Random winner from a lotto with $N sim mathrmPois(1)$ other people Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)What's the expected value of a lottery ticket?Lottery problem - dependent vs. independent events?Lottery Pick 1 out of 10 or 10 out of 100 which is betterWhich is the correct way to calculate the expected value of a shared lottery jackpot?off by 1 lottery probabilityProbability of earnings from lotteryProb: Observation coming from a specific continuous distributionDo I add these probabilities or multiply?Probability of occurence of a number in a lotteryIntro Probability Question 1 help needed
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Random winner from a lotto with $N sim mathrmPois(1)$ other people
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)What's the expected value of a lottery ticket?Lottery problem - dependent vs. independent events?Lottery Pick 1 out of 10 or 10 out of 100 which is betterWhich is the correct way to calculate the expected value of a shared lottery jackpot?off by 1 lottery probabilityProbability of earnings from lotteryProb: Observation coming from a specific continuous distributionDo I add these probabilities or multiply?Probability of occurence of a number in a lotteryIntro Probability Question 1 help needed
$begingroup$
What is the better answer to this first year probability test question?
You enter a lottery with $N+1$ people total
$N sim mathrmPoisson(1)$
A random person is selected to be the winner, what is your probability of winning?
Answer A: Your probability of winning is $frac1N+1$ which is a RV from $0$ to $1$
Answer B: Your probability of winning is about 63%
$$ P(W) = sum_n P(W mid N = n) P(N=n) = sum_n frac11+n frace^-1n! = 1 - e^-1 approx .63$$
My question: What is the better answer here, A or B? In the real world I would be a little hesitant to say 63% because that loses the fact that if there are many lottos then the probability of winning each one could be different. 63% seems more like an expectation which I suppose the total law of probability is an expectation.
It does make sense to me if someone said "$P(W)$ is the unconditional probability of winning" and $1/(n+1)$ is the probability of winning given $N = n$ but it also makes sense to me if someone said the probability of winning is a RV.
I know this is boring question but can you help clear my confusion. Thanks for your help and patience.
probability expected-value
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
What is the better answer to this first year probability test question?
You enter a lottery with $N+1$ people total
$N sim mathrmPoisson(1)$
A random person is selected to be the winner, what is your probability of winning?
Answer A: Your probability of winning is $frac1N+1$ which is a RV from $0$ to $1$
Answer B: Your probability of winning is about 63%
$$ P(W) = sum_n P(W mid N = n) P(N=n) = sum_n frac11+n frace^-1n! = 1 - e^-1 approx .63$$
My question: What is the better answer here, A or B? In the real world I would be a little hesitant to say 63% because that loses the fact that if there are many lottos then the probability of winning each one could be different. 63% seems more like an expectation which I suppose the total law of probability is an expectation.
It does make sense to me if someone said "$P(W)$ is the unconditional probability of winning" and $1/(n+1)$ is the probability of winning given $N = n$ but it also makes sense to me if someone said the probability of winning is a RV.
I know this is boring question but can you help clear my confusion. Thanks for your help and patience.
probability expected-value
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
The distinction is essentially the difference between the conditional probability (conditioned on $N$) and the [unconditional] probability.
$endgroup$
– angryavian
Mar 25 at 18:55
$begingroup$
@angryavian Thanks for your help. Ahhh so if I say the probability of winning is the RV $1/(1+N)$, I am implicitly conditioning on the RV $N$? So given the RV $N$ then the probability of winning is a RV $1/(1+N)$... The conditioning is very clear to me for a statement like $P(W mid N=n) = 1/(1+n)$
$endgroup$
– HJ_beginner
Mar 25 at 19:00
$begingroup$
@angryavian Hmm is this something that makes sense, $P(W mid N) = 1/(1+N)$? I know you can do things like $E[E[W|N]]$ but didn't think about doing that for a probability $P()$
$endgroup$
– HJ_beginner
Mar 25 at 19:03
$begingroup$
@MinusOne-Twelfth Excellent thanks!
$endgroup$
– HJ_beginner
Mar 25 at 19:17
add a comment |
$begingroup$
What is the better answer to this first year probability test question?
You enter a lottery with $N+1$ people total
$N sim mathrmPoisson(1)$
A random person is selected to be the winner, what is your probability of winning?
Answer A: Your probability of winning is $frac1N+1$ which is a RV from $0$ to $1$
Answer B: Your probability of winning is about 63%
$$ P(W) = sum_n P(W mid N = n) P(N=n) = sum_n frac11+n frace^-1n! = 1 - e^-1 approx .63$$
My question: What is the better answer here, A or B? In the real world I would be a little hesitant to say 63% because that loses the fact that if there are many lottos then the probability of winning each one could be different. 63% seems more like an expectation which I suppose the total law of probability is an expectation.
It does make sense to me if someone said "$P(W)$ is the unconditional probability of winning" and $1/(n+1)$ is the probability of winning given $N = n$ but it also makes sense to me if someone said the probability of winning is a RV.
I know this is boring question but can you help clear my confusion. Thanks for your help and patience.
probability expected-value
$endgroup$
What is the better answer to this first year probability test question?
You enter a lottery with $N+1$ people total
$N sim mathrmPoisson(1)$
A random person is selected to be the winner, what is your probability of winning?
Answer A: Your probability of winning is $frac1N+1$ which is a RV from $0$ to $1$
Answer B: Your probability of winning is about 63%
$$ P(W) = sum_n P(W mid N = n) P(N=n) = sum_n frac11+n frace^-1n! = 1 - e^-1 approx .63$$
My question: What is the better answer here, A or B? In the real world I would be a little hesitant to say 63% because that loses the fact that if there are many lottos then the probability of winning each one could be different. 63% seems more like an expectation which I suppose the total law of probability is an expectation.
It does make sense to me if someone said "$P(W)$ is the unconditional probability of winning" and $1/(n+1)$ is the probability of winning given $N = n$ but it also makes sense to me if someone said the probability of winning is a RV.
I know this is boring question but can you help clear my confusion. Thanks for your help and patience.
probability expected-value
probability expected-value
edited 16 hours ago
Lee David Chung Lin
4,50841342
4,50841342
asked Mar 25 at 18:37
HJ_beginnerHJ_beginner
9601415
9601415
$begingroup$
The distinction is essentially the difference between the conditional probability (conditioned on $N$) and the [unconditional] probability.
$endgroup$
– angryavian
Mar 25 at 18:55
$begingroup$
@angryavian Thanks for your help. Ahhh so if I say the probability of winning is the RV $1/(1+N)$, I am implicitly conditioning on the RV $N$? So given the RV $N$ then the probability of winning is a RV $1/(1+N)$... The conditioning is very clear to me for a statement like $P(W mid N=n) = 1/(1+n)$
$endgroup$
– HJ_beginner
Mar 25 at 19:00
$begingroup$
@angryavian Hmm is this something that makes sense, $P(W mid N) = 1/(1+N)$? I know you can do things like $E[E[W|N]]$ but didn't think about doing that for a probability $P()$
$endgroup$
– HJ_beginner
Mar 25 at 19:03
$begingroup$
@MinusOne-Twelfth Excellent thanks!
$endgroup$
– HJ_beginner
Mar 25 at 19:17
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The distinction is essentially the difference between the conditional probability (conditioned on $N$) and the [unconditional] probability.
$endgroup$
– angryavian
Mar 25 at 18:55
$begingroup$
@angryavian Thanks for your help. Ahhh so if I say the probability of winning is the RV $1/(1+N)$, I am implicitly conditioning on the RV $N$? So given the RV $N$ then the probability of winning is a RV $1/(1+N)$... The conditioning is very clear to me for a statement like $P(W mid N=n) = 1/(1+n)$
$endgroup$
– HJ_beginner
Mar 25 at 19:00
$begingroup$
@angryavian Hmm is this something that makes sense, $P(W mid N) = 1/(1+N)$? I know you can do things like $E[E[W|N]]$ but didn't think about doing that for a probability $P()$
$endgroup$
– HJ_beginner
Mar 25 at 19:03
$begingroup$
@MinusOne-Twelfth Excellent thanks!
$endgroup$
– HJ_beginner
Mar 25 at 19:17
$begingroup$
The distinction is essentially the difference between the conditional probability (conditioned on $N$) and the [unconditional] probability.
$endgroup$
– angryavian
Mar 25 at 18:55
$begingroup$
The distinction is essentially the difference between the conditional probability (conditioned on $N$) and the [unconditional] probability.
$endgroup$
– angryavian
Mar 25 at 18:55
$begingroup$
@angryavian Thanks for your help. Ahhh so if I say the probability of winning is the RV $1/(1+N)$, I am implicitly conditioning on the RV $N$? So given the RV $N$ then the probability of winning is a RV $1/(1+N)$... The conditioning is very clear to me for a statement like $P(W mid N=n) = 1/(1+n)$
$endgroup$
– HJ_beginner
Mar 25 at 19:00
$begingroup$
@angryavian Thanks for your help. Ahhh so if I say the probability of winning is the RV $1/(1+N)$, I am implicitly conditioning on the RV $N$? So given the RV $N$ then the probability of winning is a RV $1/(1+N)$... The conditioning is very clear to me for a statement like $P(W mid N=n) = 1/(1+n)$
$endgroup$
– HJ_beginner
Mar 25 at 19:00
$begingroup$
@angryavian Hmm is this something that makes sense, $P(W mid N) = 1/(1+N)$? I know you can do things like $E[E[W|N]]$ but didn't think about doing that for a probability $P()$
$endgroup$
– HJ_beginner
Mar 25 at 19:03
$begingroup$
@angryavian Hmm is this something that makes sense, $P(W mid N) = 1/(1+N)$? I know you can do things like $E[E[W|N]]$ but didn't think about doing that for a probability $P()$
$endgroup$
– HJ_beginner
Mar 25 at 19:03
$begingroup$
@MinusOne-Twelfth Excellent thanks!
$endgroup$
– HJ_beginner
Mar 25 at 19:17
$begingroup$
@MinusOne-Twelfth Excellent thanks!
$endgroup$
– HJ_beginner
Mar 25 at 19:17
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
The distinction is essentially the difference between the conditional probability (conditioned on $N$) and the [unconditional] probability.
$endgroup$
– angryavian
Mar 25 at 18:55
$begingroup$
@angryavian Thanks for your help. Ahhh so if I say the probability of winning is the RV $1/(1+N)$, I am implicitly conditioning on the RV $N$? So given the RV $N$ then the probability of winning is a RV $1/(1+N)$... The conditioning is very clear to me for a statement like $P(W mid N=n) = 1/(1+n)$
$endgroup$
– HJ_beginner
Mar 25 at 19:00
$begingroup$
@angryavian Hmm is this something that makes sense, $P(W mid N) = 1/(1+N)$? I know you can do things like $E[E[W|N]]$ but didn't think about doing that for a probability $P()$
$endgroup$
– HJ_beginner
Mar 25 at 19:03
$begingroup$
@MinusOne-Twelfth Excellent thanks!
$endgroup$
– HJ_beginner
Mar 25 at 19:17