaking a sequence of random variables converge almost surely to $0$

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Do non-negative submartingales with finite second moment converge almost surely?


Do non-negative submartingales with bounded second moments converge almost surely?Confusions regarding the concept of a stopping time for a martingaleConvergence of expected values as random variables converge almost surelyConvergence of ExpectationsDoes this sequence converge almost surely or not?Show that $X_n/n$ does not converge almost surelyDoes this self-conjured RV converge almost surely?Existence of a sequence of L1 random variablesAlmost surely finite stopping time for a random walkweighted sequence of arbitrary sequence of random variables can converge to zero almost surelyMaking a sequence of random variables converge almost surely to $0$













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$begingroup$


Suppose $X_n_n = 1^infty$ is a discrete-time submartingale (a sequence of random variables, such that $P(E[X_n+1|X_1, … X_n] geq X_n) = 1$), such, that $forall n in mathbbN EX_n^2 < infty text and P(X_n > 0) = 1$. Is it true, that $P(exists lim_n to infty X_n) = 1$?



I know, that as $P(E[X_n+1|X_1, … X_n] geq X_n) = 1$, and, by Jensen inequality for conditional expectations $P(E[X_n+1^2|X_1, … X_n] geq E^2[X_n+1|X_1, … X_n]) = 1$, we have that this question can be solved by proving one of the following statements:
$$P(exists lim_n to infty E[X_n+1|X_1, … X_n]) = 1$$
$$P(exists lim_n to infty E[X_n+1^2|X_1, … X_n]) = 1$$
However, they do not seem to be any easier to prove.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$
















    0












    $begingroup$


    Suppose $X_n_n = 1^infty$ is a discrete-time submartingale (a sequence of random variables, such that $P(E[X_n+1|X_1, … X_n] geq X_n) = 1$), such, that $forall n in mathbbN EX_n^2 < infty text and P(X_n > 0) = 1$. Is it true, that $P(exists lim_n to infty X_n) = 1$?



    I know, that as $P(E[X_n+1|X_1, … X_n] geq X_n) = 1$, and, by Jensen inequality for conditional expectations $P(E[X_n+1^2|X_1, … X_n] geq E^2[X_n+1|X_1, … X_n]) = 1$, we have that this question can be solved by proving one of the following statements:
    $$P(exists lim_n to infty E[X_n+1|X_1, … X_n]) = 1$$
    $$P(exists lim_n to infty E[X_n+1^2|X_1, … X_n]) = 1$$
    However, they do not seem to be any easier to prove.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      Suppose $X_n_n = 1^infty$ is a discrete-time submartingale (a sequence of random variables, such that $P(E[X_n+1|X_1, … X_n] geq X_n) = 1$), such, that $forall n in mathbbN EX_n^2 < infty text and P(X_n > 0) = 1$. Is it true, that $P(exists lim_n to infty X_n) = 1$?



      I know, that as $P(E[X_n+1|X_1, … X_n] geq X_n) = 1$, and, by Jensen inequality for conditional expectations $P(E[X_n+1^2|X_1, … X_n] geq E^2[X_n+1|X_1, … X_n]) = 1$, we have that this question can be solved by proving one of the following statements:
      $$P(exists lim_n to infty E[X_n+1|X_1, … X_n]) = 1$$
      $$P(exists lim_n to infty E[X_n+1^2|X_1, … X_n]) = 1$$
      However, they do not seem to be any easier to prove.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Suppose $X_n_n = 1^infty$ is a discrete-time submartingale (a sequence of random variables, such that $P(E[X_n+1|X_1, … X_n] geq X_n) = 1$), such, that $forall n in mathbbN EX_n^2 < infty text and P(X_n > 0) = 1$. Is it true, that $P(exists lim_n to infty X_n) = 1$?



      I know, that as $P(E[X_n+1|X_1, … X_n] geq X_n) = 1$, and, by Jensen inequality for conditional expectations $P(E[X_n+1^2|X_1, … X_n] geq E^2[X_n+1|X_1, … X_n]) = 1$, we have that this question can be solved by proving one of the following statements:
      $$P(exists lim_n to infty E[X_n+1|X_1, … X_n]) = 1$$
      $$P(exists lim_n to infty E[X_n+1^2|X_1, … X_n]) = 1$$
      However, they do not seem to be any easier to prove.







      probability probability-theory convergence stochastic-processes martingales






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      edited Mar 16 at 9:27







      Yanior Weg

















      asked Mar 16 at 8:42









      Yanior WegYanior Weg

      2,65211346




      2,65211346




















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          A simple counter example is $X_n=n$ for all $n$.






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            $begingroup$

            A simple counter example is $X_n=n$ for all $n$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









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              2












              $begingroup$

              A simple counter example is $X_n=n$ for all $n$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









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                2





                $begingroup$

                A simple counter example is $X_n=n$ for all $n$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                A simple counter example is $X_n=n$ for all $n$.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Mar 16 at 12:32









                Kavi Rama MurthyKavi Rama Murthy

                69.4k53170




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