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A question about L1 function
Is there a change of variables formula for a measure theoretic integral that does not use the Lebesgue measureA basic question about Radon-Nikodym derivativesReal and Imaginary parts of Lebesgue integral in L1 (folland's real analysis)Lebesgue integral question from wikiContinuous complex measuresHow to prove the problem in Measure TheoryAbout Lebesgue-Radon-Nikodym TheoremIntegral of a function on a product measure space using Fubini's theoremA question in the proof that $lambda^d (x) = 0$A question on Lebesgue measure and its absolutely continuous measuresProve continuity of a function defined as a Lebesgue integral
$begingroup$
Suppose $fin L^1(mathbbR^d)$ (that is, $f$ is real or complex valued and the Lebesgue measure $int|f|<infty$), and suppose $lambda>0$ and $1leq nleq d$. Define $g$ as: for any $xinmathbbR^d$:
$$xmapsto f(x_1,...,lambda x_n,...,x_d)$$
Question: is it true that $gin L^1(mathbbR^d)$ ? If true, what is its integral?
I feel that I need to use Fubini’s theorem but am unsure about how to do it. Any thoughts? Thanks!
measure-theory
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose $fin L^1(mathbbR^d)$ (that is, $f$ is real or complex valued and the Lebesgue measure $int|f|<infty$), and suppose $lambda>0$ and $1leq nleq d$. Define $g$ as: for any $xinmathbbR^d$:
$$xmapsto f(x_1,...,lambda x_n,...,x_d)$$
Question: is it true that $gin L^1(mathbbR^d)$ ? If true, what is its integral?
I feel that I need to use Fubini’s theorem but am unsure about how to do it. Any thoughts? Thanks!
measure-theory
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I think that a change of variables should do the work. It also holds for the Lebesgue integral, as one can see on this question: math.stackexchange.com/questions/152338/…
$endgroup$
– Affonso
Mar 22 at 0:48
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose $fin L^1(mathbbR^d)$ (that is, $f$ is real or complex valued and the Lebesgue measure $int|f|<infty$), and suppose $lambda>0$ and $1leq nleq d$. Define $g$ as: for any $xinmathbbR^d$:
$$xmapsto f(x_1,...,lambda x_n,...,x_d)$$
Question: is it true that $gin L^1(mathbbR^d)$ ? If true, what is its integral?
I feel that I need to use Fubini’s theorem but am unsure about how to do it. Any thoughts? Thanks!
measure-theory
$endgroup$
Suppose $fin L^1(mathbbR^d)$ (that is, $f$ is real or complex valued and the Lebesgue measure $int|f|<infty$), and suppose $lambda>0$ and $1leq nleq d$. Define $g$ as: for any $xinmathbbR^d$:
$$xmapsto f(x_1,...,lambda x_n,...,x_d)$$
Question: is it true that $gin L^1(mathbbR^d)$ ? If true, what is its integral?
I feel that I need to use Fubini’s theorem but am unsure about how to do it. Any thoughts? Thanks!
measure-theory
measure-theory
asked Mar 22 at 0:39
Hank ChenHank Chen
215
215
$begingroup$
I think that a change of variables should do the work. It also holds for the Lebesgue integral, as one can see on this question: math.stackexchange.com/questions/152338/…
$endgroup$
– Affonso
Mar 22 at 0:48
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I think that a change of variables should do the work. It also holds for the Lebesgue integral, as one can see on this question: math.stackexchange.com/questions/152338/…
$endgroup$
– Affonso
Mar 22 at 0:48
$begingroup$
I think that a change of variables should do the work. It also holds for the Lebesgue integral, as one can see on this question: math.stackexchange.com/questions/152338/…
$endgroup$
– Affonso
Mar 22 at 0:48
$begingroup$
I think that a change of variables should do the work. It also holds for the Lebesgue integral, as one can see on this question: math.stackexchange.com/questions/152338/…
$endgroup$
– Affonso
Mar 22 at 0:48
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
I think that a change of variables should do the work. It also holds for the Lebesgue integral, as one can see on this question: math.stackexchange.com/questions/152338/…
$endgroup$
– Affonso
Mar 22 at 0:48