Help with Hilbert Calculus The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InWhy is this true? $(exists x)(P(x) Rightarrow (forall y) P(y))$Why not ban nested quantifiers over the same variable?Proof of Drinker paradoxHow to show that $vdash (forall x beta to alpha) leftrightarrow exists x (beta to alpha)$?Formal “Hilbert-Style” Proof of a relatively simple statementHelp me prove this principle with other Hilbert system principlesHelp needed with axiomatic deductionsPredicate calculus (formal deduction vs resolution)Hilbert-calculus, formal proofHilbert Calculus, Formal Proof ConverseWhich theories are consistent?Associativity of 'or' and 'and' in Hilbert Ackerman SystemRelationship between sequent calculus and Hilbert systems, natural deduction, etcHilbert Calculus Derivation

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Help with Hilbert Calculus



The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InWhy is this true? $(exists x)(P(x) Rightarrow (forall y) P(y))$Why not ban nested quantifiers over the same variable?Proof of Drinker paradoxHow to show that $vdash (forall x beta to alpha) leftrightarrow exists x (beta to alpha)$?Formal “Hilbert-Style” Proof of a relatively simple statementHelp me prove this principle with other Hilbert system principlesHelp needed with axiomatic deductionsPredicate calculus (formal deduction vs resolution)Hilbert-calculus, formal proofHilbert Calculus, Formal Proof ConverseWhich theories are consistent?Associativity of 'or' and 'and' in Hilbert Ackerman SystemRelationship between sequent calculus and Hilbert systems, natural deduction, etcHilbert Calculus Derivation










1












$begingroup$


Can u help show that this is a theorem? $ (∀x_1 (∃x_2 (p(x_1, x_2) ⇒ (∀x_2 p(x_1, x_2)))));$



I was trying to use the deduction theorem but i hit a wall. Can u help me out using derivatives and Hilbert Calculus?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    It is good that you used parenthesis to disambiguate the expression, but they way you placed them, your second $x_2$ is over writing the first $x_2$, I think that is might be a typographical error.
    $endgroup$
    – DanielV
    Mar 23 at 18:12











  • $begingroup$
    @DanielV: No, that's how it's supposed to go. The body of the $forall x_1$ is an instance of the Drinker paradox.
    $endgroup$
    – Henning Makholm
    Mar 23 at 18:14






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @HenningMakholm It still should be $forall x_3(p(x_1,,x_3))$ (say), though.
    $endgroup$
    – J.G.
    Mar 23 at 18:18






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    See the post Proof of Drinker paradox as well as the post Why is this true? (∃x)(P(x)⇒(∀y)P(y))
    $endgroup$
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Mar 23 at 18:29







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @J.G.: You could also write that. But most formalizations of first-order logic do allow a quantifier to re-bind a variable that is already bound by an enclosing quantifier -- for reasons discussed in this question.
    $endgroup$
    – Henning Makholm
    Mar 23 at 18:30
















1












$begingroup$


Can u help show that this is a theorem? $ (∀x_1 (∃x_2 (p(x_1, x_2) ⇒ (∀x_2 p(x_1, x_2)))));$



I was trying to use the deduction theorem but i hit a wall. Can u help me out using derivatives and Hilbert Calculus?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    It is good that you used parenthesis to disambiguate the expression, but they way you placed them, your second $x_2$ is over writing the first $x_2$, I think that is might be a typographical error.
    $endgroup$
    – DanielV
    Mar 23 at 18:12











  • $begingroup$
    @DanielV: No, that's how it's supposed to go. The body of the $forall x_1$ is an instance of the Drinker paradox.
    $endgroup$
    – Henning Makholm
    Mar 23 at 18:14






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @HenningMakholm It still should be $forall x_3(p(x_1,,x_3))$ (say), though.
    $endgroup$
    – J.G.
    Mar 23 at 18:18






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    See the post Proof of Drinker paradox as well as the post Why is this true? (∃x)(P(x)⇒(∀y)P(y))
    $endgroup$
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Mar 23 at 18:29







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @J.G.: You could also write that. But most formalizations of first-order logic do allow a quantifier to re-bind a variable that is already bound by an enclosing quantifier -- for reasons discussed in this question.
    $endgroup$
    – Henning Makholm
    Mar 23 at 18:30














1












1








1





$begingroup$


Can u help show that this is a theorem? $ (∀x_1 (∃x_2 (p(x_1, x_2) ⇒ (∀x_2 p(x_1, x_2)))));$



I was trying to use the deduction theorem but i hit a wall. Can u help me out using derivatives and Hilbert Calculus?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Can u help show that this is a theorem? $ (∀x_1 (∃x_2 (p(x_1, x_2) ⇒ (∀x_2 p(x_1, x_2)))));$



I was trying to use the deduction theorem but i hit a wall. Can u help me out using derivatives and Hilbert Calculus?







logic first-order-logic predicate-logic hilbert-calculus






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Mar 24 at 14:26









Mauro ALLEGRANZA

67.8k449117




67.8k449117










asked Mar 23 at 17:38









Pedro SantosPedro Santos

17010




17010











  • $begingroup$
    It is good that you used parenthesis to disambiguate the expression, but they way you placed them, your second $x_2$ is over writing the first $x_2$, I think that is might be a typographical error.
    $endgroup$
    – DanielV
    Mar 23 at 18:12











  • $begingroup$
    @DanielV: No, that's how it's supposed to go. The body of the $forall x_1$ is an instance of the Drinker paradox.
    $endgroup$
    – Henning Makholm
    Mar 23 at 18:14






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @HenningMakholm It still should be $forall x_3(p(x_1,,x_3))$ (say), though.
    $endgroup$
    – J.G.
    Mar 23 at 18:18






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    See the post Proof of Drinker paradox as well as the post Why is this true? (∃x)(P(x)⇒(∀y)P(y))
    $endgroup$
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Mar 23 at 18:29







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @J.G.: You could also write that. But most formalizations of first-order logic do allow a quantifier to re-bind a variable that is already bound by an enclosing quantifier -- for reasons discussed in this question.
    $endgroup$
    – Henning Makholm
    Mar 23 at 18:30

















  • $begingroup$
    It is good that you used parenthesis to disambiguate the expression, but they way you placed them, your second $x_2$ is over writing the first $x_2$, I think that is might be a typographical error.
    $endgroup$
    – DanielV
    Mar 23 at 18:12











  • $begingroup$
    @DanielV: No, that's how it's supposed to go. The body of the $forall x_1$ is an instance of the Drinker paradox.
    $endgroup$
    – Henning Makholm
    Mar 23 at 18:14






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @HenningMakholm It still should be $forall x_3(p(x_1,,x_3))$ (say), though.
    $endgroup$
    – J.G.
    Mar 23 at 18:18






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    See the post Proof of Drinker paradox as well as the post Why is this true? (∃x)(P(x)⇒(∀y)P(y))
    $endgroup$
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Mar 23 at 18:29







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @J.G.: You could also write that. But most formalizations of first-order logic do allow a quantifier to re-bind a variable that is already bound by an enclosing quantifier -- for reasons discussed in this question.
    $endgroup$
    – Henning Makholm
    Mar 23 at 18:30
















$begingroup$
It is good that you used parenthesis to disambiguate the expression, but they way you placed them, your second $x_2$ is over writing the first $x_2$, I think that is might be a typographical error.
$endgroup$
– DanielV
Mar 23 at 18:12





$begingroup$
It is good that you used parenthesis to disambiguate the expression, but they way you placed them, your second $x_2$ is over writing the first $x_2$, I think that is might be a typographical error.
$endgroup$
– DanielV
Mar 23 at 18:12













$begingroup$
@DanielV: No, that's how it's supposed to go. The body of the $forall x_1$ is an instance of the Drinker paradox.
$endgroup$
– Henning Makholm
Mar 23 at 18:14




$begingroup$
@DanielV: No, that's how it's supposed to go. The body of the $forall x_1$ is an instance of the Drinker paradox.
$endgroup$
– Henning Makholm
Mar 23 at 18:14




1




1




$begingroup$
@HenningMakholm It still should be $forall x_3(p(x_1,,x_3))$ (say), though.
$endgroup$
– J.G.
Mar 23 at 18:18




$begingroup$
@HenningMakholm It still should be $forall x_3(p(x_1,,x_3))$ (say), though.
$endgroup$
– J.G.
Mar 23 at 18:18




1




1




$begingroup$
See the post Proof of Drinker paradox as well as the post Why is this true? (∃x)(P(x)⇒(∀y)P(y))
$endgroup$
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
Mar 23 at 18:29





$begingroup$
See the post Proof of Drinker paradox as well as the post Why is this true? (∃x)(P(x)⇒(∀y)P(y))
$endgroup$
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
Mar 23 at 18:29





1




1




$begingroup$
@J.G.: You could also write that. But most formalizations of first-order logic do allow a quantifier to re-bind a variable that is already bound by an enclosing quantifier -- for reasons discussed in this question.
$endgroup$
– Henning Makholm
Mar 23 at 18:30





$begingroup$
@J.G.: You could also write that. But most formalizations of first-order logic do allow a quantifier to re-bind a variable that is already bound by an enclosing quantifier -- for reasons discussed in this question.
$endgroup$
– Henning Makholm
Mar 23 at 18:30











2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

"English" answer:



Fix any $x_1,,x_2$. If $p(x_1,,x_2)$ is false, the required implication is vacuously true. If $x_2$ cannot be chosen so that $p(x_1,,x_2)$ is false, our choice of $x_1$ has obtained $forall x_2 (p(x_1,,x_2))$, so again the implication succeeds.



HC answer:



$$exists x_2(neg p(x_1,,x_2))implies(p(x_1,,x_2)implies forall x_3 (p(x_1,,x_3)))$$
$$notexists x_2(neg p(x_1,,x_2))impliesforall x_3(p(x_1,,x_3)),,implies(p(x_1,,x_2)impliesforall x_3(p(x_1,,x_3)))$$
Then use $(qimplies r)land (neg qimplies r)implies r$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Yeah Thanks , but i was trying to do it using a sequece of derivatives with hilbert calculus.
    $endgroup$
    – Pedro Santos
    Mar 23 at 18:18










  • $begingroup$
    @PedroSantos I hope my edit is a little bit more useful.
    $endgroup$
    – J.G.
    Mar 23 at 18:42


















0












$begingroup$

Hint



In this post you can find an Hilbert-style proof of :




$⊢(∀xβ → α) ↔ ∃x(β → α)$, provided that $x$ is not free in $alpha$.




We have to consider :




$∀x_2p(x_1,x_2) to ∀x_2p(x_1,x_2)$;




it is an instance of the propositional tautology : $vdash A to A$, and thus is a theorem.



Now we apply the equivalence above to it, due to the fact that $x_2$ is not free in $∀x_2p(x_1,x_2)$ to get :





$vdash ∃x_2 (p(x_1,x_2) to ∀x_2p(x_1,x_2))$.





The last step is obtained with Generalization:





$vdash ∀x_1 ∃x_2 (p(x_1,x_2) to ∀x_2p(x_1,x_2))$.








share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    1












    $begingroup$

    "English" answer:



    Fix any $x_1,,x_2$. If $p(x_1,,x_2)$ is false, the required implication is vacuously true. If $x_2$ cannot be chosen so that $p(x_1,,x_2)$ is false, our choice of $x_1$ has obtained $forall x_2 (p(x_1,,x_2))$, so again the implication succeeds.



    HC answer:



    $$exists x_2(neg p(x_1,,x_2))implies(p(x_1,,x_2)implies forall x_3 (p(x_1,,x_3)))$$
    $$notexists x_2(neg p(x_1,,x_2))impliesforall x_3(p(x_1,,x_3)),,implies(p(x_1,,x_2)impliesforall x_3(p(x_1,,x_3)))$$
    Then use $(qimplies r)land (neg qimplies r)implies r$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      Yeah Thanks , but i was trying to do it using a sequece of derivatives with hilbert calculus.
      $endgroup$
      – Pedro Santos
      Mar 23 at 18:18










    • $begingroup$
      @PedroSantos I hope my edit is a little bit more useful.
      $endgroup$
      – J.G.
      Mar 23 at 18:42















    1












    $begingroup$

    "English" answer:



    Fix any $x_1,,x_2$. If $p(x_1,,x_2)$ is false, the required implication is vacuously true. If $x_2$ cannot be chosen so that $p(x_1,,x_2)$ is false, our choice of $x_1$ has obtained $forall x_2 (p(x_1,,x_2))$, so again the implication succeeds.



    HC answer:



    $$exists x_2(neg p(x_1,,x_2))implies(p(x_1,,x_2)implies forall x_3 (p(x_1,,x_3)))$$
    $$notexists x_2(neg p(x_1,,x_2))impliesforall x_3(p(x_1,,x_3)),,implies(p(x_1,,x_2)impliesforall x_3(p(x_1,,x_3)))$$
    Then use $(qimplies r)land (neg qimplies r)implies r$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      Yeah Thanks , but i was trying to do it using a sequece of derivatives with hilbert calculus.
      $endgroup$
      – Pedro Santos
      Mar 23 at 18:18










    • $begingroup$
      @PedroSantos I hope my edit is a little bit more useful.
      $endgroup$
      – J.G.
      Mar 23 at 18:42













    1












    1








    1





    $begingroup$

    "English" answer:



    Fix any $x_1,,x_2$. If $p(x_1,,x_2)$ is false, the required implication is vacuously true. If $x_2$ cannot be chosen so that $p(x_1,,x_2)$ is false, our choice of $x_1$ has obtained $forall x_2 (p(x_1,,x_2))$, so again the implication succeeds.



    HC answer:



    $$exists x_2(neg p(x_1,,x_2))implies(p(x_1,,x_2)implies forall x_3 (p(x_1,,x_3)))$$
    $$notexists x_2(neg p(x_1,,x_2))impliesforall x_3(p(x_1,,x_3)),,implies(p(x_1,,x_2)impliesforall x_3(p(x_1,,x_3)))$$
    Then use $(qimplies r)land (neg qimplies r)implies r$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$



    "English" answer:



    Fix any $x_1,,x_2$. If $p(x_1,,x_2)$ is false, the required implication is vacuously true. If $x_2$ cannot be chosen so that $p(x_1,,x_2)$ is false, our choice of $x_1$ has obtained $forall x_2 (p(x_1,,x_2))$, so again the implication succeeds.



    HC answer:



    $$exists x_2(neg p(x_1,,x_2))implies(p(x_1,,x_2)implies forall x_3 (p(x_1,,x_3)))$$
    $$notexists x_2(neg p(x_1,,x_2))impliesforall x_3(p(x_1,,x_3)),,implies(p(x_1,,x_2)impliesforall x_3(p(x_1,,x_3)))$$
    Then use $(qimplies r)land (neg qimplies r)implies r$.







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Mar 23 at 18:42

























    answered Mar 23 at 17:46









    J.G.J.G.

    33.2k23252




    33.2k23252











    • $begingroup$
      Yeah Thanks , but i was trying to do it using a sequece of derivatives with hilbert calculus.
      $endgroup$
      – Pedro Santos
      Mar 23 at 18:18










    • $begingroup$
      @PedroSantos I hope my edit is a little bit more useful.
      $endgroup$
      – J.G.
      Mar 23 at 18:42
















    • $begingroup$
      Yeah Thanks , but i was trying to do it using a sequece of derivatives with hilbert calculus.
      $endgroup$
      – Pedro Santos
      Mar 23 at 18:18










    • $begingroup$
      @PedroSantos I hope my edit is a little bit more useful.
      $endgroup$
      – J.G.
      Mar 23 at 18:42















    $begingroup$
    Yeah Thanks , but i was trying to do it using a sequece of derivatives with hilbert calculus.
    $endgroup$
    – Pedro Santos
    Mar 23 at 18:18




    $begingroup$
    Yeah Thanks , but i was trying to do it using a sequece of derivatives with hilbert calculus.
    $endgroup$
    – Pedro Santos
    Mar 23 at 18:18












    $begingroup$
    @PedroSantos I hope my edit is a little bit more useful.
    $endgroup$
    – J.G.
    Mar 23 at 18:42




    $begingroup$
    @PedroSantos I hope my edit is a little bit more useful.
    $endgroup$
    – J.G.
    Mar 23 at 18:42











    0












    $begingroup$

    Hint



    In this post you can find an Hilbert-style proof of :




    $⊢(∀xβ → α) ↔ ∃x(β → α)$, provided that $x$ is not free in $alpha$.




    We have to consider :




    $∀x_2p(x_1,x_2) to ∀x_2p(x_1,x_2)$;




    it is an instance of the propositional tautology : $vdash A to A$, and thus is a theorem.



    Now we apply the equivalence above to it, due to the fact that $x_2$ is not free in $∀x_2p(x_1,x_2)$ to get :





    $vdash ∃x_2 (p(x_1,x_2) to ∀x_2p(x_1,x_2))$.





    The last step is obtained with Generalization:





    $vdash ∀x_1 ∃x_2 (p(x_1,x_2) to ∀x_2p(x_1,x_2))$.








    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$

















      0












      $begingroup$

      Hint



      In this post you can find an Hilbert-style proof of :




      $⊢(∀xβ → α) ↔ ∃x(β → α)$, provided that $x$ is not free in $alpha$.




      We have to consider :




      $∀x_2p(x_1,x_2) to ∀x_2p(x_1,x_2)$;




      it is an instance of the propositional tautology : $vdash A to A$, and thus is a theorem.



      Now we apply the equivalence above to it, due to the fact that $x_2$ is not free in $∀x_2p(x_1,x_2)$ to get :





      $vdash ∃x_2 (p(x_1,x_2) to ∀x_2p(x_1,x_2))$.





      The last step is obtained with Generalization:





      $vdash ∀x_1 ∃x_2 (p(x_1,x_2) to ∀x_2p(x_1,x_2))$.








      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        Hint



        In this post you can find an Hilbert-style proof of :




        $⊢(∀xβ → α) ↔ ∃x(β → α)$, provided that $x$ is not free in $alpha$.




        We have to consider :




        $∀x_2p(x_1,x_2) to ∀x_2p(x_1,x_2)$;




        it is an instance of the propositional tautology : $vdash A to A$, and thus is a theorem.



        Now we apply the equivalence above to it, due to the fact that $x_2$ is not free in $∀x_2p(x_1,x_2)$ to get :





        $vdash ∃x_2 (p(x_1,x_2) to ∀x_2p(x_1,x_2))$.





        The last step is obtained with Generalization:





        $vdash ∀x_1 ∃x_2 (p(x_1,x_2) to ∀x_2p(x_1,x_2))$.








        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Hint



        In this post you can find an Hilbert-style proof of :




        $⊢(∀xβ → α) ↔ ∃x(β → α)$, provided that $x$ is not free in $alpha$.




        We have to consider :




        $∀x_2p(x_1,x_2) to ∀x_2p(x_1,x_2)$;




        it is an instance of the propositional tautology : $vdash A to A$, and thus is a theorem.



        Now we apply the equivalence above to it, due to the fact that $x_2$ is not free in $∀x_2p(x_1,x_2)$ to get :





        $vdash ∃x_2 (p(x_1,x_2) to ∀x_2p(x_1,x_2))$.





        The last step is obtained with Generalization:





        $vdash ∀x_1 ∃x_2 (p(x_1,x_2) to ∀x_2p(x_1,x_2))$.









        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Mar 24 at 14:26









        Mauro ALLEGRANZAMauro ALLEGRANZA

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