Diameters, distances and contraction mappings on a subset of $C_mathbbR[0,1]$ The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InA question about fixed points and non-expansive mapShow that $T:,c_0to c_0;;$, $xmapsto T(x)=(1,x_1,x_2,cdots),$ has no fixed pointsContinuous mapping between $X$ and $C([0,1])$sequence of continuous linear operators on banach spacesa non-decreasing sequence of functions with bounded L^p-norm is a Cauchy sequence in L^p spaceShowing that $C^1[0,1]$ is a Banach space with the $||f||=||f||_infty + ||f^prime||_infty$ norm.Is there a $fin C[0,1]$ such that $f(x)=frac12 sin (f(1-x))$Showing any bounded sequence in Holder space $C^1/2$ has a convergent subsequence in Holder space $C^1/3.$Compact subset of $C[0,1]$Why do uniformly continuous functions form a Banach space (with the sup norm)?Counterexample Banach-SteinhausConvergence in a norm vs convergence in a strong sense

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Diameters, distances and contraction mappings on a subset of $C_mathbbR[0,1]$



The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InA question about fixed points and non-expansive mapShow that $T:,c_0to c_0;;$, $xmapsto T(x)=(1,x_1,x_2,cdots),$ has no fixed pointsContinuous mapping between $X$ and $C([0,1])$sequence of continuous linear operators on banach spacesa non-decreasing sequence of functions with bounded L^p-norm is a Cauchy sequence in L^p spaceShowing that $C^1[0,1]$ is a Banach space with the $||f||=||f||_infty + ||f^prime||_infty$ norm.Is there a $fin C[0,1]$ such that $f(x)=frac12 sin (f(1-x))$Showing any bounded sequence in Holder space $C^1/2$ has a convergent subsequence in Holder space $C^1/3.$Compact subset of $C[0,1]$Why do uniformly continuous functions form a Banach space (with the sup norm)?Counterexample Banach-SteinhausConvergence in a norm vs convergence in a strong sense










2












$begingroup$


Let $$M=fin C_mathbbR([0,1]): f(0)=0le f(t)le f(1)=1,text for tin [0,1]$$ where $C_mathbbR([0,1])=f:[0,1]to mathbbR:ftext is continuous on [0,1]$ is Banach space with norm $|f|_infty=sup $ . Prove



(a) $M$ is closed subset of $C_mathbbR([0,1]).$



(b) $delta(f, M)=delta(M), $ where $f(t)=t$.



(c) $delta(f_n, M)=delta(M), $ where $f_n(t)=t^n, n=2,3,...$.



(d) Fix $f_0in M$ . Define $T_n:Mto M$ by $T_n(f)=frac(n-1)T(f)n+fracf_0n, nin mathbbN$.Then $T_n$ is a contraction mapping



(e) if $g_nin M$ is a fixed point of $T_n$ then $lim_nto infty|g_n-T(g_n)|=0$



Here $delta(M)= dim M=sup:x,yin M$ and



$delta (x,M)=sup x-y$



i am trying to prove (a)



for proving (a)



let $x_n$ be a sequence in $M$ such that $x_nto x$



we have to prove that $xin M$



so consider $|x_n-x|_infty=sup $



since $x)nto x$ so $|x_n-x|<epsilon $ this implies $|x_n(t)-x(t)|<epsilon$



from i here how to prove $xin M$



and for proving (e)



since $g_nin M$ is a fixed of $T_n$ so $T_n(g_n)=g_n$



so $lim_nto infty|g_n-T(g_n)|=lim_nto infty|T_n(g_n)-T(g_n)|=lim_nto infty|(T_n-T)(g_n)|$ from this step can we say ?



$lim_nto infty|g_n-T(g_n)|=0?$



and remaining problem i dont know how to prove can some one help thank you










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$
















    2












    $begingroup$


    Let $$M=fin C_mathbbR([0,1]): f(0)=0le f(t)le f(1)=1,text for tin [0,1]$$ where $C_mathbbR([0,1])=f:[0,1]to mathbbR:ftext is continuous on [0,1]$ is Banach space with norm $|f|_infty=sup $ . Prove



    (a) $M$ is closed subset of $C_mathbbR([0,1]).$



    (b) $delta(f, M)=delta(M), $ where $f(t)=t$.



    (c) $delta(f_n, M)=delta(M), $ where $f_n(t)=t^n, n=2,3,...$.



    (d) Fix $f_0in M$ . Define $T_n:Mto M$ by $T_n(f)=frac(n-1)T(f)n+fracf_0n, nin mathbbN$.Then $T_n$ is a contraction mapping



    (e) if $g_nin M$ is a fixed point of $T_n$ then $lim_nto infty|g_n-T(g_n)|=0$



    Here $delta(M)= dim M=sup:x,yin M$ and



    $delta (x,M)=sup x-y$



    i am trying to prove (a)



    for proving (a)



    let $x_n$ be a sequence in $M$ such that $x_nto x$



    we have to prove that $xin M$



    so consider $|x_n-x|_infty=sup $



    since $x)nto x$ so $|x_n-x|<epsilon $ this implies $|x_n(t)-x(t)|<epsilon$



    from i here how to prove $xin M$



    and for proving (e)



    since $g_nin M$ is a fixed of $T_n$ so $T_n(g_n)=g_n$



    so $lim_nto infty|g_n-T(g_n)|=lim_nto infty|T_n(g_n)-T(g_n)|=lim_nto infty|(T_n-T)(g_n)|$ from this step can we say ?



    $lim_nto infty|g_n-T(g_n)|=0?$



    and remaining problem i dont know how to prove can some one help thank you










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      2












      2








      2


      1



      $begingroup$


      Let $$M=fin C_mathbbR([0,1]): f(0)=0le f(t)le f(1)=1,text for tin [0,1]$$ where $C_mathbbR([0,1])=f:[0,1]to mathbbR:ftext is continuous on [0,1]$ is Banach space with norm $|f|_infty=sup $ . Prove



      (a) $M$ is closed subset of $C_mathbbR([0,1]).$



      (b) $delta(f, M)=delta(M), $ where $f(t)=t$.



      (c) $delta(f_n, M)=delta(M), $ where $f_n(t)=t^n, n=2,3,...$.



      (d) Fix $f_0in M$ . Define $T_n:Mto M$ by $T_n(f)=frac(n-1)T(f)n+fracf_0n, nin mathbbN$.Then $T_n$ is a contraction mapping



      (e) if $g_nin M$ is a fixed point of $T_n$ then $lim_nto infty|g_n-T(g_n)|=0$



      Here $delta(M)= dim M=sup:x,yin M$ and



      $delta (x,M)=sup x-y$



      i am trying to prove (a)



      for proving (a)



      let $x_n$ be a sequence in $M$ such that $x_nto x$



      we have to prove that $xin M$



      so consider $|x_n-x|_infty=sup $



      since $x)nto x$ so $|x_n-x|<epsilon $ this implies $|x_n(t)-x(t)|<epsilon$



      from i here how to prove $xin M$



      and for proving (e)



      since $g_nin M$ is a fixed of $T_n$ so $T_n(g_n)=g_n$



      so $lim_nto infty|g_n-T(g_n)|=lim_nto infty|T_n(g_n)-T(g_n)|=lim_nto infty|(T_n-T)(g_n)|$ from this step can we say ?



      $lim_nto infty|g_n-T(g_n)|=0?$



      and remaining problem i dont know how to prove can some one help thank you










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Let $$M=fin C_mathbbR([0,1]): f(0)=0le f(t)le f(1)=1,text for tin [0,1]$$ where $C_mathbbR([0,1])=f:[0,1]to mathbbR:ftext is continuous on [0,1]$ is Banach space with norm $|f|_infty=sup $ . Prove



      (a) $M$ is closed subset of $C_mathbbR([0,1]).$



      (b) $delta(f, M)=delta(M), $ where $f(t)=t$.



      (c) $delta(f_n, M)=delta(M), $ where $f_n(t)=t^n, n=2,3,...$.



      (d) Fix $f_0in M$ . Define $T_n:Mto M$ by $T_n(f)=frac(n-1)T(f)n+fracf_0n, nin mathbbN$.Then $T_n$ is a contraction mapping



      (e) if $g_nin M$ is a fixed point of $T_n$ then $lim_nto infty|g_n-T(g_n)|=0$



      Here $delta(M)= dim M=sup:x,yin M$ and



      $delta (x,M)=sup x-y$



      i am trying to prove (a)



      for proving (a)



      let $x_n$ be a sequence in $M$ such that $x_nto x$



      we have to prove that $xin M$



      so consider $|x_n-x|_infty=sup $



      since $x)nto x$ so $|x_n-x|<epsilon $ this implies $|x_n(t)-x(t)|<epsilon$



      from i here how to prove $xin M$



      and for proving (e)



      since $g_nin M$ is a fixed of $T_n$ so $T_n(g_n)=g_n$



      so $lim_nto infty|g_n-T(g_n)|=lim_nto infty|T_n(g_n)-T(g_n)|=lim_nto infty|(T_n-T)(g_n)|$ from this step can we say ?



      $lim_nto infty|g_n-T(g_n)|=0?$



      and remaining problem i dont know how to prove can some one help thank you







      functional-analysis






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Mar 29 at 8:52







      Inverse Problem

















      asked Mar 23 at 16:51









      Inverse ProblemInverse Problem

      1,032918




      1,032918




















          3 Answers
          3






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          2












          $begingroup$

          (a): Assume $(f_n)_n$ is a sequence in $M$ such that $f_n to f in C[0,1]$ uniformly. We claim that $f in M$.



          Since uniform convergence implies pointwise convergence, we have
          $$f(0) = lim_ntoinfty f_n(0) = lim_ntoinfty 0 = 0$$
          $$f(1) = lim_ntoinfty f_n(1) = lim_ntoinfty 1 = 1$$
          $$f(x) = lim_ntoinfty underbracef_n(x)_in[0,1] in [0,1], quadforall x in [0,1]$$
          since $[0,1]$ is a closed set in $mathbbR$. Hence $f in M$ so $M$ is a closed set in $C[0,1]$.



          (b) and (c): For any $g,h in M$ we have
          $$-1 = 0 - 1le g(x) - h(x) le 1 - 0 = 1$$
          so $$|g-h|_infty = sup_x in [0,1]|g(x) - h(x)| le 1$$



          It follows $delta(M) le 1$. On the other hand, we have $f, f_n in M$ so $$delta(f,M), delta(f_n, M) le delta(M) le 1$$



          Also plugging in $t = frac1sqrt[n-1]n$ gives
          $$delta(M) ge delta(f,M), delta(f_n, M) ge |f_n-f|_infty = sup_t in [0,1]|t^n - t| = sup_t in [0,1]|t||t^n-1 - 1| ge frac1sqrt[n-1]nleft(1 - frac1nright) xrightarrowntoinfty 1$$
          so we conclude $delta(f,M) = delta(f_n, M) = delta(M) = 1$.



          For (e):



          beginalign
          |g_n - Tg_n|_infty &= |T_ng_n - Tg_n|_infty \
          &= left|left(fracn-1n - 1right)Tg_n + fracf_0nright|_infty \
          &= left|-frac1n Tg_n + fracf_0nright|_infty \
          &= frac1n|f_0 - Tg_n|_infty
          endalign

          To conclude that this converges to $0$ we have to know what is $T$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            i tried something on (e) is it right and how to prove (d)...thank you so much
            $endgroup$
            – Inverse Problem
            Mar 24 at 16:03










          • $begingroup$
            @InverseProblem Can you tell me what exactly is $T$? How is $T_n$ defined?
            $endgroup$
            – mechanodroid
            Mar 24 at 16:05










          • $begingroup$
            @mechanodroid....you correct beacuse i also got same doubt let me check again any way thanks for your fast response...
            $endgroup$
            – Inverse Problem
            Mar 24 at 16:07










          • $begingroup$
            is my attempt is correct for (e)?
            $endgroup$
            – Inverse Problem
            Mar 24 at 16:08










          • $begingroup$
            @InverseProblem I'm still not sure what is $T$, I have added my attempt for $(e)$ in the answer.
            $endgroup$
            – mechanodroid
            Mar 24 at 16:18



















          1












          $begingroup$

          Your subspace $M$ is the intersection of three closed sets
          $$
          M = f cap f : f(0)=0 cap f : f(1)=1 .
          $$

          The first set is closed because it is the closed unit ball of radius $1$ in $C_mathbbR[0,1]$. The second set is closed because it is the inverse image of $0$ under the continuous function $fin C_mathbbR[0,1] mapsto f(0)$. Similarly the third set is closed.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Sir how to prove remaining problems
            $endgroup$
            – Inverse Problem
            Mar 24 at 1:09










          • $begingroup$
            @InverseProblem : What is $delta$?
            $endgroup$
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Mar 24 at 1:30










          • $begingroup$
            I defined in my question what is delta
            $endgroup$
            – Inverse Problem
            Mar 24 at 1:32










          • $begingroup$
            @InverseProblem : $M$ is not a subspace. o $delta(M)$ is not defined, and I don't see how distance relates to either.
            $endgroup$
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Mar 24 at 4:22






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @InverseProblem : I'm just asking you to clarify your notation. I don't like the chat on this forum; it's poorly done.
            $endgroup$
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Mar 24 at 4:42


















          1












          $begingroup$

          I'll try to give a more detailed proof of (a) because you'll probably see similar exercises and problems involving function spaces.



          Let $f_n$ be a sequence in $M$ such that $f_n to f$. So let us prove that $f in M$:




          • $f in C([0,1],mathbbR)$:

          Note that with this norm $f_n to f$ means uniform convergence of continuous functions, since by definition:
          beginequation*
          |f_n - f|_C([0,1],mathbbR) to 0 iffsup_tin[0,1] |f_n(t)-f(t)| to 0
          endequation*



          It is a well-known fact that uniform limit of continuous functions is also continuous.



          • $f(0) = 0$ and $f(1) = 1$: It should be clear from the sequence.


          • $0 leq f(t) leq 1$ for all $tin[0,1]$:


          Suppose that $f(t_0) < 0$ for some $t_0in[0,1]$; then there is $varepsilon > 0$ such that $f(t_0) +varepsilon < 0$.



          Since $f_n$ converges to $f$ uniformly, then it also converges pointwise. Hence for $n > n_0$ (for $n_0$ big enough), we have:
          begingather
          |f_n(t_0)-f(t_0)| < varepsilon \
          -varepsilon < f_n(t_0)-f(t_0) < varepsilon \
          f(t_0)-varepsilon < f_n(t_0) < f(t_0)+varepsilon < 0\
          endgather



          This contradicts the fact that $f_n in M$ (that is, $f_n(t) geq 0$ for all $tin[0,1]$). The same reasoning can be applied to prove that $f(t) leq 1$.



          Hence $f in M$, and $M$ is closed.



          Remark 1: Note that we had to check that $f in C([0,1],mathbbR)$. It is an important step (albeit most of the time it'll be satisfied).



          Remark 2: For convergence of the sequence, generally you need to apply a convergence theorem (uniform limit, Arzelà-Áscoli, Lebesgue's Dominated Convergence, among others). That's one of the reasons you learn them!






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            can you know how to solve remaining questions
            $endgroup$
            – Inverse Problem
            Mar 24 at 3:32











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          3 Answers
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          active

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          3 Answers
          3






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          2












          $begingroup$

          (a): Assume $(f_n)_n$ is a sequence in $M$ such that $f_n to f in C[0,1]$ uniformly. We claim that $f in M$.



          Since uniform convergence implies pointwise convergence, we have
          $$f(0) = lim_ntoinfty f_n(0) = lim_ntoinfty 0 = 0$$
          $$f(1) = lim_ntoinfty f_n(1) = lim_ntoinfty 1 = 1$$
          $$f(x) = lim_ntoinfty underbracef_n(x)_in[0,1] in [0,1], quadforall x in [0,1]$$
          since $[0,1]$ is a closed set in $mathbbR$. Hence $f in M$ so $M$ is a closed set in $C[0,1]$.



          (b) and (c): For any $g,h in M$ we have
          $$-1 = 0 - 1le g(x) - h(x) le 1 - 0 = 1$$
          so $$|g-h|_infty = sup_x in [0,1]|g(x) - h(x)| le 1$$



          It follows $delta(M) le 1$. On the other hand, we have $f, f_n in M$ so $$delta(f,M), delta(f_n, M) le delta(M) le 1$$



          Also plugging in $t = frac1sqrt[n-1]n$ gives
          $$delta(M) ge delta(f,M), delta(f_n, M) ge |f_n-f|_infty = sup_t in [0,1]|t^n - t| = sup_t in [0,1]|t||t^n-1 - 1| ge frac1sqrt[n-1]nleft(1 - frac1nright) xrightarrowntoinfty 1$$
          so we conclude $delta(f,M) = delta(f_n, M) = delta(M) = 1$.



          For (e):



          beginalign
          |g_n - Tg_n|_infty &= |T_ng_n - Tg_n|_infty \
          &= left|left(fracn-1n - 1right)Tg_n + fracf_0nright|_infty \
          &= left|-frac1n Tg_n + fracf_0nright|_infty \
          &= frac1n|f_0 - Tg_n|_infty
          endalign

          To conclude that this converges to $0$ we have to know what is $T$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            i tried something on (e) is it right and how to prove (d)...thank you so much
            $endgroup$
            – Inverse Problem
            Mar 24 at 16:03










          • $begingroup$
            @InverseProblem Can you tell me what exactly is $T$? How is $T_n$ defined?
            $endgroup$
            – mechanodroid
            Mar 24 at 16:05










          • $begingroup$
            @mechanodroid....you correct beacuse i also got same doubt let me check again any way thanks for your fast response...
            $endgroup$
            – Inverse Problem
            Mar 24 at 16:07










          • $begingroup$
            is my attempt is correct for (e)?
            $endgroup$
            – Inverse Problem
            Mar 24 at 16:08










          • $begingroup$
            @InverseProblem I'm still not sure what is $T$, I have added my attempt for $(e)$ in the answer.
            $endgroup$
            – mechanodroid
            Mar 24 at 16:18
















          2












          $begingroup$

          (a): Assume $(f_n)_n$ is a sequence in $M$ such that $f_n to f in C[0,1]$ uniformly. We claim that $f in M$.



          Since uniform convergence implies pointwise convergence, we have
          $$f(0) = lim_ntoinfty f_n(0) = lim_ntoinfty 0 = 0$$
          $$f(1) = lim_ntoinfty f_n(1) = lim_ntoinfty 1 = 1$$
          $$f(x) = lim_ntoinfty underbracef_n(x)_in[0,1] in [0,1], quadforall x in [0,1]$$
          since $[0,1]$ is a closed set in $mathbbR$. Hence $f in M$ so $M$ is a closed set in $C[0,1]$.



          (b) and (c): For any $g,h in M$ we have
          $$-1 = 0 - 1le g(x) - h(x) le 1 - 0 = 1$$
          so $$|g-h|_infty = sup_x in [0,1]|g(x) - h(x)| le 1$$



          It follows $delta(M) le 1$. On the other hand, we have $f, f_n in M$ so $$delta(f,M), delta(f_n, M) le delta(M) le 1$$



          Also plugging in $t = frac1sqrt[n-1]n$ gives
          $$delta(M) ge delta(f,M), delta(f_n, M) ge |f_n-f|_infty = sup_t in [0,1]|t^n - t| = sup_t in [0,1]|t||t^n-1 - 1| ge frac1sqrt[n-1]nleft(1 - frac1nright) xrightarrowntoinfty 1$$
          so we conclude $delta(f,M) = delta(f_n, M) = delta(M) = 1$.



          For (e):



          beginalign
          |g_n - Tg_n|_infty &= |T_ng_n - Tg_n|_infty \
          &= left|left(fracn-1n - 1right)Tg_n + fracf_0nright|_infty \
          &= left|-frac1n Tg_n + fracf_0nright|_infty \
          &= frac1n|f_0 - Tg_n|_infty
          endalign

          To conclude that this converges to $0$ we have to know what is $T$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            i tried something on (e) is it right and how to prove (d)...thank you so much
            $endgroup$
            – Inverse Problem
            Mar 24 at 16:03










          • $begingroup$
            @InverseProblem Can you tell me what exactly is $T$? How is $T_n$ defined?
            $endgroup$
            – mechanodroid
            Mar 24 at 16:05










          • $begingroup$
            @mechanodroid....you correct beacuse i also got same doubt let me check again any way thanks for your fast response...
            $endgroup$
            – Inverse Problem
            Mar 24 at 16:07










          • $begingroup$
            is my attempt is correct for (e)?
            $endgroup$
            – Inverse Problem
            Mar 24 at 16:08










          • $begingroup$
            @InverseProblem I'm still not sure what is $T$, I have added my attempt for $(e)$ in the answer.
            $endgroup$
            – mechanodroid
            Mar 24 at 16:18














          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          (a): Assume $(f_n)_n$ is a sequence in $M$ such that $f_n to f in C[0,1]$ uniformly. We claim that $f in M$.



          Since uniform convergence implies pointwise convergence, we have
          $$f(0) = lim_ntoinfty f_n(0) = lim_ntoinfty 0 = 0$$
          $$f(1) = lim_ntoinfty f_n(1) = lim_ntoinfty 1 = 1$$
          $$f(x) = lim_ntoinfty underbracef_n(x)_in[0,1] in [0,1], quadforall x in [0,1]$$
          since $[0,1]$ is a closed set in $mathbbR$. Hence $f in M$ so $M$ is a closed set in $C[0,1]$.



          (b) and (c): For any $g,h in M$ we have
          $$-1 = 0 - 1le g(x) - h(x) le 1 - 0 = 1$$
          so $$|g-h|_infty = sup_x in [0,1]|g(x) - h(x)| le 1$$



          It follows $delta(M) le 1$. On the other hand, we have $f, f_n in M$ so $$delta(f,M), delta(f_n, M) le delta(M) le 1$$



          Also plugging in $t = frac1sqrt[n-1]n$ gives
          $$delta(M) ge delta(f,M), delta(f_n, M) ge |f_n-f|_infty = sup_t in [0,1]|t^n - t| = sup_t in [0,1]|t||t^n-1 - 1| ge frac1sqrt[n-1]nleft(1 - frac1nright) xrightarrowntoinfty 1$$
          so we conclude $delta(f,M) = delta(f_n, M) = delta(M) = 1$.



          For (e):



          beginalign
          |g_n - Tg_n|_infty &= |T_ng_n - Tg_n|_infty \
          &= left|left(fracn-1n - 1right)Tg_n + fracf_0nright|_infty \
          &= left|-frac1n Tg_n + fracf_0nright|_infty \
          &= frac1n|f_0 - Tg_n|_infty
          endalign

          To conclude that this converges to $0$ we have to know what is $T$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          (a): Assume $(f_n)_n$ is a sequence in $M$ such that $f_n to f in C[0,1]$ uniformly. We claim that $f in M$.



          Since uniform convergence implies pointwise convergence, we have
          $$f(0) = lim_ntoinfty f_n(0) = lim_ntoinfty 0 = 0$$
          $$f(1) = lim_ntoinfty f_n(1) = lim_ntoinfty 1 = 1$$
          $$f(x) = lim_ntoinfty underbracef_n(x)_in[0,1] in [0,1], quadforall x in [0,1]$$
          since $[0,1]$ is a closed set in $mathbbR$. Hence $f in M$ so $M$ is a closed set in $C[0,1]$.



          (b) and (c): For any $g,h in M$ we have
          $$-1 = 0 - 1le g(x) - h(x) le 1 - 0 = 1$$
          so $$|g-h|_infty = sup_x in [0,1]|g(x) - h(x)| le 1$$



          It follows $delta(M) le 1$. On the other hand, we have $f, f_n in M$ so $$delta(f,M), delta(f_n, M) le delta(M) le 1$$



          Also plugging in $t = frac1sqrt[n-1]n$ gives
          $$delta(M) ge delta(f,M), delta(f_n, M) ge |f_n-f|_infty = sup_t in [0,1]|t^n - t| = sup_t in [0,1]|t||t^n-1 - 1| ge frac1sqrt[n-1]nleft(1 - frac1nright) xrightarrowntoinfty 1$$
          so we conclude $delta(f,M) = delta(f_n, M) = delta(M) = 1$.



          For (e):



          beginalign
          |g_n - Tg_n|_infty &= |T_ng_n - Tg_n|_infty \
          &= left|left(fracn-1n - 1right)Tg_n + fracf_0nright|_infty \
          &= left|-frac1n Tg_n + fracf_0nright|_infty \
          &= frac1n|f_0 - Tg_n|_infty
          endalign

          To conclude that this converges to $0$ we have to know what is $T$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Mar 24 at 16:17

























          answered Mar 24 at 15:47









          mechanodroidmechanodroid

          28.9k62648




          28.9k62648











          • $begingroup$
            i tried something on (e) is it right and how to prove (d)...thank you so much
            $endgroup$
            – Inverse Problem
            Mar 24 at 16:03










          • $begingroup$
            @InverseProblem Can you tell me what exactly is $T$? How is $T_n$ defined?
            $endgroup$
            – mechanodroid
            Mar 24 at 16:05










          • $begingroup$
            @mechanodroid....you correct beacuse i also got same doubt let me check again any way thanks for your fast response...
            $endgroup$
            – Inverse Problem
            Mar 24 at 16:07










          • $begingroup$
            is my attempt is correct for (e)?
            $endgroup$
            – Inverse Problem
            Mar 24 at 16:08










          • $begingroup$
            @InverseProblem I'm still not sure what is $T$, I have added my attempt for $(e)$ in the answer.
            $endgroup$
            – mechanodroid
            Mar 24 at 16:18

















          • $begingroup$
            i tried something on (e) is it right and how to prove (d)...thank you so much
            $endgroup$
            – Inverse Problem
            Mar 24 at 16:03










          • $begingroup$
            @InverseProblem Can you tell me what exactly is $T$? How is $T_n$ defined?
            $endgroup$
            – mechanodroid
            Mar 24 at 16:05










          • $begingroup$
            @mechanodroid....you correct beacuse i also got same doubt let me check again any way thanks for your fast response...
            $endgroup$
            – Inverse Problem
            Mar 24 at 16:07










          • $begingroup$
            is my attempt is correct for (e)?
            $endgroup$
            – Inverse Problem
            Mar 24 at 16:08










          • $begingroup$
            @InverseProblem I'm still not sure what is $T$, I have added my attempt for $(e)$ in the answer.
            $endgroup$
            – mechanodroid
            Mar 24 at 16:18
















          $begingroup$
          i tried something on (e) is it right and how to prove (d)...thank you so much
          $endgroup$
          – Inverse Problem
          Mar 24 at 16:03




          $begingroup$
          i tried something on (e) is it right and how to prove (d)...thank you so much
          $endgroup$
          – Inverse Problem
          Mar 24 at 16:03












          $begingroup$
          @InverseProblem Can you tell me what exactly is $T$? How is $T_n$ defined?
          $endgroup$
          – mechanodroid
          Mar 24 at 16:05




          $begingroup$
          @InverseProblem Can you tell me what exactly is $T$? How is $T_n$ defined?
          $endgroup$
          – mechanodroid
          Mar 24 at 16:05












          $begingroup$
          @mechanodroid....you correct beacuse i also got same doubt let me check again any way thanks for your fast response...
          $endgroup$
          – Inverse Problem
          Mar 24 at 16:07




          $begingroup$
          @mechanodroid....you correct beacuse i also got same doubt let me check again any way thanks for your fast response...
          $endgroup$
          – Inverse Problem
          Mar 24 at 16:07












          $begingroup$
          is my attempt is correct for (e)?
          $endgroup$
          – Inverse Problem
          Mar 24 at 16:08




          $begingroup$
          is my attempt is correct for (e)?
          $endgroup$
          – Inverse Problem
          Mar 24 at 16:08












          $begingroup$
          @InverseProblem I'm still not sure what is $T$, I have added my attempt for $(e)$ in the answer.
          $endgroup$
          – mechanodroid
          Mar 24 at 16:18





          $begingroup$
          @InverseProblem I'm still not sure what is $T$, I have added my attempt for $(e)$ in the answer.
          $endgroup$
          – mechanodroid
          Mar 24 at 16:18












          1












          $begingroup$

          Your subspace $M$ is the intersection of three closed sets
          $$
          M = f cap f : f(0)=0 cap f : f(1)=1 .
          $$

          The first set is closed because it is the closed unit ball of radius $1$ in $C_mathbbR[0,1]$. The second set is closed because it is the inverse image of $0$ under the continuous function $fin C_mathbbR[0,1] mapsto f(0)$. Similarly the third set is closed.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Sir how to prove remaining problems
            $endgroup$
            – Inverse Problem
            Mar 24 at 1:09










          • $begingroup$
            @InverseProblem : What is $delta$?
            $endgroup$
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Mar 24 at 1:30










          • $begingroup$
            I defined in my question what is delta
            $endgroup$
            – Inverse Problem
            Mar 24 at 1:32










          • $begingroup$
            @InverseProblem : $M$ is not a subspace. o $delta(M)$ is not defined, and I don't see how distance relates to either.
            $endgroup$
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Mar 24 at 4:22






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @InverseProblem : I'm just asking you to clarify your notation. I don't like the chat on this forum; it's poorly done.
            $endgroup$
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Mar 24 at 4:42















          1












          $begingroup$

          Your subspace $M$ is the intersection of three closed sets
          $$
          M = f cap f : f(0)=0 cap f : f(1)=1 .
          $$

          The first set is closed because it is the closed unit ball of radius $1$ in $C_mathbbR[0,1]$. The second set is closed because it is the inverse image of $0$ under the continuous function $fin C_mathbbR[0,1] mapsto f(0)$. Similarly the third set is closed.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Sir how to prove remaining problems
            $endgroup$
            – Inverse Problem
            Mar 24 at 1:09










          • $begingroup$
            @InverseProblem : What is $delta$?
            $endgroup$
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Mar 24 at 1:30










          • $begingroup$
            I defined in my question what is delta
            $endgroup$
            – Inverse Problem
            Mar 24 at 1:32










          • $begingroup$
            @InverseProblem : $M$ is not a subspace. o $delta(M)$ is not defined, and I don't see how distance relates to either.
            $endgroup$
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Mar 24 at 4:22






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @InverseProblem : I'm just asking you to clarify your notation. I don't like the chat on this forum; it's poorly done.
            $endgroup$
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Mar 24 at 4:42













          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          Your subspace $M$ is the intersection of three closed sets
          $$
          M = f cap f : f(0)=0 cap f : f(1)=1 .
          $$

          The first set is closed because it is the closed unit ball of radius $1$ in $C_mathbbR[0,1]$. The second set is closed because it is the inverse image of $0$ under the continuous function $fin C_mathbbR[0,1] mapsto f(0)$. Similarly the third set is closed.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Your subspace $M$ is the intersection of three closed sets
          $$
          M = f cap f : f(0)=0 cap f : f(1)=1 .
          $$

          The first set is closed because it is the closed unit ball of radius $1$ in $C_mathbbR[0,1]$. The second set is closed because it is the inverse image of $0$ under the continuous function $fin C_mathbbR[0,1] mapsto f(0)$. Similarly the third set is closed.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Mar 23 at 18:14









          DisintegratingByPartsDisintegratingByParts

          60.4k42681




          60.4k42681











          • $begingroup$
            Sir how to prove remaining problems
            $endgroup$
            – Inverse Problem
            Mar 24 at 1:09










          • $begingroup$
            @InverseProblem : What is $delta$?
            $endgroup$
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Mar 24 at 1:30










          • $begingroup$
            I defined in my question what is delta
            $endgroup$
            – Inverse Problem
            Mar 24 at 1:32










          • $begingroup$
            @InverseProblem : $M$ is not a subspace. o $delta(M)$ is not defined, and I don't see how distance relates to either.
            $endgroup$
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Mar 24 at 4:22






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @InverseProblem : I'm just asking you to clarify your notation. I don't like the chat on this forum; it's poorly done.
            $endgroup$
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Mar 24 at 4:42
















          • $begingroup$
            Sir how to prove remaining problems
            $endgroup$
            – Inverse Problem
            Mar 24 at 1:09










          • $begingroup$
            @InverseProblem : What is $delta$?
            $endgroup$
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Mar 24 at 1:30










          • $begingroup$
            I defined in my question what is delta
            $endgroup$
            – Inverse Problem
            Mar 24 at 1:32










          • $begingroup$
            @InverseProblem : $M$ is not a subspace. o $delta(M)$ is not defined, and I don't see how distance relates to either.
            $endgroup$
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Mar 24 at 4:22






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @InverseProblem : I'm just asking you to clarify your notation. I don't like the chat on this forum; it's poorly done.
            $endgroup$
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Mar 24 at 4:42















          $begingroup$
          Sir how to prove remaining problems
          $endgroup$
          – Inverse Problem
          Mar 24 at 1:09




          $begingroup$
          Sir how to prove remaining problems
          $endgroup$
          – Inverse Problem
          Mar 24 at 1:09












          $begingroup$
          @InverseProblem : What is $delta$?
          $endgroup$
          – DisintegratingByParts
          Mar 24 at 1:30




          $begingroup$
          @InverseProblem : What is $delta$?
          $endgroup$
          – DisintegratingByParts
          Mar 24 at 1:30












          $begingroup$
          I defined in my question what is delta
          $endgroup$
          – Inverse Problem
          Mar 24 at 1:32




          $begingroup$
          I defined in my question what is delta
          $endgroup$
          – Inverse Problem
          Mar 24 at 1:32












          $begingroup$
          @InverseProblem : $M$ is not a subspace. o $delta(M)$ is not defined, and I don't see how distance relates to either.
          $endgroup$
          – DisintegratingByParts
          Mar 24 at 4:22




          $begingroup$
          @InverseProblem : $M$ is not a subspace. o $delta(M)$ is not defined, and I don't see how distance relates to either.
          $endgroup$
          – DisintegratingByParts
          Mar 24 at 4:22




          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          @InverseProblem : I'm just asking you to clarify your notation. I don't like the chat on this forum; it's poorly done.
          $endgroup$
          – DisintegratingByParts
          Mar 24 at 4:42




          $begingroup$
          @InverseProblem : I'm just asking you to clarify your notation. I don't like the chat on this forum; it's poorly done.
          $endgroup$
          – DisintegratingByParts
          Mar 24 at 4:42











          1












          $begingroup$

          I'll try to give a more detailed proof of (a) because you'll probably see similar exercises and problems involving function spaces.



          Let $f_n$ be a sequence in $M$ such that $f_n to f$. So let us prove that $f in M$:




          • $f in C([0,1],mathbbR)$:

          Note that with this norm $f_n to f$ means uniform convergence of continuous functions, since by definition:
          beginequation*
          |f_n - f|_C([0,1],mathbbR) to 0 iffsup_tin[0,1] |f_n(t)-f(t)| to 0
          endequation*



          It is a well-known fact that uniform limit of continuous functions is also continuous.



          • $f(0) = 0$ and $f(1) = 1$: It should be clear from the sequence.


          • $0 leq f(t) leq 1$ for all $tin[0,1]$:


          Suppose that $f(t_0) < 0$ for some $t_0in[0,1]$; then there is $varepsilon > 0$ such that $f(t_0) +varepsilon < 0$.



          Since $f_n$ converges to $f$ uniformly, then it also converges pointwise. Hence for $n > n_0$ (for $n_0$ big enough), we have:
          begingather
          |f_n(t_0)-f(t_0)| < varepsilon \
          -varepsilon < f_n(t_0)-f(t_0) < varepsilon \
          f(t_0)-varepsilon < f_n(t_0) < f(t_0)+varepsilon < 0\
          endgather



          This contradicts the fact that $f_n in M$ (that is, $f_n(t) geq 0$ for all $tin[0,1]$). The same reasoning can be applied to prove that $f(t) leq 1$.



          Hence $f in M$, and $M$ is closed.



          Remark 1: Note that we had to check that $f in C([0,1],mathbbR)$. It is an important step (albeit most of the time it'll be satisfied).



          Remark 2: For convergence of the sequence, generally you need to apply a convergence theorem (uniform limit, Arzelà-Áscoli, Lebesgue's Dominated Convergence, among others). That's one of the reasons you learn them!






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            can you know how to solve remaining questions
            $endgroup$
            – Inverse Problem
            Mar 24 at 3:32















          1












          $begingroup$

          I'll try to give a more detailed proof of (a) because you'll probably see similar exercises and problems involving function spaces.



          Let $f_n$ be a sequence in $M$ such that $f_n to f$. So let us prove that $f in M$:




          • $f in C([0,1],mathbbR)$:

          Note that with this norm $f_n to f$ means uniform convergence of continuous functions, since by definition:
          beginequation*
          |f_n - f|_C([0,1],mathbbR) to 0 iffsup_tin[0,1] |f_n(t)-f(t)| to 0
          endequation*



          It is a well-known fact that uniform limit of continuous functions is also continuous.



          • $f(0) = 0$ and $f(1) = 1$: It should be clear from the sequence.


          • $0 leq f(t) leq 1$ for all $tin[0,1]$:


          Suppose that $f(t_0) < 0$ for some $t_0in[0,1]$; then there is $varepsilon > 0$ such that $f(t_0) +varepsilon < 0$.



          Since $f_n$ converges to $f$ uniformly, then it also converges pointwise. Hence for $n > n_0$ (for $n_0$ big enough), we have:
          begingather
          |f_n(t_0)-f(t_0)| < varepsilon \
          -varepsilon < f_n(t_0)-f(t_0) < varepsilon \
          f(t_0)-varepsilon < f_n(t_0) < f(t_0)+varepsilon < 0\
          endgather



          This contradicts the fact that $f_n in M$ (that is, $f_n(t) geq 0$ for all $tin[0,1]$). The same reasoning can be applied to prove that $f(t) leq 1$.



          Hence $f in M$, and $M$ is closed.



          Remark 1: Note that we had to check that $f in C([0,1],mathbbR)$. It is an important step (albeit most of the time it'll be satisfied).



          Remark 2: For convergence of the sequence, generally you need to apply a convergence theorem (uniform limit, Arzelà-Áscoli, Lebesgue's Dominated Convergence, among others). That's one of the reasons you learn them!






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            can you know how to solve remaining questions
            $endgroup$
            – Inverse Problem
            Mar 24 at 3:32













          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          I'll try to give a more detailed proof of (a) because you'll probably see similar exercises and problems involving function spaces.



          Let $f_n$ be a sequence in $M$ such that $f_n to f$. So let us prove that $f in M$:




          • $f in C([0,1],mathbbR)$:

          Note that with this norm $f_n to f$ means uniform convergence of continuous functions, since by definition:
          beginequation*
          |f_n - f|_C([0,1],mathbbR) to 0 iffsup_tin[0,1] |f_n(t)-f(t)| to 0
          endequation*



          It is a well-known fact that uniform limit of continuous functions is also continuous.



          • $f(0) = 0$ and $f(1) = 1$: It should be clear from the sequence.


          • $0 leq f(t) leq 1$ for all $tin[0,1]$:


          Suppose that $f(t_0) < 0$ for some $t_0in[0,1]$; then there is $varepsilon > 0$ such that $f(t_0) +varepsilon < 0$.



          Since $f_n$ converges to $f$ uniformly, then it also converges pointwise. Hence for $n > n_0$ (for $n_0$ big enough), we have:
          begingather
          |f_n(t_0)-f(t_0)| < varepsilon \
          -varepsilon < f_n(t_0)-f(t_0) < varepsilon \
          f(t_0)-varepsilon < f_n(t_0) < f(t_0)+varepsilon < 0\
          endgather



          This contradicts the fact that $f_n in M$ (that is, $f_n(t) geq 0$ for all $tin[0,1]$). The same reasoning can be applied to prove that $f(t) leq 1$.



          Hence $f in M$, and $M$ is closed.



          Remark 1: Note that we had to check that $f in C([0,1],mathbbR)$. It is an important step (albeit most of the time it'll be satisfied).



          Remark 2: For convergence of the sequence, generally you need to apply a convergence theorem (uniform limit, Arzelà-Áscoli, Lebesgue's Dominated Convergence, among others). That's one of the reasons you learn them!






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          I'll try to give a more detailed proof of (a) because you'll probably see similar exercises and problems involving function spaces.



          Let $f_n$ be a sequence in $M$ such that $f_n to f$. So let us prove that $f in M$:




          • $f in C([0,1],mathbbR)$:

          Note that with this norm $f_n to f$ means uniform convergence of continuous functions, since by definition:
          beginequation*
          |f_n - f|_C([0,1],mathbbR) to 0 iffsup_tin[0,1] |f_n(t)-f(t)| to 0
          endequation*



          It is a well-known fact that uniform limit of continuous functions is also continuous.



          • $f(0) = 0$ and $f(1) = 1$: It should be clear from the sequence.


          • $0 leq f(t) leq 1$ for all $tin[0,1]$:


          Suppose that $f(t_0) < 0$ for some $t_0in[0,1]$; then there is $varepsilon > 0$ such that $f(t_0) +varepsilon < 0$.



          Since $f_n$ converges to $f$ uniformly, then it also converges pointwise. Hence for $n > n_0$ (for $n_0$ big enough), we have:
          begingather
          |f_n(t_0)-f(t_0)| < varepsilon \
          -varepsilon < f_n(t_0)-f(t_0) < varepsilon \
          f(t_0)-varepsilon < f_n(t_0) < f(t_0)+varepsilon < 0\
          endgather



          This contradicts the fact that $f_n in M$ (that is, $f_n(t) geq 0$ for all $tin[0,1]$). The same reasoning can be applied to prove that $f(t) leq 1$.



          Hence $f in M$, and $M$ is closed.



          Remark 1: Note that we had to check that $f in C([0,1],mathbbR)$. It is an important step (albeit most of the time it'll be satisfied).



          Remark 2: For convergence of the sequence, generally you need to apply a convergence theorem (uniform limit, Arzelà-Áscoli, Lebesgue's Dominated Convergence, among others). That's one of the reasons you learn them!







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Mar 23 at 18:22









          AspiringMathematicianAspiringMathematician

          1,878621




          1,878621











          • $begingroup$
            can you know how to solve remaining questions
            $endgroup$
            – Inverse Problem
            Mar 24 at 3:32
















          • $begingroup$
            can you know how to solve remaining questions
            $endgroup$
            – Inverse Problem
            Mar 24 at 3:32















          $begingroup$
          can you know how to solve remaining questions
          $endgroup$
          – Inverse Problem
          Mar 24 at 3:32




          $begingroup$
          can you know how to solve remaining questions
          $endgroup$
          – Inverse Problem
          Mar 24 at 3:32

















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