Adjoint of multiplication operator Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Multiplication Operator on $L^2$ is densely definedConcerning unbounded linear operators on a Hilbert spaceProjecting self-adjoint operator onto closed subspaceDoes an essentially self-adjoint operator have the same kernel as its closure?Can we talk about the adjoint of a linear operator defined on a distribution space?Effective strategy for determining the adjoint of an unbounded operator?Restriction of self-adjoint operator self-adjoint?Why need densily definedness for definition of $T^*$ for unbounded operatorCayley transform for unbounded operator M(f)(t)=t(f)(t)About functional calculus of unbounded operatorA multiplicative operator is self-adjoint

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Adjoint of multiplication operator



Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Multiplication Operator on $L^2$ is densely definedConcerning unbounded linear operators on a Hilbert spaceProjecting self-adjoint operator onto closed subspaceDoes an essentially self-adjoint operator have the same kernel as its closure?Can we talk about the adjoint of a linear operator defined on a distribution space?Effective strategy for determining the adjoint of an unbounded operator?Restriction of self-adjoint operator self-adjoint?Why need densily definedness for definition of $T^*$ for unbounded operatorCayley transform for unbounded operator M(f)(t)=t(f)(t)About functional calculus of unbounded operatorA multiplicative operator is self-adjoint










1












$begingroup$


To keep it simple, let $phi : Itomathbb C$ be a measurable function on a finite interval $Isubsetmathbb R$. The multiplication operator $M_phi$ is defined as $M_phi f = phicdot f$, $finoperatornamedomM_phi$, where
$$
operatornamedomM_phi = fin L^2(I) : phicdot fin L^2(I).
$$

I want to show that $M_phi^* = M_barphi$, where $barphi$ is the complex conjugate of $phi$. My first question: why is $M_phi$ densely defined?



It is easy to see that $M_barphisubset M_phi^*$, but I cannot prove the opposite inclusion. For this, let $ginoperatornamedomM_phi^*$. Then $int foverlinebarphig,dx = (phi f,g) = (f,h)$ for all $finoperatornamedomM_phi$, where $h = M_phi^*g$. How can I infer from here that $barphi gin L^2(I)$?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$
















    1












    $begingroup$


    To keep it simple, let $phi : Itomathbb C$ be a measurable function on a finite interval $Isubsetmathbb R$. The multiplication operator $M_phi$ is defined as $M_phi f = phicdot f$, $finoperatornamedomM_phi$, where
    $$
    operatornamedomM_phi = fin L^2(I) : phicdot fin L^2(I).
    $$

    I want to show that $M_phi^* = M_barphi$, where $barphi$ is the complex conjugate of $phi$. My first question: why is $M_phi$ densely defined?



    It is easy to see that $M_barphisubset M_phi^*$, but I cannot prove the opposite inclusion. For this, let $ginoperatornamedomM_phi^*$. Then $int foverlinebarphig,dx = (phi f,g) = (f,h)$ for all $finoperatornamedomM_phi$, where $h = M_phi^*g$. How can I infer from here that $barphi gin L^2(I)$?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      To keep it simple, let $phi : Itomathbb C$ be a measurable function on a finite interval $Isubsetmathbb R$. The multiplication operator $M_phi$ is defined as $M_phi f = phicdot f$, $finoperatornamedomM_phi$, where
      $$
      operatornamedomM_phi = fin L^2(I) : phicdot fin L^2(I).
      $$

      I want to show that $M_phi^* = M_barphi$, where $barphi$ is the complex conjugate of $phi$. My first question: why is $M_phi$ densely defined?



      It is easy to see that $M_barphisubset M_phi^*$, but I cannot prove the opposite inclusion. For this, let $ginoperatornamedomM_phi^*$. Then $int foverlinebarphig,dx = (phi f,g) = (f,h)$ for all $finoperatornamedomM_phi$, where $h = M_phi^*g$. How can I infer from here that $barphi gin L^2(I)$?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      To keep it simple, let $phi : Itomathbb C$ be a measurable function on a finite interval $Isubsetmathbb R$. The multiplication operator $M_phi$ is defined as $M_phi f = phicdot f$, $finoperatornamedomM_phi$, where
      $$
      operatornamedomM_phi = fin L^2(I) : phicdot fin L^2(I).
      $$

      I want to show that $M_phi^* = M_barphi$, where $barphi$ is the complex conjugate of $phi$. My first question: why is $M_phi$ densely defined?



      It is easy to see that $M_barphisubset M_phi^*$, but I cannot prove the opposite inclusion. For this, let $ginoperatornamedomM_phi^*$. Then $int foverlinebarphig,dx = (phi f,g) = (f,h)$ for all $finoperatornamedomM_phi$, where $h = M_phi^*g$. How can I infer from here that $barphi gin L^2(I)$?







      functional-analysis operator-theory unbounded-operators






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Mar 25 at 20:07







      amsmath

















      asked Mar 25 at 19:56









      amsmathamsmath

      3,331421




      3,331421




















          3 Answers
          3






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          2





          +200







          $begingroup$

          Suppose $gperp mathcalD(M_phi)$. Then $frac1phiginmathcalD(M_phi)$ because $fracphiphig in L^2$, owing to the fact that $|phi| = |phi|cdot 1 le frac12(|phi|^2+1)$. Therefore, $gperp frac1phig$, which gives
          $$
          0= langle g,frac1phigrangle = int |g|^2frac1phi implies g=0; a.e..
          $$

          So $M_phi$ is densely-defined.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Hi DisintegratingByParts.Thanks. But this was already shown by Robert Israel. I give away the 200 bounty points for showing that $M_phi^* = M_overlinephi$. BTW, you don't come from Argentina incedently, do you?
            $endgroup$
            – amsmath
            Mar 28 at 21:47











          • $begingroup$
            I'll give you the bounty anyways because you pointed me to the trick with $1+|phi|^2$. Thank you! EDIT: I can only do that in 18 hours. WTF...
            $endgroup$
            – amsmath
            Mar 28 at 23:27











          • $begingroup$
            @amsmath : I am not from Argentina. I am curious what made you think I might be from Argentina.
            $endgroup$
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Mar 29 at 1:54










          • $begingroup$
            When I read your stuff, I could suddenly remember to have seen this proof of density before -- in Argentinian lecture notes. ;-) 14 hours...
            $endgroup$
            – amsmath
            Mar 29 at 3:27











          • $begingroup$
            Your last argument is not correct because you don't know whether $phioverline gin L^2$ (and hence not whether $phioverline g - overlineM_phi^*gin L^2$). That was exactly my problem in my question.
            $endgroup$
            – amsmath
            Mar 29 at 17:31



















          3












          $begingroup$

          Let $A_n = x in I: $. Note that
          $bigcup_n=1^infty A_n = I$. Let $V_n$ be the subspace of $L^2(I)$ consisting of functions that are $0$ outside $A_n$.
          Then $bigcup_n V_n subset textdom M_phi$ and is dense.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Thanks, Robert. Can you also say something about the adjoint?
            $endgroup$
            – amsmath
            Mar 25 at 21:50


















          0












          $begingroup$

          As already shown in DisintegratingByParts' answer, for all $hin L^2(I)$ we have that $tfrach1+inoperatornamedomM_phi$. Now, let $ginoperatornamedomM_phi^*$. Then for all $finoperatornamedomM_phi$ we have $(phi f,g) = (f,M_phi^*g)$. Hence, for all $hin L^2(I)$ we get
          $$
          left(fracphi h1+,gright) = left(frach1+,M_phi^*gright),
          $$

          that is,
          $$
          left(h,fracoverlinephig1+right) = left(h,fracM_phi^*g1+right).
          $$

          This implies $overlinephi g = M_phi^*gin L^2(I)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













            Your Answer








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            3 Answers
            3






            active

            oldest

            votes








            3 Answers
            3






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes









            2





            +200







            $begingroup$

            Suppose $gperp mathcalD(M_phi)$. Then $frac1phiginmathcalD(M_phi)$ because $fracphiphig in L^2$, owing to the fact that $|phi| = |phi|cdot 1 le frac12(|phi|^2+1)$. Therefore, $gperp frac1phig$, which gives
            $$
            0= langle g,frac1phigrangle = int |g|^2frac1phi implies g=0; a.e..
            $$

            So $M_phi$ is densely-defined.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$












            • $begingroup$
              Hi DisintegratingByParts.Thanks. But this was already shown by Robert Israel. I give away the 200 bounty points for showing that $M_phi^* = M_overlinephi$. BTW, you don't come from Argentina incedently, do you?
              $endgroup$
              – amsmath
              Mar 28 at 21:47











            • $begingroup$
              I'll give you the bounty anyways because you pointed me to the trick with $1+|phi|^2$. Thank you! EDIT: I can only do that in 18 hours. WTF...
              $endgroup$
              – amsmath
              Mar 28 at 23:27











            • $begingroup$
              @amsmath : I am not from Argentina. I am curious what made you think I might be from Argentina.
              $endgroup$
              – DisintegratingByParts
              Mar 29 at 1:54










            • $begingroup$
              When I read your stuff, I could suddenly remember to have seen this proof of density before -- in Argentinian lecture notes. ;-) 14 hours...
              $endgroup$
              – amsmath
              Mar 29 at 3:27











            • $begingroup$
              Your last argument is not correct because you don't know whether $phioverline gin L^2$ (and hence not whether $phioverline g - overlineM_phi^*gin L^2$). That was exactly my problem in my question.
              $endgroup$
              – amsmath
              Mar 29 at 17:31
















            2





            +200







            $begingroup$

            Suppose $gperp mathcalD(M_phi)$. Then $frac1phiginmathcalD(M_phi)$ because $fracphiphig in L^2$, owing to the fact that $|phi| = |phi|cdot 1 le frac12(|phi|^2+1)$. Therefore, $gperp frac1phig$, which gives
            $$
            0= langle g,frac1phigrangle = int |g|^2frac1phi implies g=0; a.e..
            $$

            So $M_phi$ is densely-defined.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$












            • $begingroup$
              Hi DisintegratingByParts.Thanks. But this was already shown by Robert Israel. I give away the 200 bounty points for showing that $M_phi^* = M_overlinephi$. BTW, you don't come from Argentina incedently, do you?
              $endgroup$
              – amsmath
              Mar 28 at 21:47











            • $begingroup$
              I'll give you the bounty anyways because you pointed me to the trick with $1+|phi|^2$. Thank you! EDIT: I can only do that in 18 hours. WTF...
              $endgroup$
              – amsmath
              Mar 28 at 23:27











            • $begingroup$
              @amsmath : I am not from Argentina. I am curious what made you think I might be from Argentina.
              $endgroup$
              – DisintegratingByParts
              Mar 29 at 1:54










            • $begingroup$
              When I read your stuff, I could suddenly remember to have seen this proof of density before -- in Argentinian lecture notes. ;-) 14 hours...
              $endgroup$
              – amsmath
              Mar 29 at 3:27











            • $begingroup$
              Your last argument is not correct because you don't know whether $phioverline gin L^2$ (and hence not whether $phioverline g - overlineM_phi^*gin L^2$). That was exactly my problem in my question.
              $endgroup$
              – amsmath
              Mar 29 at 17:31














            2





            +200







            2





            +200



            2




            +200



            $begingroup$

            Suppose $gperp mathcalD(M_phi)$. Then $frac1phiginmathcalD(M_phi)$ because $fracphiphig in L^2$, owing to the fact that $|phi| = |phi|cdot 1 le frac12(|phi|^2+1)$. Therefore, $gperp frac1phig$, which gives
            $$
            0= langle g,frac1phigrangle = int |g|^2frac1phi implies g=0; a.e..
            $$

            So $M_phi$ is densely-defined.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            Suppose $gperp mathcalD(M_phi)$. Then $frac1phiginmathcalD(M_phi)$ because $fracphiphig in L^2$, owing to the fact that $|phi| = |phi|cdot 1 le frac12(|phi|^2+1)$. Therefore, $gperp frac1phig$, which gives
            $$
            0= langle g,frac1phigrangle = int |g|^2frac1phi implies g=0; a.e..
            $$

            So $M_phi$ is densely-defined.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Mar 30 at 14:56

























            answered Mar 28 at 20:08









            DisintegratingByPartsDisintegratingByParts

            60.4k42681




            60.4k42681











            • $begingroup$
              Hi DisintegratingByParts.Thanks. But this was already shown by Robert Israel. I give away the 200 bounty points for showing that $M_phi^* = M_overlinephi$. BTW, you don't come from Argentina incedently, do you?
              $endgroup$
              – amsmath
              Mar 28 at 21:47











            • $begingroup$
              I'll give you the bounty anyways because you pointed me to the trick with $1+|phi|^2$. Thank you! EDIT: I can only do that in 18 hours. WTF...
              $endgroup$
              – amsmath
              Mar 28 at 23:27











            • $begingroup$
              @amsmath : I am not from Argentina. I am curious what made you think I might be from Argentina.
              $endgroup$
              – DisintegratingByParts
              Mar 29 at 1:54










            • $begingroup$
              When I read your stuff, I could suddenly remember to have seen this proof of density before -- in Argentinian lecture notes. ;-) 14 hours...
              $endgroup$
              – amsmath
              Mar 29 at 3:27











            • $begingroup$
              Your last argument is not correct because you don't know whether $phioverline gin L^2$ (and hence not whether $phioverline g - overlineM_phi^*gin L^2$). That was exactly my problem in my question.
              $endgroup$
              – amsmath
              Mar 29 at 17:31

















            • $begingroup$
              Hi DisintegratingByParts.Thanks. But this was already shown by Robert Israel. I give away the 200 bounty points for showing that $M_phi^* = M_overlinephi$. BTW, you don't come from Argentina incedently, do you?
              $endgroup$
              – amsmath
              Mar 28 at 21:47











            • $begingroup$
              I'll give you the bounty anyways because you pointed me to the trick with $1+|phi|^2$. Thank you! EDIT: I can only do that in 18 hours. WTF...
              $endgroup$
              – amsmath
              Mar 28 at 23:27











            • $begingroup$
              @amsmath : I am not from Argentina. I am curious what made you think I might be from Argentina.
              $endgroup$
              – DisintegratingByParts
              Mar 29 at 1:54










            • $begingroup$
              When I read your stuff, I could suddenly remember to have seen this proof of density before -- in Argentinian lecture notes. ;-) 14 hours...
              $endgroup$
              – amsmath
              Mar 29 at 3:27











            • $begingroup$
              Your last argument is not correct because you don't know whether $phioverline gin L^2$ (and hence not whether $phioverline g - overlineM_phi^*gin L^2$). That was exactly my problem in my question.
              $endgroup$
              – amsmath
              Mar 29 at 17:31
















            $begingroup$
            Hi DisintegratingByParts.Thanks. But this was already shown by Robert Israel. I give away the 200 bounty points for showing that $M_phi^* = M_overlinephi$. BTW, you don't come from Argentina incedently, do you?
            $endgroup$
            – amsmath
            Mar 28 at 21:47





            $begingroup$
            Hi DisintegratingByParts.Thanks. But this was already shown by Robert Israel. I give away the 200 bounty points for showing that $M_phi^* = M_overlinephi$. BTW, you don't come from Argentina incedently, do you?
            $endgroup$
            – amsmath
            Mar 28 at 21:47













            $begingroup$
            I'll give you the bounty anyways because you pointed me to the trick with $1+|phi|^2$. Thank you! EDIT: I can only do that in 18 hours. WTF...
            $endgroup$
            – amsmath
            Mar 28 at 23:27





            $begingroup$
            I'll give you the bounty anyways because you pointed me to the trick with $1+|phi|^2$. Thank you! EDIT: I can only do that in 18 hours. WTF...
            $endgroup$
            – amsmath
            Mar 28 at 23:27













            $begingroup$
            @amsmath : I am not from Argentina. I am curious what made you think I might be from Argentina.
            $endgroup$
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Mar 29 at 1:54




            $begingroup$
            @amsmath : I am not from Argentina. I am curious what made you think I might be from Argentina.
            $endgroup$
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Mar 29 at 1:54












            $begingroup$
            When I read your stuff, I could suddenly remember to have seen this proof of density before -- in Argentinian lecture notes. ;-) 14 hours...
            $endgroup$
            – amsmath
            Mar 29 at 3:27





            $begingroup$
            When I read your stuff, I could suddenly remember to have seen this proof of density before -- in Argentinian lecture notes. ;-) 14 hours...
            $endgroup$
            – amsmath
            Mar 29 at 3:27













            $begingroup$
            Your last argument is not correct because you don't know whether $phioverline gin L^2$ (and hence not whether $phioverline g - overlineM_phi^*gin L^2$). That was exactly my problem in my question.
            $endgroup$
            – amsmath
            Mar 29 at 17:31





            $begingroup$
            Your last argument is not correct because you don't know whether $phioverline gin L^2$ (and hence not whether $phioverline g - overlineM_phi^*gin L^2$). That was exactly my problem in my question.
            $endgroup$
            – amsmath
            Mar 29 at 17:31












            3












            $begingroup$

            Let $A_n = x in I: $. Note that
            $bigcup_n=1^infty A_n = I$. Let $V_n$ be the subspace of $L^2(I)$ consisting of functions that are $0$ outside $A_n$.
            Then $bigcup_n V_n subset textdom M_phi$ and is dense.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$












            • $begingroup$
              Thanks, Robert. Can you also say something about the adjoint?
              $endgroup$
              – amsmath
              Mar 25 at 21:50















            3












            $begingroup$

            Let $A_n = x in I: $. Note that
            $bigcup_n=1^infty A_n = I$. Let $V_n$ be the subspace of $L^2(I)$ consisting of functions that are $0$ outside $A_n$.
            Then $bigcup_n V_n subset textdom M_phi$ and is dense.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$












            • $begingroup$
              Thanks, Robert. Can you also say something about the adjoint?
              $endgroup$
              – amsmath
              Mar 25 at 21:50













            3












            3








            3





            $begingroup$

            Let $A_n = x in I: $. Note that
            $bigcup_n=1^infty A_n = I$. Let $V_n$ be the subspace of $L^2(I)$ consisting of functions that are $0$ outside $A_n$.
            Then $bigcup_n V_n subset textdom M_phi$ and is dense.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            Let $A_n = x in I: $. Note that
            $bigcup_n=1^infty A_n = I$. Let $V_n$ be the subspace of $L^2(I)$ consisting of functions that are $0$ outside $A_n$.
            Then $bigcup_n V_n subset textdom M_phi$ and is dense.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Mar 25 at 20:54









            Robert IsraelRobert Israel

            331k23221478




            331k23221478











            • $begingroup$
              Thanks, Robert. Can you also say something about the adjoint?
              $endgroup$
              – amsmath
              Mar 25 at 21:50
















            • $begingroup$
              Thanks, Robert. Can you also say something about the adjoint?
              $endgroup$
              – amsmath
              Mar 25 at 21:50















            $begingroup$
            Thanks, Robert. Can you also say something about the adjoint?
            $endgroup$
            – amsmath
            Mar 25 at 21:50




            $begingroup$
            Thanks, Robert. Can you also say something about the adjoint?
            $endgroup$
            – amsmath
            Mar 25 at 21:50











            0












            $begingroup$

            As already shown in DisintegratingByParts' answer, for all $hin L^2(I)$ we have that $tfrach1+inoperatornamedomM_phi$. Now, let $ginoperatornamedomM_phi^*$. Then for all $finoperatornamedomM_phi$ we have $(phi f,g) = (f,M_phi^*g)$. Hence, for all $hin L^2(I)$ we get
            $$
            left(fracphi h1+,gright) = left(frach1+,M_phi^*gright),
            $$

            that is,
            $$
            left(h,fracoverlinephig1+right) = left(h,fracM_phi^*g1+right).
            $$

            This implies $overlinephi g = M_phi^*gin L^2(I)$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$

















              0












              $begingroup$

              As already shown in DisintegratingByParts' answer, for all $hin L^2(I)$ we have that $tfrach1+inoperatornamedomM_phi$. Now, let $ginoperatornamedomM_phi^*$. Then for all $finoperatornamedomM_phi$ we have $(phi f,g) = (f,M_phi^*g)$. Hence, for all $hin L^2(I)$ we get
              $$
              left(fracphi h1+,gright) = left(frach1+,M_phi^*gright),
              $$

              that is,
              $$
              left(h,fracoverlinephig1+right) = left(h,fracM_phi^*g1+right).
              $$

              This implies $overlinephi g = M_phi^*gin L^2(I)$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$















                0












                0








                0





                $begingroup$

                As already shown in DisintegratingByParts' answer, for all $hin L^2(I)$ we have that $tfrach1+inoperatornamedomM_phi$. Now, let $ginoperatornamedomM_phi^*$. Then for all $finoperatornamedomM_phi$ we have $(phi f,g) = (f,M_phi^*g)$. Hence, for all $hin L^2(I)$ we get
                $$
                left(fracphi h1+,gright) = left(frach1+,M_phi^*gright),
                $$

                that is,
                $$
                left(h,fracoverlinephig1+right) = left(h,fracM_phi^*g1+right).
                $$

                This implies $overlinephi g = M_phi^*gin L^2(I)$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                As already shown in DisintegratingByParts' answer, for all $hin L^2(I)$ we have that $tfrach1+inoperatornamedomM_phi$. Now, let $ginoperatornamedomM_phi^*$. Then for all $finoperatornamedomM_phi$ we have $(phi f,g) = (f,M_phi^*g)$. Hence, for all $hin L^2(I)$ we get
                $$
                left(fracphi h1+,gright) = left(frach1+,M_phi^*gright),
                $$

                that is,
                $$
                left(h,fracoverlinephig1+right) = left(h,fracM_phi^*g1+right).
                $$

                This implies $overlinephi g = M_phi^*gin L^2(I)$.







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                answered Mar 28 at 23:26









                amsmathamsmath

                3,331421




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