Let $X_n$ be the maximum score obtained after $n$ throws of a fair dice. Show that $(X_n)_ninmathbbN $ is a Markov Chain. Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Why is this infinite-state-space Markov chain positive recurrent?Which of the following processes are Markov chains?Show that a Markov Chain is ergodicIdentifying markov chainsis the largest number $X_n$ shown up to the nth roll a Markov chain?Let $X_n=a X_n-1+theta_n$. Show that $mathrmPleft( lim_nrightarrow infty X_n in left-infty,infty right right)=1.$Show directly that $left|Pi^n(x,cdot)-piright|_TV longrightarrow 0$ where $Pi$ is transition matrix of a Markov chain.Calculate the transition matrix of $X_n+1:= sum_i=0^X_ntheta_n^i:: mboxmod 5.$ where $theta_n^isim Bin(3,1/3)$ i.i.d.Find the invariant measure $pi=(pi_1,pi_2,pi_3)$ for a Markov Chain with transition matrix given.Prove this process is Markov chain

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Let $X_n$ be the maximum score obtained after $n$ throws of a fair dice. Show that $(X_n)_ninmathbbN $ is a Markov Chain.



Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Why is this infinite-state-space Markov chain positive recurrent?Which of the following processes are Markov chains?Show that a Markov Chain is ergodicIdentifying markov chainsis the largest number $X_n$ shown up to the nth roll a Markov chain?Let $X_n=a X_n-1+theta_n$. Show that $mathrmPleft( lim_nrightarrow infty X_n in left-infty,infty right right)=1.$Show directly that $left|Pi^n(x,cdot)-piright|_TV longrightarrow 0$ where $Pi$ is transition matrix of a Markov chain.Calculate the transition matrix of $X_n+1:= sum_i=0^X_ntheta_n^i:: mboxmod 5.$ where $theta_n^isim Bin(3,1/3)$ i.i.d.Find the invariant measure $pi=(pi_1,pi_2,pi_3)$ for a Markov Chain with transition matrix given.Prove this process is Markov chain










2












$begingroup$


Let $(X_n)_ninmathbbN $ be a sequence of randon variables defined by
$$X_n:=mboxmaximum score obtained after n mbox throws of a fair dice.$$



I need show that $(X_n)_ninmathbbN $ is a Markov Chain. In this sense, we have to show that
$$P(X_n+1=i_n+1|X_1=i_1,X_2=i_2,ldots,X_n=i_n)=P(X_n+1=i_n+1|X_n=i_n)tag1$$
I know that if we consider the random variable $Y_k$ which are the result of $k$th throw of our fair dice, then $(Y_k)_kinmathbbN$ is iid with uniform distribution over $left1,2,3,4,5,6right$, so, we have $X_n=maxleftY_1,ldots,Y_nright$. Furthermore, the cumulative distribution of $X_n$ is
$$F_X_n(k)=left{beginarrayll
0 & mathrmif: k<1 \
fraci^n6^n & mathrmif: ileq k <i+1 :: mathrmfor: i=1,2,3,4,5.\
1 & mathrmif:: kgeq 6
endarrayright.$$



Therefore, (1) is equivalent to
$$P(maxleftY_1,ldots,Y_n,Y_n+1right=i_n+1|Y_1=i_1,maxleftY_1,Y_2right=i_2,ldots,maxleftY_1,ldots,Y_nright=i_n)=P(maxleftY_1,ldots,Y_n,Y_n+1right=i_n+1|maxleftY_1,ldots,Y_nright=i_n)$$
I have not been able to prove this last, I need help in this matter.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$
















    2












    $begingroup$


    Let $(X_n)_ninmathbbN $ be a sequence of randon variables defined by
    $$X_n:=mboxmaximum score obtained after n mbox throws of a fair dice.$$



    I need show that $(X_n)_ninmathbbN $ is a Markov Chain. In this sense, we have to show that
    $$P(X_n+1=i_n+1|X_1=i_1,X_2=i_2,ldots,X_n=i_n)=P(X_n+1=i_n+1|X_n=i_n)tag1$$
    I know that if we consider the random variable $Y_k$ which are the result of $k$th throw of our fair dice, then $(Y_k)_kinmathbbN$ is iid with uniform distribution over $left1,2,3,4,5,6right$, so, we have $X_n=maxleftY_1,ldots,Y_nright$. Furthermore, the cumulative distribution of $X_n$ is
    $$F_X_n(k)=left{beginarrayll
    0 & mathrmif: k<1 \
    fraci^n6^n & mathrmif: ileq k <i+1 :: mathrmfor: i=1,2,3,4,5.\
    1 & mathrmif:: kgeq 6
    endarrayright.$$



    Therefore, (1) is equivalent to
    $$P(maxleftY_1,ldots,Y_n,Y_n+1right=i_n+1|Y_1=i_1,maxleftY_1,Y_2right=i_2,ldots,maxleftY_1,ldots,Y_nright=i_n)=P(maxleftY_1,ldots,Y_n,Y_n+1right=i_n+1|maxleftY_1,ldots,Y_nright=i_n)$$
    I have not been able to prove this last, I need help in this matter.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      2












      2








      2





      $begingroup$


      Let $(X_n)_ninmathbbN $ be a sequence of randon variables defined by
      $$X_n:=mboxmaximum score obtained after n mbox throws of a fair dice.$$



      I need show that $(X_n)_ninmathbbN $ is a Markov Chain. In this sense, we have to show that
      $$P(X_n+1=i_n+1|X_1=i_1,X_2=i_2,ldots,X_n=i_n)=P(X_n+1=i_n+1|X_n=i_n)tag1$$
      I know that if we consider the random variable $Y_k$ which are the result of $k$th throw of our fair dice, then $(Y_k)_kinmathbbN$ is iid with uniform distribution over $left1,2,3,4,5,6right$, so, we have $X_n=maxleftY_1,ldots,Y_nright$. Furthermore, the cumulative distribution of $X_n$ is
      $$F_X_n(k)=left{beginarrayll
      0 & mathrmif: k<1 \
      fraci^n6^n & mathrmif: ileq k <i+1 :: mathrmfor: i=1,2,3,4,5.\
      1 & mathrmif:: kgeq 6
      endarrayright.$$



      Therefore, (1) is equivalent to
      $$P(maxleftY_1,ldots,Y_n,Y_n+1right=i_n+1|Y_1=i_1,maxleftY_1,Y_2right=i_2,ldots,maxleftY_1,ldots,Y_nright=i_n)=P(maxleftY_1,ldots,Y_n,Y_n+1right=i_n+1|maxleftY_1,ldots,Y_nright=i_n)$$
      I have not been able to prove this last, I need help in this matter.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Let $(X_n)_ninmathbbN $ be a sequence of randon variables defined by
      $$X_n:=mboxmaximum score obtained after n mbox throws of a fair dice.$$



      I need show that $(X_n)_ninmathbbN $ is a Markov Chain. In this sense, we have to show that
      $$P(X_n+1=i_n+1|X_1=i_1,X_2=i_2,ldots,X_n=i_n)=P(X_n+1=i_n+1|X_n=i_n)tag1$$
      I know that if we consider the random variable $Y_k$ which are the result of $k$th throw of our fair dice, then $(Y_k)_kinmathbbN$ is iid with uniform distribution over $left1,2,3,4,5,6right$, so, we have $X_n=maxleftY_1,ldots,Y_nright$. Furthermore, the cumulative distribution of $X_n$ is
      $$F_X_n(k)=left{beginarrayll
      0 & mathrmif: k<1 \
      fraci^n6^n & mathrmif: ileq k <i+1 :: mathrmfor: i=1,2,3,4,5.\
      1 & mathrmif:: kgeq 6
      endarrayright.$$



      Therefore, (1) is equivalent to
      $$P(maxleftY_1,ldots,Y_n,Y_n+1right=i_n+1|Y_1=i_1,maxleftY_1,Y_2right=i_2,ldots,maxleftY_1,ldots,Y_nright=i_n)=P(maxleftY_1,ldots,Y_n,Y_n+1right=i_n+1|maxleftY_1,ldots,Y_nright=i_n)$$
      I have not been able to prove this last, I need help in this matter.







      stochastic-processes markov-chains markov-process






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Mar 8 '17 at 2:49









      David G. Stork

      12.2k41836




      12.2k41836










      asked Mar 8 '17 at 2:24









      Diego FonsecaDiego Fonseca

      1,384622




      1,384622




















          3 Answers
          3






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          1












          $begingroup$

          Here is the Markov transition graph for your problem, where the states are labeled by the current maximum and $0$ represents the initial state:



          enter image description here



          All you need do is calculate the probabilities for the transitions and see that the final state (the sole attractor) is (in probability) $6$. Each transition depends solely on the current state, not the sequence that led to the current state.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$




















            1












            $begingroup$

            Note that $$X_n+1=max Y_1,dots,Y_n+1 = max maxY_1,dots,Y_n,Y_n+1 = max X_n,Y_n+1.$$



            So $X_n+1$ only depends on $X_n$ and none of the $X_i$ for $i<n$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$




















              -1












              $begingroup$

              Markov Matrix for one-step transition probability would be



              beginbmatrix
              frac16 & frac16 & frac16 & frac16 & frac16 & frac16 \
              0 & frac26 & frac16 & frac16 & frac16 & frac16 \
              0 & 0 & frac36 & frac16 & frac16 & frac16 \
              0 & 0 & 0 & frac46 & frac16 & frac16 \
              0 & 0 & 0 & 0 & frac56 & frac16 \
              0 & 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 & 1
              endbmatrix



              The long term limiting probabilities would be as followed
              beginalign
              pi_6 &= 1 & pi_1 &= pi_2 = pi_3 = pi_4 = pi_5 = 0
              endalign






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$













                Your Answer








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                3 Answers
                3






                active

                oldest

                votes








                3 Answers
                3






                active

                oldest

                votes









                active

                oldest

                votes






                active

                oldest

                votes









                1












                $begingroup$

                Here is the Markov transition graph for your problem, where the states are labeled by the current maximum and $0$ represents the initial state:



                enter image description here



                All you need do is calculate the probabilities for the transitions and see that the final state (the sole attractor) is (in probability) $6$. Each transition depends solely on the current state, not the sequence that led to the current state.






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$

















                  1












                  $begingroup$

                  Here is the Markov transition graph for your problem, where the states are labeled by the current maximum and $0$ represents the initial state:



                  enter image description here



                  All you need do is calculate the probabilities for the transitions and see that the final state (the sole attractor) is (in probability) $6$. Each transition depends solely on the current state, not the sequence that led to the current state.






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$















                    1












                    1








                    1





                    $begingroup$

                    Here is the Markov transition graph for your problem, where the states are labeled by the current maximum and $0$ represents the initial state:



                    enter image description here



                    All you need do is calculate the probabilities for the transitions and see that the final state (the sole attractor) is (in probability) $6$. Each transition depends solely on the current state, not the sequence that led to the current state.






                    share|cite|improve this answer











                    $endgroup$



                    Here is the Markov transition graph for your problem, where the states are labeled by the current maximum and $0$ represents the initial state:



                    enter image description here



                    All you need do is calculate the probabilities for the transitions and see that the final state (the sole attractor) is (in probability) $6$. Each transition depends solely on the current state, not the sequence that led to the current state.







                    share|cite|improve this answer














                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer








                    edited Mar 8 '17 at 2:52

























                    answered Mar 8 '17 at 2:43









                    David G. StorkDavid G. Stork

                    12.2k41836




                    12.2k41836





















                        1












                        $begingroup$

                        Note that $$X_n+1=max Y_1,dots,Y_n+1 = max maxY_1,dots,Y_n,Y_n+1 = max X_n,Y_n+1.$$



                        So $X_n+1$ only depends on $X_n$ and none of the $X_i$ for $i<n$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$

















                          1












                          $begingroup$

                          Note that $$X_n+1=max Y_1,dots,Y_n+1 = max maxY_1,dots,Y_n,Y_n+1 = max X_n,Y_n+1.$$



                          So $X_n+1$ only depends on $X_n$ and none of the $X_i$ for $i<n$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$















                            1












                            1








                            1





                            $begingroup$

                            Note that $$X_n+1=max Y_1,dots,Y_n+1 = max maxY_1,dots,Y_n,Y_n+1 = max X_n,Y_n+1.$$



                            So $X_n+1$ only depends on $X_n$ and none of the $X_i$ for $i<n$.






                            share|cite|improve this answer









                            $endgroup$



                            Note that $$X_n+1=max Y_1,dots,Y_n+1 = max maxY_1,dots,Y_n,Y_n+1 = max X_n,Y_n+1.$$



                            So $X_n+1$ only depends on $X_n$ and none of the $X_i$ for $i<n$.







                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer










                            answered Mar 8 '17 at 2:43









                            Nathan H.Nathan H.

                            51428




                            51428





















                                -1












                                $begingroup$

                                Markov Matrix for one-step transition probability would be



                                beginbmatrix
                                frac16 & frac16 & frac16 & frac16 & frac16 & frac16 \
                                0 & frac26 & frac16 & frac16 & frac16 & frac16 \
                                0 & 0 & frac36 & frac16 & frac16 & frac16 \
                                0 & 0 & 0 & frac46 & frac16 & frac16 \
                                0 & 0 & 0 & 0 & frac56 & frac16 \
                                0 & 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 & 1
                                endbmatrix



                                The long term limiting probabilities would be as followed
                                beginalign
                                pi_6 &= 1 & pi_1 &= pi_2 = pi_3 = pi_4 = pi_5 = 0
                                endalign






                                share|cite|improve this answer











                                $endgroup$

















                                  -1












                                  $begingroup$

                                  Markov Matrix for one-step transition probability would be



                                  beginbmatrix
                                  frac16 & frac16 & frac16 & frac16 & frac16 & frac16 \
                                  0 & frac26 & frac16 & frac16 & frac16 & frac16 \
                                  0 & 0 & frac36 & frac16 & frac16 & frac16 \
                                  0 & 0 & 0 & frac46 & frac16 & frac16 \
                                  0 & 0 & 0 & 0 & frac56 & frac16 \
                                  0 & 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 & 1
                                  endbmatrix



                                  The long term limiting probabilities would be as followed
                                  beginalign
                                  pi_6 &= 1 & pi_1 &= pi_2 = pi_3 = pi_4 = pi_5 = 0
                                  endalign






                                  share|cite|improve this answer











                                  $endgroup$















                                    -1












                                    -1








                                    -1





                                    $begingroup$

                                    Markov Matrix for one-step transition probability would be



                                    beginbmatrix
                                    frac16 & frac16 & frac16 & frac16 & frac16 & frac16 \
                                    0 & frac26 & frac16 & frac16 & frac16 & frac16 \
                                    0 & 0 & frac36 & frac16 & frac16 & frac16 \
                                    0 & 0 & 0 & frac46 & frac16 & frac16 \
                                    0 & 0 & 0 & 0 & frac56 & frac16 \
                                    0 & 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 & 1
                                    endbmatrix



                                    The long term limiting probabilities would be as followed
                                    beginalign
                                    pi_6 &= 1 & pi_1 &= pi_2 = pi_3 = pi_4 = pi_5 = 0
                                    endalign






                                    share|cite|improve this answer











                                    $endgroup$



                                    Markov Matrix for one-step transition probability would be



                                    beginbmatrix
                                    frac16 & frac16 & frac16 & frac16 & frac16 & frac16 \
                                    0 & frac26 & frac16 & frac16 & frac16 & frac16 \
                                    0 & 0 & frac36 & frac16 & frac16 & frac16 \
                                    0 & 0 & 0 & frac46 & frac16 & frac16 \
                                    0 & 0 & 0 & 0 & frac56 & frac16 \
                                    0 & 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 & 1
                                    endbmatrix



                                    The long term limiting probabilities would be as followed
                                    beginalign
                                    pi_6 &= 1 & pi_1 &= pi_2 = pi_3 = pi_4 = pi_5 = 0
                                    endalign







                                    share|cite|improve this answer














                                    share|cite|improve this answer



                                    share|cite|improve this answer








                                    edited Mar 25 at 21:57









                                    Lee David Chung Lin

                                    4,50841342




                                    4,50841342










                                    answered Mar 25 at 20:05









                                    Vatsal GandhiVatsal Gandhi

                                    1




                                    1



























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