Solving integral with complex path integrals Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Contour integration of $int_-infty^infty frac1-b+x^2(1-b+x^2)^2 + 4bx^2dx = pi$Real integral $ int_-infty^infty fracdx1+x^2 $ with the help of complex friendsComplex Contour Integration - Complex AnalysisGeometric interpretation of complex path integralEvaluating the integral $int_-infty^infty fracsin^2(x)x^2e^i t x dx$Compute integral using residue theoremMistake with using residue theory for calculating $int_-infty^inftyfracsin(x)xdx$Is undergraduate “complex analysis” actually kind of “complex calculus”? Please provide references.Simplify complex integral using parityIntegral of a complex function over contour
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Solving integral with complex path integrals
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Contour integration of $int_-infty^infty frac1-b+x^2(1-b+x^2)^2 + 4bx^2dx = pi$Real integral $ int_-infty^infty fracdx1+x^2 $ with the help of complex friendsComplex Contour Integration - Complex AnalysisGeometric interpretation of complex path integralEvaluating the integral $int_-infty^infty fracsin^2(x)x^2e^i t x dx$Compute integral using residue theoremMistake with using residue theory for calculating $int_-infty^inftyfracsin(x)xdx$Is undergraduate “complex analysis” actually kind of “complex calculus”? Please provide references.Simplify complex integral using parityIntegral of a complex function over contour
$begingroup$
Dear math stackexchange,
I'm trying to show this:
$$ int_-infty^infty frace^ax1+e^x dx = fracpisin(api), 0<a<1$$
I tried:
$$int_-infty^infty f(x) dx = lim_Rtoinfty int_-R^R f(x) dx = lim_Rtoinfty int_-R^R frace^ax1+e^x dx$$
Then i want to split the integration on the boundaries of a rectangle defined by the vertices:
$$ z = pm R, z = pm R + 2 pi i $$
This is obviously $ z in mathbbC$ so i need to expand on a complex function that covers the real of the normal function. Maybe just: $frace^az1+e^z$
Now i should just have to solve 4 path integrals, However they are quite difficult i think so i think i am on wrong path (No pun intended).
I would love some hints and tips to go about this problem
complex-analysis
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Dear math stackexchange,
I'm trying to show this:
$$ int_-infty^infty frace^ax1+e^x dx = fracpisin(api), 0<a<1$$
I tried:
$$int_-infty^infty f(x) dx = lim_Rtoinfty int_-R^R f(x) dx = lim_Rtoinfty int_-R^R frace^ax1+e^x dx$$
Then i want to split the integration on the boundaries of a rectangle defined by the vertices:
$$ z = pm R, z = pm R + 2 pi i $$
This is obviously $ z in mathbbC$ so i need to expand on a complex function that covers the real of the normal function. Maybe just: $frace^az1+e^z$
Now i should just have to solve 4 path integrals, However they are quite difficult i think so i think i am on wrong path (No pun intended).
I would love some hints and tips to go about this problem
complex-analysis
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
No, this is the right path for this problem. A circular arc would be much harder to deal with. Recall that there are infinitely many poles on the imaginary axis.
$endgroup$
– jmerry
Mar 25 at 19:48
$begingroup$
If you're interested in a different strategy, convert it to a Beta integral with $u=frac11+e^-x$.
$endgroup$
– J.G.
Mar 25 at 19:57
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Dear math stackexchange,
I'm trying to show this:
$$ int_-infty^infty frace^ax1+e^x dx = fracpisin(api), 0<a<1$$
I tried:
$$int_-infty^infty f(x) dx = lim_Rtoinfty int_-R^R f(x) dx = lim_Rtoinfty int_-R^R frace^ax1+e^x dx$$
Then i want to split the integration on the boundaries of a rectangle defined by the vertices:
$$ z = pm R, z = pm R + 2 pi i $$
This is obviously $ z in mathbbC$ so i need to expand on a complex function that covers the real of the normal function. Maybe just: $frace^az1+e^z$
Now i should just have to solve 4 path integrals, However they are quite difficult i think so i think i am on wrong path (No pun intended).
I would love some hints and tips to go about this problem
complex-analysis
$endgroup$
Dear math stackexchange,
I'm trying to show this:
$$ int_-infty^infty frace^ax1+e^x dx = fracpisin(api), 0<a<1$$
I tried:
$$int_-infty^infty f(x) dx = lim_Rtoinfty int_-R^R f(x) dx = lim_Rtoinfty int_-R^R frace^ax1+e^x dx$$
Then i want to split the integration on the boundaries of a rectangle defined by the vertices:
$$ z = pm R, z = pm R + 2 pi i $$
This is obviously $ z in mathbbC$ so i need to expand on a complex function that covers the real of the normal function. Maybe just: $frace^az1+e^z$
Now i should just have to solve 4 path integrals, However they are quite difficult i think so i think i am on wrong path (No pun intended).
I would love some hints and tips to go about this problem
complex-analysis
complex-analysis
asked Mar 25 at 19:27
Pernk DernetsPernk Dernets
386
386
$begingroup$
No, this is the right path for this problem. A circular arc would be much harder to deal with. Recall that there are infinitely many poles on the imaginary axis.
$endgroup$
– jmerry
Mar 25 at 19:48
$begingroup$
If you're interested in a different strategy, convert it to a Beta integral with $u=frac11+e^-x$.
$endgroup$
– J.G.
Mar 25 at 19:57
add a comment |
$begingroup$
No, this is the right path for this problem. A circular arc would be much harder to deal with. Recall that there are infinitely many poles on the imaginary axis.
$endgroup$
– jmerry
Mar 25 at 19:48
$begingroup$
If you're interested in a different strategy, convert it to a Beta integral with $u=frac11+e^-x$.
$endgroup$
– J.G.
Mar 25 at 19:57
$begingroup$
No, this is the right path for this problem. A circular arc would be much harder to deal with. Recall that there are infinitely many poles on the imaginary axis.
$endgroup$
– jmerry
Mar 25 at 19:48
$begingroup$
No, this is the right path for this problem. A circular arc would be much harder to deal with. Recall that there are infinitely many poles on the imaginary axis.
$endgroup$
– jmerry
Mar 25 at 19:48
$begingroup$
If you're interested in a different strategy, convert it to a Beta integral with $u=frac11+e^-x$.
$endgroup$
– J.G.
Mar 25 at 19:57
$begingroup$
If you're interested in a different strategy, convert it to a Beta integral with $u=frac11+e^-x$.
$endgroup$
– J.G.
Mar 25 at 19:57
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
So, the thing about those path integrals - the reason you chose that path - is that some will tend to variations on the integral we want to evaluate, and the others will go to zero. That is how we use the residue theorem to evaluate integrals; we don't start with a closed path, so we come back around to close it with pieces we can understand.
$int_-R^R$ : This is simple - it goes to $int_-infty^infty f(x),dx$, the integral we want to evaluate.
$int_R^R+2pi i$ : $dfrace^ax1+e^x = dfrace^(a-1)x1+e^-x$. When the real part of $z$ is $R$ and $s$ is real, $|e^sx|=e^sR$. Applied here,
$$left|frace^(a-1)x1+e^-xright| = frace^(a-1)R1+e^-x le frace^(a-1)R1-e^-Rto 0$$
Integrate that along a path of fixed length $2pi i$, and it goes to zero.
$int_R+2pi i^-R+2pi i$ : For this, we use the identity $f(x+2pi i) = e^2pi i af(x)$; the translation leaves the denominator unchanged, and multiplies the numerator by a fixed quantity. Since we trace this integral backwards, there's an extra $-1$ factor, and this one tends to $-e^2pi i aint_-infty^inftyf(x),dx$.
$int_-R+2pi i^-R$ : On this vertical segment, it's the $1$ term in the denominator that dominates. We get
$$left|frace^ax1+e^xright| = frace^-aRlefrace^-aR1-e^-Rto 0$$
Integrate that along a path of fixed length $2pi$, and it goes to zero.
Adding up the pieces, we get a limit that's a sum of two constant multiples of the integral we're trying to evaluate. In order to solve for that integral, we need a second evaluation of the contour integral - and that calls for the residue theorem. There's exactly one pole in the rectangle enclosed, at $pi i$.
Can you take it from here?
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Jmerry thank you so much for providing such an in depth answer. I understand the method now and i'm trying to follow along. I really appreciate your help. But how come $f(x+2 pi i ) =f(x) e^2 pi i a $ ? I am getting: $f(x+2 pi i ) = frace^axe^2 pi i1+e^xe^2 pi i $
$endgroup$
– Pernk Dernets
Mar 25 at 21:01
$begingroup$
That's not correct in the numerator - recall that the $+2pi i$ gets multiplied by $a$ too. In the denominator - what's $e^2pi i$?
$endgroup$
– jmerry
Mar 25 at 21:04
$begingroup$
Off course! $e^2 pi i$ is just $1$. And i see my mistake in the denominator. So with your help i can just find the residue, set it equal to the remaining two integrals, use the $f(x + 2 pi i)$ trick to rewrite one of the integral, such that it's equal to the original integral with a front fractor. And lastly isolate the original integral. It works out! Thank you
$endgroup$
– Pernk Dernets
Mar 26 at 10:43
add a comment |
Your Answer
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$begingroup$
So, the thing about those path integrals - the reason you chose that path - is that some will tend to variations on the integral we want to evaluate, and the others will go to zero. That is how we use the residue theorem to evaluate integrals; we don't start with a closed path, so we come back around to close it with pieces we can understand.
$int_-R^R$ : This is simple - it goes to $int_-infty^infty f(x),dx$, the integral we want to evaluate.
$int_R^R+2pi i$ : $dfrace^ax1+e^x = dfrace^(a-1)x1+e^-x$. When the real part of $z$ is $R$ and $s$ is real, $|e^sx|=e^sR$. Applied here,
$$left|frace^(a-1)x1+e^-xright| = frace^(a-1)R1+e^-x le frace^(a-1)R1-e^-Rto 0$$
Integrate that along a path of fixed length $2pi i$, and it goes to zero.
$int_R+2pi i^-R+2pi i$ : For this, we use the identity $f(x+2pi i) = e^2pi i af(x)$; the translation leaves the denominator unchanged, and multiplies the numerator by a fixed quantity. Since we trace this integral backwards, there's an extra $-1$ factor, and this one tends to $-e^2pi i aint_-infty^inftyf(x),dx$.
$int_-R+2pi i^-R$ : On this vertical segment, it's the $1$ term in the denominator that dominates. We get
$$left|frace^ax1+e^xright| = frace^-aRlefrace^-aR1-e^-Rto 0$$
Integrate that along a path of fixed length $2pi$, and it goes to zero.
Adding up the pieces, we get a limit that's a sum of two constant multiples of the integral we're trying to evaluate. In order to solve for that integral, we need a second evaluation of the contour integral - and that calls for the residue theorem. There's exactly one pole in the rectangle enclosed, at $pi i$.
Can you take it from here?
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Jmerry thank you so much for providing such an in depth answer. I understand the method now and i'm trying to follow along. I really appreciate your help. But how come $f(x+2 pi i ) =f(x) e^2 pi i a $ ? I am getting: $f(x+2 pi i ) = frace^axe^2 pi i1+e^xe^2 pi i $
$endgroup$
– Pernk Dernets
Mar 25 at 21:01
$begingroup$
That's not correct in the numerator - recall that the $+2pi i$ gets multiplied by $a$ too. In the denominator - what's $e^2pi i$?
$endgroup$
– jmerry
Mar 25 at 21:04
$begingroup$
Off course! $e^2 pi i$ is just $1$. And i see my mistake in the denominator. So with your help i can just find the residue, set it equal to the remaining two integrals, use the $f(x + 2 pi i)$ trick to rewrite one of the integral, such that it's equal to the original integral with a front fractor. And lastly isolate the original integral. It works out! Thank you
$endgroup$
– Pernk Dernets
Mar 26 at 10:43
add a comment |
$begingroup$
So, the thing about those path integrals - the reason you chose that path - is that some will tend to variations on the integral we want to evaluate, and the others will go to zero. That is how we use the residue theorem to evaluate integrals; we don't start with a closed path, so we come back around to close it with pieces we can understand.
$int_-R^R$ : This is simple - it goes to $int_-infty^infty f(x),dx$, the integral we want to evaluate.
$int_R^R+2pi i$ : $dfrace^ax1+e^x = dfrace^(a-1)x1+e^-x$. When the real part of $z$ is $R$ and $s$ is real, $|e^sx|=e^sR$. Applied here,
$$left|frace^(a-1)x1+e^-xright| = frace^(a-1)R1+e^-x le frace^(a-1)R1-e^-Rto 0$$
Integrate that along a path of fixed length $2pi i$, and it goes to zero.
$int_R+2pi i^-R+2pi i$ : For this, we use the identity $f(x+2pi i) = e^2pi i af(x)$; the translation leaves the denominator unchanged, and multiplies the numerator by a fixed quantity. Since we trace this integral backwards, there's an extra $-1$ factor, and this one tends to $-e^2pi i aint_-infty^inftyf(x),dx$.
$int_-R+2pi i^-R$ : On this vertical segment, it's the $1$ term in the denominator that dominates. We get
$$left|frace^ax1+e^xright| = frace^-aRlefrace^-aR1-e^-Rto 0$$
Integrate that along a path of fixed length $2pi$, and it goes to zero.
Adding up the pieces, we get a limit that's a sum of two constant multiples of the integral we're trying to evaluate. In order to solve for that integral, we need a second evaluation of the contour integral - and that calls for the residue theorem. There's exactly one pole in the rectangle enclosed, at $pi i$.
Can you take it from here?
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Jmerry thank you so much for providing such an in depth answer. I understand the method now and i'm trying to follow along. I really appreciate your help. But how come $f(x+2 pi i ) =f(x) e^2 pi i a $ ? I am getting: $f(x+2 pi i ) = frace^axe^2 pi i1+e^xe^2 pi i $
$endgroup$
– Pernk Dernets
Mar 25 at 21:01
$begingroup$
That's not correct in the numerator - recall that the $+2pi i$ gets multiplied by $a$ too. In the denominator - what's $e^2pi i$?
$endgroup$
– jmerry
Mar 25 at 21:04
$begingroup$
Off course! $e^2 pi i$ is just $1$. And i see my mistake in the denominator. So with your help i can just find the residue, set it equal to the remaining two integrals, use the $f(x + 2 pi i)$ trick to rewrite one of the integral, such that it's equal to the original integral with a front fractor. And lastly isolate the original integral. It works out! Thank you
$endgroup$
– Pernk Dernets
Mar 26 at 10:43
add a comment |
$begingroup$
So, the thing about those path integrals - the reason you chose that path - is that some will tend to variations on the integral we want to evaluate, and the others will go to zero. That is how we use the residue theorem to evaluate integrals; we don't start with a closed path, so we come back around to close it with pieces we can understand.
$int_-R^R$ : This is simple - it goes to $int_-infty^infty f(x),dx$, the integral we want to evaluate.
$int_R^R+2pi i$ : $dfrace^ax1+e^x = dfrace^(a-1)x1+e^-x$. When the real part of $z$ is $R$ and $s$ is real, $|e^sx|=e^sR$. Applied here,
$$left|frace^(a-1)x1+e^-xright| = frace^(a-1)R1+e^-x le frace^(a-1)R1-e^-Rto 0$$
Integrate that along a path of fixed length $2pi i$, and it goes to zero.
$int_R+2pi i^-R+2pi i$ : For this, we use the identity $f(x+2pi i) = e^2pi i af(x)$; the translation leaves the denominator unchanged, and multiplies the numerator by a fixed quantity. Since we trace this integral backwards, there's an extra $-1$ factor, and this one tends to $-e^2pi i aint_-infty^inftyf(x),dx$.
$int_-R+2pi i^-R$ : On this vertical segment, it's the $1$ term in the denominator that dominates. We get
$$left|frace^ax1+e^xright| = frace^-aRlefrace^-aR1-e^-Rto 0$$
Integrate that along a path of fixed length $2pi$, and it goes to zero.
Adding up the pieces, we get a limit that's a sum of two constant multiples of the integral we're trying to evaluate. In order to solve for that integral, we need a second evaluation of the contour integral - and that calls for the residue theorem. There's exactly one pole in the rectangle enclosed, at $pi i$.
Can you take it from here?
$endgroup$
So, the thing about those path integrals - the reason you chose that path - is that some will tend to variations on the integral we want to evaluate, and the others will go to zero. That is how we use the residue theorem to evaluate integrals; we don't start with a closed path, so we come back around to close it with pieces we can understand.
$int_-R^R$ : This is simple - it goes to $int_-infty^infty f(x),dx$, the integral we want to evaluate.
$int_R^R+2pi i$ : $dfrace^ax1+e^x = dfrace^(a-1)x1+e^-x$. When the real part of $z$ is $R$ and $s$ is real, $|e^sx|=e^sR$. Applied here,
$$left|frace^(a-1)x1+e^-xright| = frace^(a-1)R1+e^-x le frace^(a-1)R1-e^-Rto 0$$
Integrate that along a path of fixed length $2pi i$, and it goes to zero.
$int_R+2pi i^-R+2pi i$ : For this, we use the identity $f(x+2pi i) = e^2pi i af(x)$; the translation leaves the denominator unchanged, and multiplies the numerator by a fixed quantity. Since we trace this integral backwards, there's an extra $-1$ factor, and this one tends to $-e^2pi i aint_-infty^inftyf(x),dx$.
$int_-R+2pi i^-R$ : On this vertical segment, it's the $1$ term in the denominator that dominates. We get
$$left|frace^ax1+e^xright| = frace^-aRlefrace^-aR1-e^-Rto 0$$
Integrate that along a path of fixed length $2pi$, and it goes to zero.
Adding up the pieces, we get a limit that's a sum of two constant multiples of the integral we're trying to evaluate. In order to solve for that integral, we need a second evaluation of the contour integral - and that calls for the residue theorem. There's exactly one pole in the rectangle enclosed, at $pi i$.
Can you take it from here?
answered Mar 25 at 19:50
jmerryjmerry
17.1k11633
17.1k11633
$begingroup$
Jmerry thank you so much for providing such an in depth answer. I understand the method now and i'm trying to follow along. I really appreciate your help. But how come $f(x+2 pi i ) =f(x) e^2 pi i a $ ? I am getting: $f(x+2 pi i ) = frace^axe^2 pi i1+e^xe^2 pi i $
$endgroup$
– Pernk Dernets
Mar 25 at 21:01
$begingroup$
That's not correct in the numerator - recall that the $+2pi i$ gets multiplied by $a$ too. In the denominator - what's $e^2pi i$?
$endgroup$
– jmerry
Mar 25 at 21:04
$begingroup$
Off course! $e^2 pi i$ is just $1$. And i see my mistake in the denominator. So with your help i can just find the residue, set it equal to the remaining two integrals, use the $f(x + 2 pi i)$ trick to rewrite one of the integral, such that it's equal to the original integral with a front fractor. And lastly isolate the original integral. It works out! Thank you
$endgroup$
– Pernk Dernets
Mar 26 at 10:43
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Jmerry thank you so much for providing such an in depth answer. I understand the method now and i'm trying to follow along. I really appreciate your help. But how come $f(x+2 pi i ) =f(x) e^2 pi i a $ ? I am getting: $f(x+2 pi i ) = frace^axe^2 pi i1+e^xe^2 pi i $
$endgroup$
– Pernk Dernets
Mar 25 at 21:01
$begingroup$
That's not correct in the numerator - recall that the $+2pi i$ gets multiplied by $a$ too. In the denominator - what's $e^2pi i$?
$endgroup$
– jmerry
Mar 25 at 21:04
$begingroup$
Off course! $e^2 pi i$ is just $1$. And i see my mistake in the denominator. So with your help i can just find the residue, set it equal to the remaining two integrals, use the $f(x + 2 pi i)$ trick to rewrite one of the integral, such that it's equal to the original integral with a front fractor. And lastly isolate the original integral. It works out! Thank you
$endgroup$
– Pernk Dernets
Mar 26 at 10:43
$begingroup$
Jmerry thank you so much for providing such an in depth answer. I understand the method now and i'm trying to follow along. I really appreciate your help. But how come $f(x+2 pi i ) =f(x) e^2 pi i a $ ? I am getting: $f(x+2 pi i ) = frace^axe^2 pi i1+e^xe^2 pi i $
$endgroup$
– Pernk Dernets
Mar 25 at 21:01
$begingroup$
Jmerry thank you so much for providing such an in depth answer. I understand the method now and i'm trying to follow along. I really appreciate your help. But how come $f(x+2 pi i ) =f(x) e^2 pi i a $ ? I am getting: $f(x+2 pi i ) = frace^axe^2 pi i1+e^xe^2 pi i $
$endgroup$
– Pernk Dernets
Mar 25 at 21:01
$begingroup$
That's not correct in the numerator - recall that the $+2pi i$ gets multiplied by $a$ too. In the denominator - what's $e^2pi i$?
$endgroup$
– jmerry
Mar 25 at 21:04
$begingroup$
That's not correct in the numerator - recall that the $+2pi i$ gets multiplied by $a$ too. In the denominator - what's $e^2pi i$?
$endgroup$
– jmerry
Mar 25 at 21:04
$begingroup$
Off course! $e^2 pi i$ is just $1$. And i see my mistake in the denominator. So with your help i can just find the residue, set it equal to the remaining two integrals, use the $f(x + 2 pi i)$ trick to rewrite one of the integral, such that it's equal to the original integral with a front fractor. And lastly isolate the original integral. It works out! Thank you
$endgroup$
– Pernk Dernets
Mar 26 at 10:43
$begingroup$
Off course! $e^2 pi i$ is just $1$. And i see my mistake in the denominator. So with your help i can just find the residue, set it equal to the remaining two integrals, use the $f(x + 2 pi i)$ trick to rewrite one of the integral, such that it's equal to the original integral with a front fractor. And lastly isolate the original integral. It works out! Thank you
$endgroup$
– Pernk Dernets
Mar 26 at 10:43
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
No, this is the right path for this problem. A circular arc would be much harder to deal with. Recall that there are infinitely many poles on the imaginary axis.
$endgroup$
– jmerry
Mar 25 at 19:48
$begingroup$
If you're interested in a different strategy, convert it to a Beta integral with $u=frac11+e^-x$.
$endgroup$
– J.G.
Mar 25 at 19:57