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How do we go from $d(x,x') le d(x,y) +d(y,y') +d(y',x')$ to $d(x,x') ge d(y,y') -d(x,y)-d(y',x')$?



Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)How to prove that there is a unique geodisic segment that is pependicular to two other geodesics?Spacing nodes by moving the shortest distance possible.closure of the unit ballFind length of a side from given mesurementsIs there a metric on $X = (-1,1)$ such that the completion of $X$ is just one additional point?Show that if $(A,d)$ is complete then $A$ is closed.How to solve the following mixed exponential inequality? (from Spivak's Calculus)Finding the distance of a point from a lineSolving an inequality with multiple casesHow do you find $x$ such as $y leq sqrt2x-x^2$?










0












$begingroup$



How do we go from $d(x,x') le d(x,y) +d(y,y') +d(y',x')$ to $d(x,x') ge d(y,y') -d(x,y)-d(y',x')$?




I am not sure how to proceed here.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$
















    0












    $begingroup$



    How do we go from $d(x,x') le d(x,y) +d(y,y') +d(y',x')$ to $d(x,x') ge d(y,y') -d(x,y)-d(y',x')$?




    I am not sure how to proceed here.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$














      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$



      How do we go from $d(x,x') le d(x,y) +d(y,y') +d(y',x')$ to $d(x,x') ge d(y,y') -d(x,y)-d(y',x')$?




      I am not sure how to proceed here.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$





      How do we go from $d(x,x') le d(x,y) +d(y,y') +d(y',x')$ to $d(x,x') ge d(y,y') -d(x,y)-d(y',x')$?




      I am not sure how to proceed here.







      geometry inequality metric-spaces






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Mar 25 at 20:10









      Al JebrAl Jebr

      4,42543479




      4,42543479




















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          3












          $begingroup$

          Subtract $d(x,y)$ and $d(y',x')$ from both sides of your original inequality, and then relabel all $x,x'$ as $y,y'$ and vice versa.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            That procedure gets $d(x,,x^prime)ge d(y,,y^prime)-d(y,,x)-d(x^prime,,y^prime)$, so we also need to use $d(a,,b)=d(b,,a)$, which no doubt the original exercise allows us to assume.
            $endgroup$
            – J.G.
            Mar 25 at 20:17











          • $begingroup$
            Right! I had taken the symmetry as a given, assuming this is in the context of a metric space. I agree that warranted clarification, as that context was not explicitly stated.
            $endgroup$
            – jawheele
            Mar 25 at 20:20










          • $begingroup$
            @jawheele What do you mean relabel all? How can we just relabel things?
            $endgroup$
            – Al Jebr
            Mar 25 at 20:22











          • $begingroup$
            I mean replace $x$ by $y$, $x'$ by $y'$, $y$ by $x$, and $y'$ by $x'$. Assuming your first inequality is supposed to hold for all choices of $x,x',y,y'$ in whatever set you're working in, this is valid to do (you're just applying the first inequality to a different combination of points). If it makes the validity clearer, you might make the substitutions before the subtractions.
            $endgroup$
            – jawheele
            Mar 25 at 20:25











          • $begingroup$
            @jawheele Thanks. It did turn out to be clearer when I made the substitutions first. One could also start by considering the triangle inequality starting with $d(y,y')$.
            $endgroup$
            – Al Jebr
            Mar 31 at 22:18











          Your Answer








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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          3












          $begingroup$

          Subtract $d(x,y)$ and $d(y',x')$ from both sides of your original inequality, and then relabel all $x,x'$ as $y,y'$ and vice versa.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            That procedure gets $d(x,,x^prime)ge d(y,,y^prime)-d(y,,x)-d(x^prime,,y^prime)$, so we also need to use $d(a,,b)=d(b,,a)$, which no doubt the original exercise allows us to assume.
            $endgroup$
            – J.G.
            Mar 25 at 20:17











          • $begingroup$
            Right! I had taken the symmetry as a given, assuming this is in the context of a metric space. I agree that warranted clarification, as that context was not explicitly stated.
            $endgroup$
            – jawheele
            Mar 25 at 20:20










          • $begingroup$
            @jawheele What do you mean relabel all? How can we just relabel things?
            $endgroup$
            – Al Jebr
            Mar 25 at 20:22











          • $begingroup$
            I mean replace $x$ by $y$, $x'$ by $y'$, $y$ by $x$, and $y'$ by $x'$. Assuming your first inequality is supposed to hold for all choices of $x,x',y,y'$ in whatever set you're working in, this is valid to do (you're just applying the first inequality to a different combination of points). If it makes the validity clearer, you might make the substitutions before the subtractions.
            $endgroup$
            – jawheele
            Mar 25 at 20:25











          • $begingroup$
            @jawheele Thanks. It did turn out to be clearer when I made the substitutions first. One could also start by considering the triangle inequality starting with $d(y,y')$.
            $endgroup$
            – Al Jebr
            Mar 31 at 22:18















          3












          $begingroup$

          Subtract $d(x,y)$ and $d(y',x')$ from both sides of your original inequality, and then relabel all $x,x'$ as $y,y'$ and vice versa.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            That procedure gets $d(x,,x^prime)ge d(y,,y^prime)-d(y,,x)-d(x^prime,,y^prime)$, so we also need to use $d(a,,b)=d(b,,a)$, which no doubt the original exercise allows us to assume.
            $endgroup$
            – J.G.
            Mar 25 at 20:17











          • $begingroup$
            Right! I had taken the symmetry as a given, assuming this is in the context of a metric space. I agree that warranted clarification, as that context was not explicitly stated.
            $endgroup$
            – jawheele
            Mar 25 at 20:20










          • $begingroup$
            @jawheele What do you mean relabel all? How can we just relabel things?
            $endgroup$
            – Al Jebr
            Mar 25 at 20:22











          • $begingroup$
            I mean replace $x$ by $y$, $x'$ by $y'$, $y$ by $x$, and $y'$ by $x'$. Assuming your first inequality is supposed to hold for all choices of $x,x',y,y'$ in whatever set you're working in, this is valid to do (you're just applying the first inequality to a different combination of points). If it makes the validity clearer, you might make the substitutions before the subtractions.
            $endgroup$
            – jawheele
            Mar 25 at 20:25











          • $begingroup$
            @jawheele Thanks. It did turn out to be clearer when I made the substitutions first. One could also start by considering the triangle inequality starting with $d(y,y')$.
            $endgroup$
            – Al Jebr
            Mar 31 at 22:18













          3












          3








          3





          $begingroup$

          Subtract $d(x,y)$ and $d(y',x')$ from both sides of your original inequality, and then relabel all $x,x'$ as $y,y'$ and vice versa.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          Subtract $d(x,y)$ and $d(y',x')$ from both sides of your original inequality, and then relabel all $x,x'$ as $y,y'$ and vice versa.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Mar 25 at 20:21

























          answered Mar 25 at 20:14









          jawheelejawheele

          51639




          51639







          • 1




            $begingroup$
            That procedure gets $d(x,,x^prime)ge d(y,,y^prime)-d(y,,x)-d(x^prime,,y^prime)$, so we also need to use $d(a,,b)=d(b,,a)$, which no doubt the original exercise allows us to assume.
            $endgroup$
            – J.G.
            Mar 25 at 20:17











          • $begingroup$
            Right! I had taken the symmetry as a given, assuming this is in the context of a metric space. I agree that warranted clarification, as that context was not explicitly stated.
            $endgroup$
            – jawheele
            Mar 25 at 20:20










          • $begingroup$
            @jawheele What do you mean relabel all? How can we just relabel things?
            $endgroup$
            – Al Jebr
            Mar 25 at 20:22











          • $begingroup$
            I mean replace $x$ by $y$, $x'$ by $y'$, $y$ by $x$, and $y'$ by $x'$. Assuming your first inequality is supposed to hold for all choices of $x,x',y,y'$ in whatever set you're working in, this is valid to do (you're just applying the first inequality to a different combination of points). If it makes the validity clearer, you might make the substitutions before the subtractions.
            $endgroup$
            – jawheele
            Mar 25 at 20:25











          • $begingroup$
            @jawheele Thanks. It did turn out to be clearer when I made the substitutions first. One could also start by considering the triangle inequality starting with $d(y,y')$.
            $endgroup$
            – Al Jebr
            Mar 31 at 22:18












          • 1




            $begingroup$
            That procedure gets $d(x,,x^prime)ge d(y,,y^prime)-d(y,,x)-d(x^prime,,y^prime)$, so we also need to use $d(a,,b)=d(b,,a)$, which no doubt the original exercise allows us to assume.
            $endgroup$
            – J.G.
            Mar 25 at 20:17











          • $begingroup$
            Right! I had taken the symmetry as a given, assuming this is in the context of a metric space. I agree that warranted clarification, as that context was not explicitly stated.
            $endgroup$
            – jawheele
            Mar 25 at 20:20










          • $begingroup$
            @jawheele What do you mean relabel all? How can we just relabel things?
            $endgroup$
            – Al Jebr
            Mar 25 at 20:22











          • $begingroup$
            I mean replace $x$ by $y$, $x'$ by $y'$, $y$ by $x$, and $y'$ by $x'$. Assuming your first inequality is supposed to hold for all choices of $x,x',y,y'$ in whatever set you're working in, this is valid to do (you're just applying the first inequality to a different combination of points). If it makes the validity clearer, you might make the substitutions before the subtractions.
            $endgroup$
            – jawheele
            Mar 25 at 20:25











          • $begingroup$
            @jawheele Thanks. It did turn out to be clearer when I made the substitutions first. One could also start by considering the triangle inequality starting with $d(y,y')$.
            $endgroup$
            – Al Jebr
            Mar 31 at 22:18







          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          That procedure gets $d(x,,x^prime)ge d(y,,y^prime)-d(y,,x)-d(x^prime,,y^prime)$, so we also need to use $d(a,,b)=d(b,,a)$, which no doubt the original exercise allows us to assume.
          $endgroup$
          – J.G.
          Mar 25 at 20:17





          $begingroup$
          That procedure gets $d(x,,x^prime)ge d(y,,y^prime)-d(y,,x)-d(x^prime,,y^prime)$, so we also need to use $d(a,,b)=d(b,,a)$, which no doubt the original exercise allows us to assume.
          $endgroup$
          – J.G.
          Mar 25 at 20:17













          $begingroup$
          Right! I had taken the symmetry as a given, assuming this is in the context of a metric space. I agree that warranted clarification, as that context was not explicitly stated.
          $endgroup$
          – jawheele
          Mar 25 at 20:20




          $begingroup$
          Right! I had taken the symmetry as a given, assuming this is in the context of a metric space. I agree that warranted clarification, as that context was not explicitly stated.
          $endgroup$
          – jawheele
          Mar 25 at 20:20












          $begingroup$
          @jawheele What do you mean relabel all? How can we just relabel things?
          $endgroup$
          – Al Jebr
          Mar 25 at 20:22





          $begingroup$
          @jawheele What do you mean relabel all? How can we just relabel things?
          $endgroup$
          – Al Jebr
          Mar 25 at 20:22













          $begingroup$
          I mean replace $x$ by $y$, $x'$ by $y'$, $y$ by $x$, and $y'$ by $x'$. Assuming your first inequality is supposed to hold for all choices of $x,x',y,y'$ in whatever set you're working in, this is valid to do (you're just applying the first inequality to a different combination of points). If it makes the validity clearer, you might make the substitutions before the subtractions.
          $endgroup$
          – jawheele
          Mar 25 at 20:25





          $begingroup$
          I mean replace $x$ by $y$, $x'$ by $y'$, $y$ by $x$, and $y'$ by $x'$. Assuming your first inequality is supposed to hold for all choices of $x,x',y,y'$ in whatever set you're working in, this is valid to do (you're just applying the first inequality to a different combination of points). If it makes the validity clearer, you might make the substitutions before the subtractions.
          $endgroup$
          – jawheele
          Mar 25 at 20:25













          $begingroup$
          @jawheele Thanks. It did turn out to be clearer when I made the substitutions first. One could also start by considering the triangle inequality starting with $d(y,y')$.
          $endgroup$
          – Al Jebr
          Mar 31 at 22:18




          $begingroup$
          @jawheele Thanks. It did turn out to be clearer when I made the substitutions first. One could also start by considering the triangle inequality starting with $d(y,y')$.
          $endgroup$
          – Al Jebr
          Mar 31 at 22:18

















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