Adjoint of multiplication operator Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Multiplication Operator on $L^2$ is densely definedConcerning unbounded linear operators on a Hilbert spaceProjecting self-adjoint operator onto closed subspaceDoes an essentially self-adjoint operator have the same kernel as its closure?Can we talk about the adjoint of a linear operator defined on a distribution space?Effective strategy for determining the adjoint of an unbounded operator?Restriction of self-adjoint operator self-adjoint?Why need densily definedness for definition of $T^*$ for unbounded operatorCayley transform for unbounded operator M(f)(t)=t(f)(t)About functional calculus of unbounded operatorA multiplicative operator is self-adjoint
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Adjoint of multiplication operator
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Multiplication Operator on $L^2$ is densely definedConcerning unbounded linear operators on a Hilbert spaceProjecting self-adjoint operator onto closed subspaceDoes an essentially self-adjoint operator have the same kernel as its closure?Can we talk about the adjoint of a linear operator defined on a distribution space?Effective strategy for determining the adjoint of an unbounded operator?Restriction of self-adjoint operator self-adjoint?Why need densily definedness for definition of $T^*$ for unbounded operatorCayley transform for unbounded operator M(f)(t)=t(f)(t)About functional calculus of unbounded operatorA multiplicative operator is self-adjoint
$begingroup$
To keep it simple, let $phi : Itomathbb C$ be a measurable function on a finite interval $Isubsetmathbb R$. The multiplication operator $M_phi$ is defined as $M_phi f = phicdot f$, $finoperatornamedomM_phi$, where
$$
operatornamedomM_phi = fin L^2(I) : phicdot fin L^2(I).
$$
I want to show that $M_phi^* = M_barphi$, where $barphi$ is the complex conjugate of $phi$. My first question: why is $M_phi$ densely defined?
It is easy to see that $M_barphisubset M_phi^*$, but I cannot prove the opposite inclusion. For this, let $ginoperatornamedomM_phi^*$. Then $int foverlinebarphig,dx = (phi f,g) = (f,h)$ for all $finoperatornamedomM_phi$, where $h = M_phi^*g$. How can I infer from here that $barphi gin L^2(I)$?
functional-analysis operator-theory unbounded-operators
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
To keep it simple, let $phi : Itomathbb C$ be a measurable function on a finite interval $Isubsetmathbb R$. The multiplication operator $M_phi$ is defined as $M_phi f = phicdot f$, $finoperatornamedomM_phi$, where
$$
operatornamedomM_phi = fin L^2(I) : phicdot fin L^2(I).
$$
I want to show that $M_phi^* = M_barphi$, where $barphi$ is the complex conjugate of $phi$. My first question: why is $M_phi$ densely defined?
It is easy to see that $M_barphisubset M_phi^*$, but I cannot prove the opposite inclusion. For this, let $ginoperatornamedomM_phi^*$. Then $int foverlinebarphig,dx = (phi f,g) = (f,h)$ for all $finoperatornamedomM_phi$, where $h = M_phi^*g$. How can I infer from here that $barphi gin L^2(I)$?
functional-analysis operator-theory unbounded-operators
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
To keep it simple, let $phi : Itomathbb C$ be a measurable function on a finite interval $Isubsetmathbb R$. The multiplication operator $M_phi$ is defined as $M_phi f = phicdot f$, $finoperatornamedomM_phi$, where
$$
operatornamedomM_phi = fin L^2(I) : phicdot fin L^2(I).
$$
I want to show that $M_phi^* = M_barphi$, where $barphi$ is the complex conjugate of $phi$. My first question: why is $M_phi$ densely defined?
It is easy to see that $M_barphisubset M_phi^*$, but I cannot prove the opposite inclusion. For this, let $ginoperatornamedomM_phi^*$. Then $int foverlinebarphig,dx = (phi f,g) = (f,h)$ for all $finoperatornamedomM_phi$, where $h = M_phi^*g$. How can I infer from here that $barphi gin L^2(I)$?
functional-analysis operator-theory unbounded-operators
$endgroup$
To keep it simple, let $phi : Itomathbb C$ be a measurable function on a finite interval $Isubsetmathbb R$. The multiplication operator $M_phi$ is defined as $M_phi f = phicdot f$, $finoperatornamedomM_phi$, where
$$
operatornamedomM_phi = fin L^2(I) : phicdot fin L^2(I).
$$
I want to show that $M_phi^* = M_barphi$, where $barphi$ is the complex conjugate of $phi$. My first question: why is $M_phi$ densely defined?
It is easy to see that $M_barphisubset M_phi^*$, but I cannot prove the opposite inclusion. For this, let $ginoperatornamedomM_phi^*$. Then $int foverlinebarphig,dx = (phi f,g) = (f,h)$ for all $finoperatornamedomM_phi$, where $h = M_phi^*g$. How can I infer from here that $barphi gin L^2(I)$?
functional-analysis operator-theory unbounded-operators
functional-analysis operator-theory unbounded-operators
edited Mar 25 at 20:07
amsmath
asked Mar 25 at 19:56
amsmathamsmath
3,331421
3,331421
add a comment |
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Suppose $gperp mathcalD(M_phi)$. Then $frac1phiginmathcalD(M_phi)$ because $fracphiphig in L^2$, owing to the fact that $|phi| = |phi|cdot 1 le frac12(|phi|^2+1)$. Therefore, $gperp frac1phig$, which gives
$$
0= langle g,frac1phigrangle = int |g|^2frac1phi implies g=0; a.e..
$$
So $M_phi$ is densely-defined.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Hi DisintegratingByParts.Thanks. But this was already shown by Robert Israel. I give away the 200 bounty points for showing that $M_phi^* = M_overlinephi$. BTW, you don't come from Argentina incedently, do you?
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Mar 28 at 21:47
$begingroup$
I'll give you the bounty anyways because you pointed me to the trick with $1+|phi|^2$. Thank you! EDIT: I can only do that in 18 hours. WTF...
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Mar 28 at 23:27
$begingroup$
@amsmath : I am not from Argentina. I am curious what made you think I might be from Argentina.
$endgroup$
– DisintegratingByParts
Mar 29 at 1:54
$begingroup$
When I read your stuff, I could suddenly remember to have seen this proof of density before -- in Argentinian lecture notes. ;-) 14 hours...
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Mar 29 at 3:27
$begingroup$
Your last argument is not correct because you don't know whether $phioverline gin L^2$ (and hence not whether $phioverline g - overlineM_phi^*gin L^2$). That was exactly my problem in my question.
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Mar 29 at 17:31
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
Let $A_n = x in I: $. Note that
$bigcup_n=1^infty A_n = I$. Let $V_n$ be the subspace of $L^2(I)$ consisting of functions that are $0$ outside $A_n$.
Then $bigcup_n V_n subset textdom M_phi$ and is dense.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thanks, Robert. Can you also say something about the adjoint?
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Mar 25 at 21:50
add a comment |
$begingroup$
As already shown in DisintegratingByParts' answer, for all $hin L^2(I)$ we have that $tfrach1+inoperatornamedomM_phi$. Now, let $ginoperatornamedomM_phi^*$. Then for all $finoperatornamedomM_phi$ we have $(phi f,g) = (f,M_phi^*g)$. Hence, for all $hin L^2(I)$ we get
$$
left(fracphi h1+,gright) = left(frach1+,M_phi^*gright),
$$
that is,
$$
left(h,fracoverlinephig1+right) = left(h,fracM_phi^*g1+right).
$$
This implies $overlinephi g = M_phi^*gin L^2(I)$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
Your Answer
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Suppose $gperp mathcalD(M_phi)$. Then $frac1phiginmathcalD(M_phi)$ because $fracphiphig in L^2$, owing to the fact that $|phi| = |phi|cdot 1 le frac12(|phi|^2+1)$. Therefore, $gperp frac1phig$, which gives
$$
0= langle g,frac1phigrangle = int |g|^2frac1phi implies g=0; a.e..
$$
So $M_phi$ is densely-defined.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Hi DisintegratingByParts.Thanks. But this was already shown by Robert Israel. I give away the 200 bounty points for showing that $M_phi^* = M_overlinephi$. BTW, you don't come from Argentina incedently, do you?
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Mar 28 at 21:47
$begingroup$
I'll give you the bounty anyways because you pointed me to the trick with $1+|phi|^2$. Thank you! EDIT: I can only do that in 18 hours. WTF...
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Mar 28 at 23:27
$begingroup$
@amsmath : I am not from Argentina. I am curious what made you think I might be from Argentina.
$endgroup$
– DisintegratingByParts
Mar 29 at 1:54
$begingroup$
When I read your stuff, I could suddenly remember to have seen this proof of density before -- in Argentinian lecture notes. ;-) 14 hours...
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Mar 29 at 3:27
$begingroup$
Your last argument is not correct because you don't know whether $phioverline gin L^2$ (and hence not whether $phioverline g - overlineM_phi^*gin L^2$). That was exactly my problem in my question.
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Mar 29 at 17:31
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
Suppose $gperp mathcalD(M_phi)$. Then $frac1phiginmathcalD(M_phi)$ because $fracphiphig in L^2$, owing to the fact that $|phi| = |phi|cdot 1 le frac12(|phi|^2+1)$. Therefore, $gperp frac1phig$, which gives
$$
0= langle g,frac1phigrangle = int |g|^2frac1phi implies g=0; a.e..
$$
So $M_phi$ is densely-defined.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Hi DisintegratingByParts.Thanks. But this was already shown by Robert Israel. I give away the 200 bounty points for showing that $M_phi^* = M_overlinephi$. BTW, you don't come from Argentina incedently, do you?
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Mar 28 at 21:47
$begingroup$
I'll give you the bounty anyways because you pointed me to the trick with $1+|phi|^2$. Thank you! EDIT: I can only do that in 18 hours. WTF...
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Mar 28 at 23:27
$begingroup$
@amsmath : I am not from Argentina. I am curious what made you think I might be from Argentina.
$endgroup$
– DisintegratingByParts
Mar 29 at 1:54
$begingroup$
When I read your stuff, I could suddenly remember to have seen this proof of density before -- in Argentinian lecture notes. ;-) 14 hours...
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Mar 29 at 3:27
$begingroup$
Your last argument is not correct because you don't know whether $phioverline gin L^2$ (and hence not whether $phioverline g - overlineM_phi^*gin L^2$). That was exactly my problem in my question.
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Mar 29 at 17:31
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
Suppose $gperp mathcalD(M_phi)$. Then $frac1phiginmathcalD(M_phi)$ because $fracphiphig in L^2$, owing to the fact that $|phi| = |phi|cdot 1 le frac12(|phi|^2+1)$. Therefore, $gperp frac1phig$, which gives
$$
0= langle g,frac1phigrangle = int |g|^2frac1phi implies g=0; a.e..
$$
So $M_phi$ is densely-defined.
$endgroup$
Suppose $gperp mathcalD(M_phi)$. Then $frac1phiginmathcalD(M_phi)$ because $fracphiphig in L^2$, owing to the fact that $|phi| = |phi|cdot 1 le frac12(|phi|^2+1)$. Therefore, $gperp frac1phig$, which gives
$$
0= langle g,frac1phigrangle = int |g|^2frac1phi implies g=0; a.e..
$$
So $M_phi$ is densely-defined.
edited Mar 30 at 14:56
answered Mar 28 at 20:08
DisintegratingByPartsDisintegratingByParts
60.4k42681
60.4k42681
$begingroup$
Hi DisintegratingByParts.Thanks. But this was already shown by Robert Israel. I give away the 200 bounty points for showing that $M_phi^* = M_overlinephi$. BTW, you don't come from Argentina incedently, do you?
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Mar 28 at 21:47
$begingroup$
I'll give you the bounty anyways because you pointed me to the trick with $1+|phi|^2$. Thank you! EDIT: I can only do that in 18 hours. WTF...
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Mar 28 at 23:27
$begingroup$
@amsmath : I am not from Argentina. I am curious what made you think I might be from Argentina.
$endgroup$
– DisintegratingByParts
Mar 29 at 1:54
$begingroup$
When I read your stuff, I could suddenly remember to have seen this proof of density before -- in Argentinian lecture notes. ;-) 14 hours...
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Mar 29 at 3:27
$begingroup$
Your last argument is not correct because you don't know whether $phioverline gin L^2$ (and hence not whether $phioverline g - overlineM_phi^*gin L^2$). That was exactly my problem in my question.
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Mar 29 at 17:31
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
Hi DisintegratingByParts.Thanks. But this was already shown by Robert Israel. I give away the 200 bounty points for showing that $M_phi^* = M_overlinephi$. BTW, you don't come from Argentina incedently, do you?
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Mar 28 at 21:47
$begingroup$
I'll give you the bounty anyways because you pointed me to the trick with $1+|phi|^2$. Thank you! EDIT: I can only do that in 18 hours. WTF...
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Mar 28 at 23:27
$begingroup$
@amsmath : I am not from Argentina. I am curious what made you think I might be from Argentina.
$endgroup$
– DisintegratingByParts
Mar 29 at 1:54
$begingroup$
When I read your stuff, I could suddenly remember to have seen this proof of density before -- in Argentinian lecture notes. ;-) 14 hours...
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Mar 29 at 3:27
$begingroup$
Your last argument is not correct because you don't know whether $phioverline gin L^2$ (and hence not whether $phioverline g - overlineM_phi^*gin L^2$). That was exactly my problem in my question.
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Mar 29 at 17:31
$begingroup$
Hi DisintegratingByParts.Thanks. But this was already shown by Robert Israel. I give away the 200 bounty points for showing that $M_phi^* = M_overlinephi$. BTW, you don't come from Argentina incedently, do you?
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Mar 28 at 21:47
$begingroup$
Hi DisintegratingByParts.Thanks. But this was already shown by Robert Israel. I give away the 200 bounty points for showing that $M_phi^* = M_overlinephi$. BTW, you don't come from Argentina incedently, do you?
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Mar 28 at 21:47
$begingroup$
I'll give you the bounty anyways because you pointed me to the trick with $1+|phi|^2$. Thank you! EDIT: I can only do that in 18 hours. WTF...
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Mar 28 at 23:27
$begingroup$
I'll give you the bounty anyways because you pointed me to the trick with $1+|phi|^2$. Thank you! EDIT: I can only do that in 18 hours. WTF...
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Mar 28 at 23:27
$begingroup$
@amsmath : I am not from Argentina. I am curious what made you think I might be from Argentina.
$endgroup$
– DisintegratingByParts
Mar 29 at 1:54
$begingroup$
@amsmath : I am not from Argentina. I am curious what made you think I might be from Argentina.
$endgroup$
– DisintegratingByParts
Mar 29 at 1:54
$begingroup$
When I read your stuff, I could suddenly remember to have seen this proof of density before -- in Argentinian lecture notes. ;-) 14 hours...
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Mar 29 at 3:27
$begingroup$
When I read your stuff, I could suddenly remember to have seen this proof of density before -- in Argentinian lecture notes. ;-) 14 hours...
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Mar 29 at 3:27
$begingroup$
Your last argument is not correct because you don't know whether $phioverline gin L^2$ (and hence not whether $phioverline g - overlineM_phi^*gin L^2$). That was exactly my problem in my question.
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Mar 29 at 17:31
$begingroup$
Your last argument is not correct because you don't know whether $phioverline gin L^2$ (and hence not whether $phioverline g - overlineM_phi^*gin L^2$). That was exactly my problem in my question.
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Mar 29 at 17:31
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
Let $A_n = x in I: $. Note that
$bigcup_n=1^infty A_n = I$. Let $V_n$ be the subspace of $L^2(I)$ consisting of functions that are $0$ outside $A_n$.
Then $bigcup_n V_n subset textdom M_phi$ and is dense.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thanks, Robert. Can you also say something about the adjoint?
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Mar 25 at 21:50
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $A_n = x in I: $. Note that
$bigcup_n=1^infty A_n = I$. Let $V_n$ be the subspace of $L^2(I)$ consisting of functions that are $0$ outside $A_n$.
Then $bigcup_n V_n subset textdom M_phi$ and is dense.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thanks, Robert. Can you also say something about the adjoint?
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Mar 25 at 21:50
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $A_n = x in I: $. Note that
$bigcup_n=1^infty A_n = I$. Let $V_n$ be the subspace of $L^2(I)$ consisting of functions that are $0$ outside $A_n$.
Then $bigcup_n V_n subset textdom M_phi$ and is dense.
$endgroup$
Let $A_n = x in I: $. Note that
$bigcup_n=1^infty A_n = I$. Let $V_n$ be the subspace of $L^2(I)$ consisting of functions that are $0$ outside $A_n$.
Then $bigcup_n V_n subset textdom M_phi$ and is dense.
answered Mar 25 at 20:54
Robert IsraelRobert Israel
331k23221478
331k23221478
$begingroup$
Thanks, Robert. Can you also say something about the adjoint?
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Mar 25 at 21:50
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Thanks, Robert. Can you also say something about the adjoint?
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Mar 25 at 21:50
$begingroup$
Thanks, Robert. Can you also say something about the adjoint?
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Mar 25 at 21:50
$begingroup$
Thanks, Robert. Can you also say something about the adjoint?
$endgroup$
– amsmath
Mar 25 at 21:50
add a comment |
$begingroup$
As already shown in DisintegratingByParts' answer, for all $hin L^2(I)$ we have that $tfrach1+inoperatornamedomM_phi$. Now, let $ginoperatornamedomM_phi^*$. Then for all $finoperatornamedomM_phi$ we have $(phi f,g) = (f,M_phi^*g)$. Hence, for all $hin L^2(I)$ we get
$$
left(fracphi h1+,gright) = left(frach1+,M_phi^*gright),
$$
that is,
$$
left(h,fracoverlinephig1+right) = left(h,fracM_phi^*g1+right).
$$
This implies $overlinephi g = M_phi^*gin L^2(I)$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
As already shown in DisintegratingByParts' answer, for all $hin L^2(I)$ we have that $tfrach1+inoperatornamedomM_phi$. Now, let $ginoperatornamedomM_phi^*$. Then for all $finoperatornamedomM_phi$ we have $(phi f,g) = (f,M_phi^*g)$. Hence, for all $hin L^2(I)$ we get
$$
left(fracphi h1+,gright) = left(frach1+,M_phi^*gright),
$$
that is,
$$
left(h,fracoverlinephig1+right) = left(h,fracM_phi^*g1+right).
$$
This implies $overlinephi g = M_phi^*gin L^2(I)$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
As already shown in DisintegratingByParts' answer, for all $hin L^2(I)$ we have that $tfrach1+inoperatornamedomM_phi$. Now, let $ginoperatornamedomM_phi^*$. Then for all $finoperatornamedomM_phi$ we have $(phi f,g) = (f,M_phi^*g)$. Hence, for all $hin L^2(I)$ we get
$$
left(fracphi h1+,gright) = left(frach1+,M_phi^*gright),
$$
that is,
$$
left(h,fracoverlinephig1+right) = left(h,fracM_phi^*g1+right).
$$
This implies $overlinephi g = M_phi^*gin L^2(I)$.
$endgroup$
As already shown in DisintegratingByParts' answer, for all $hin L^2(I)$ we have that $tfrach1+inoperatornamedomM_phi$. Now, let $ginoperatornamedomM_phi^*$. Then for all $finoperatornamedomM_phi$ we have $(phi f,g) = (f,M_phi^*g)$. Hence, for all $hin L^2(I)$ we get
$$
left(fracphi h1+,gright) = left(frach1+,M_phi^*gright),
$$
that is,
$$
left(h,fracoverlinephig1+right) = left(h,fracM_phi^*g1+right).
$$
This implies $overlinephi g = M_phi^*gin L^2(I)$.
answered Mar 28 at 23:26
amsmathamsmath
3,331421
3,331421
add a comment |
add a comment |
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