The boundary of union is the union of boundaries when the sets have disjoint closuresHelp proving $partial (A cup B) = partial Acuppartial B$?Boundary of union of two sets equals the union of their boundariesProve that if Cl(A) ∩ Cl(B) = ∅, then Bd(A ∪ B) = Bd(A) ∪ Bd(B).If $U,,Vsubseteq mathbbR^2$, $Ucap V = emptyset$ then $partial (V cup U)=(partial V) cup (partial U)$?When boundary of union is equal to union of boundariesIf $Asubset X$, and $partial A$ and $X$ are connected, then $Cl(A)$ is connected.Boundary of union equal union of boundariesCorrectness of topological reasoning (interior, closure and boundary of sets)Prove that $E$ is disconnected iff there exists two open disjoint sets $A$,$B$ in $X$Boundary of the boundary of a closed set?Continuous function crosses the boundary?Boundary of union of disjoint open sets.In a normed set the boundary of a subset is contained in the boundary of the closure of the set.Open sets intersecting on boundaryWhat is the boundary of $mathbbQ times mathbbQ$ in $mathbbR times mathbbQ$?The interior of union of two boundary open sets is emptyBoundary of union equal union of boundaries
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The boundary of union is the union of boundaries when the sets have disjoint closures
Help proving $partial (A cup B) = partial Acuppartial B$?Boundary of union of two sets equals the union of their boundariesProve that if Cl(A) ∩ Cl(B) = ∅, then Bd(A ∪ B) = Bd(A) ∪ Bd(B).If $U,,Vsubseteq mathbbR^2$, $Ucap V = emptyset$ then $partial (V cup U)=(partial V) cup (partial U)$?When boundary of union is equal to union of boundariesIf $Asubset X$, and $partial A$ and $X$ are connected, then $Cl(A)$ is connected.Boundary of union equal union of boundariesCorrectness of topological reasoning (interior, closure and boundary of sets)Prove that $E$ is disconnected iff there exists two open disjoint sets $A$,$B$ in $X$Boundary of the boundary of a closed set?Continuous function crosses the boundary?Boundary of union of disjoint open sets.In a normed set the boundary of a subset is contained in the boundary of the closure of the set.Open sets intersecting on boundaryWhat is the boundary of $mathbbQ times mathbbQ$ in $mathbbR times mathbbQ$?The interior of union of two boundary open sets is emptyBoundary of union equal union of boundaries
$begingroup$
Assume $bar Acapbar B=emptyset$. Is $partial (A cup B)=partial Acuppartial B$, where $partial A$ and $bar A$ mean the boundary set and closure of set $A$?
I can prove that $partial (A cup B)subset partial Acuppartial B$ but for proving $partial Acuppartial Bsubset partial (A cup B)$ it seems not trivial. I tried to show that for $xin partial Acuppartial B$ WLOG, $xin partial A$ so $B(x)cap A$ and $B(x)cap A^c$ not equal to $emptyset$ but it seems not enough to show the result.
general-topology
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Assume $bar Acapbar B=emptyset$. Is $partial (A cup B)=partial Acuppartial B$, where $partial A$ and $bar A$ mean the boundary set and closure of set $A$?
I can prove that $partial (A cup B)subset partial Acuppartial B$ but for proving $partial Acuppartial Bsubset partial (A cup B)$ it seems not trivial. I tried to show that for $xin partial Acuppartial B$ WLOG, $xin partial A$ so $B(x)cap A$ and $B(x)cap A^c$ not equal to $emptyset$ but it seems not enough to show the result.
general-topology
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Assume $bar Acapbar B=emptyset$. Is $partial (A cup B)=partial Acuppartial B$, where $partial A$ and $bar A$ mean the boundary set and closure of set $A$?
I can prove that $partial (A cup B)subset partial Acuppartial B$ but for proving $partial Acuppartial Bsubset partial (A cup B)$ it seems not trivial. I tried to show that for $xin partial Acuppartial B$ WLOG, $xin partial A$ so $B(x)cap A$ and $B(x)cap A^c$ not equal to $emptyset$ but it seems not enough to show the result.
general-topology
$endgroup$
Assume $bar Acapbar B=emptyset$. Is $partial (A cup B)=partial Acuppartial B$, where $partial A$ and $bar A$ mean the boundary set and closure of set $A$?
I can prove that $partial (A cup B)subset partial Acuppartial B$ but for proving $partial Acuppartial Bsubset partial (A cup B)$ it seems not trivial. I tried to show that for $xin partial Acuppartial B$ WLOG, $xin partial A$ so $B(x)cap A$ and $B(x)cap A^c$ not equal to $emptyset$ but it seems not enough to show the result.
general-topology
general-topology
edited Nov 1 '15 at 18:11
user147263
asked Oct 22 '12 at 16:21
MathematicsMathematics
2,20322145
2,20322145
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
You can actually get by with a little less: If $overlineA cap B = emptyset = A cap overlineB$, the result holds.
As you have noticed, we have that $partial ( A cup B ) subseteq partial A cup partial B$. Suppose that $x notin partial ( A cup B )$. There are two cases:
- $x notin overline A cup B = overlineA cup overlineB$. In this case it can easily be shown that $x notin partial A cup partial B$.
- $x notin overline X setminus ( A cup B ) $. Then $x in X setminus overline X setminus ( A cup B ) = mathrmInt ( A cup B )$. Without loss of generality assume that $x in A$, and since $Acap overline B=emptyset$, then $xin Xsetminusoverline B$, which implies that $xnotin partial (B)$. Furthermore, it can be shown that $U = mathrmInt ( A cup B ) setminus overlineB$ is a neighbourhood of $x$ that is contained in $A$, and so $x notin partial A$. Thus $x notin partial A cup partial B$.
$endgroup$
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$begingroup$
You can actually get by with a little less: If $overlineA cap B = emptyset = A cap overlineB$, the result holds.
As you have noticed, we have that $partial ( A cup B ) subseteq partial A cup partial B$. Suppose that $x notin partial ( A cup B )$. There are two cases:
- $x notin overline A cup B = overlineA cup overlineB$. In this case it can easily be shown that $x notin partial A cup partial B$.
- $x notin overline X setminus ( A cup B ) $. Then $x in X setminus overline X setminus ( A cup B ) = mathrmInt ( A cup B )$. Without loss of generality assume that $x in A$, and since $Acap overline B=emptyset$, then $xin Xsetminusoverline B$, which implies that $xnotin partial (B)$. Furthermore, it can be shown that $U = mathrmInt ( A cup B ) setminus overlineB$ is a neighbourhood of $x$ that is contained in $A$, and so $x notin partial A$. Thus $x notin partial A cup partial B$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You can actually get by with a little less: If $overlineA cap B = emptyset = A cap overlineB$, the result holds.
As you have noticed, we have that $partial ( A cup B ) subseteq partial A cup partial B$. Suppose that $x notin partial ( A cup B )$. There are two cases:
- $x notin overline A cup B = overlineA cup overlineB$. In this case it can easily be shown that $x notin partial A cup partial B$.
- $x notin overline X setminus ( A cup B ) $. Then $x in X setminus overline X setminus ( A cup B ) = mathrmInt ( A cup B )$. Without loss of generality assume that $x in A$, and since $Acap overline B=emptyset$, then $xin Xsetminusoverline B$, which implies that $xnotin partial (B)$. Furthermore, it can be shown that $U = mathrmInt ( A cup B ) setminus overlineB$ is a neighbourhood of $x$ that is contained in $A$, and so $x notin partial A$. Thus $x notin partial A cup partial B$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You can actually get by with a little less: If $overlineA cap B = emptyset = A cap overlineB$, the result holds.
As you have noticed, we have that $partial ( A cup B ) subseteq partial A cup partial B$. Suppose that $x notin partial ( A cup B )$. There are two cases:
- $x notin overline A cup B = overlineA cup overlineB$. In this case it can easily be shown that $x notin partial A cup partial B$.
- $x notin overline X setminus ( A cup B ) $. Then $x in X setminus overline X setminus ( A cup B ) = mathrmInt ( A cup B )$. Without loss of generality assume that $x in A$, and since $Acap overline B=emptyset$, then $xin Xsetminusoverline B$, which implies that $xnotin partial (B)$. Furthermore, it can be shown that $U = mathrmInt ( A cup B ) setminus overlineB$ is a neighbourhood of $x$ that is contained in $A$, and so $x notin partial A$. Thus $x notin partial A cup partial B$.
$endgroup$
You can actually get by with a little less: If $overlineA cap B = emptyset = A cap overlineB$, the result holds.
As you have noticed, we have that $partial ( A cup B ) subseteq partial A cup partial B$. Suppose that $x notin partial ( A cup B )$. There are two cases:
- $x notin overline A cup B = overlineA cup overlineB$. In this case it can easily be shown that $x notin partial A cup partial B$.
- $x notin overline X setminus ( A cup B ) $. Then $x in X setminus overline X setminus ( A cup B ) = mathrmInt ( A cup B )$. Without loss of generality assume that $x in A$, and since $Acap overline B=emptyset$, then $xin Xsetminusoverline B$, which implies that $xnotin partial (B)$. Furthermore, it can be shown that $U = mathrmInt ( A cup B ) setminus overlineB$ is a neighbourhood of $x$ that is contained in $A$, and so $x notin partial A$. Thus $x notin partial A cup partial B$.
edited Apr 2 '17 at 18:53
Community♦
1
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answered Oct 22 '12 at 17:16
user642796user642796
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