Checking and Proving the following by the Archimedean Property of Reals. First part I believe is done. Unsure about second part.Help proving the following using Archimedean Property of Realsliminf and limsup propertiesAn Exercise in The Convergence of Sequences of SetsEach bounded measurable function $f:[a,b]tomathbbR$ is almost a Borel function.Analysis Problem - Showing statements are true.Proof that a sequence of set has a set dense somewhere in $[a,b]$If $E_i$ is open show $cap E_i$ is openA Sequence of Real Values Measurable Functions can be Dominated by a SequenceUnderstanding density of irrational numbers and Archemedian propertyTernary expansion and Cantor set

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Checking and Proving the following by the Archimedean Property of Reals. First part I believe is done. Unsure about second part.


Help proving the following using Archimedean Property of Realsliminf and limsup propertiesAn Exercise in The Convergence of Sequences of SetsEach bounded measurable function $f:[a,b]tomathbbR$ is almost a Borel function.Analysis Problem - Showing statements are true.Proof that a sequence of set has a set dense somewhere in $[a,b]$If $E_i$ is open show $cap E_i$ is openA Sequence of Real Values Measurable Functions can be Dominated by a SequenceUnderstanding density of irrational numbers and Archemedian propertyTernary expansion and Cantor set













1












$begingroup$



For each $n=1,,2,,3,,dots;$ let
$C_n = displaystyleleft[frac1n,2+frac1nright]$. Prove that



  • (i) $quaddisplaystylebigcup_n=1^infty C_n=(0,3]$ and

  • (ii) $quaddisplaystylebigcap_n=1^infty C_n=[1,2]$

using Archimedean Property of Reals,




This is what I've done thus far for (i).
For all $𝑥in[1,3]$
are inside $𝐶_1$. If $𝑥in(0,1)$, then there exists an n such that $1/𝑛<𝑥<1$. Therefore, $𝑥in C_n$ $subsetbigcup_k=1^infty$ $C_k$=(0,1). Since also $(0,3]⊃𝐶_𝑛$ for all 𝑛, (i) follows.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$
















    1












    $begingroup$



    For each $n=1,,2,,3,,dots;$ let
    $C_n = displaystyleleft[frac1n,2+frac1nright]$. Prove that



    • (i) $quaddisplaystylebigcup_n=1^infty C_n=(0,3]$ and

    • (ii) $quaddisplaystylebigcap_n=1^infty C_n=[1,2]$

    using Archimedean Property of Reals,




    This is what I've done thus far for (i).
    For all $𝑥in[1,3]$
    are inside $𝐶_1$. If $𝑥in(0,1)$, then there exists an n such that $1/𝑛<𝑥<1$. Therefore, $𝑥in C_n$ $subsetbigcup_k=1^infty$ $C_k$=(0,1). Since also $(0,3]⊃𝐶_𝑛$ for all 𝑛, (i) follows.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$



      For each $n=1,,2,,3,,dots;$ let
      $C_n = displaystyleleft[frac1n,2+frac1nright]$. Prove that



      • (i) $quaddisplaystylebigcup_n=1^infty C_n=(0,3]$ and

      • (ii) $quaddisplaystylebigcap_n=1^infty C_n=[1,2]$

      using Archimedean Property of Reals,




      This is what I've done thus far for (i).
      For all $𝑥in[1,3]$
      are inside $𝐶_1$. If $𝑥in(0,1)$, then there exists an n such that $1/𝑛<𝑥<1$. Therefore, $𝑥in C_n$ $subsetbigcup_k=1^infty$ $C_k$=(0,1). Since also $(0,3]⊃𝐶_𝑛$ for all 𝑛, (i) follows.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$





      For each $n=1,,2,,3,,dots;$ let
      $C_n = displaystyleleft[frac1n,2+frac1nright]$. Prove that



      • (i) $quaddisplaystylebigcup_n=1^infty C_n=(0,3]$ and

      • (ii) $quaddisplaystylebigcap_n=1^infty C_n=[1,2]$

      using Archimedean Property of Reals,




      This is what I've done thus far for (i).
      For all $𝑥in[1,3]$
      are inside $𝐶_1$. If $𝑥in(0,1)$, then there exists an n such that $1/𝑛<𝑥<1$. Therefore, $𝑥in C_n$ $subsetbigcup_k=1^infty$ $C_k$=(0,1). Since also $(0,3]⊃𝐶_𝑛$ for all 𝑛, (i) follows.







      real-analysis






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Mar 22 at 8:18









      Asaf Karagila

      308k33441774




      308k33441774










      asked Mar 22 at 4:19









      brucemcmcbrucemcmc

      396




      396




















          4 Answers
          4






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          1












          $begingroup$

          $f(n) = frac1n$ is monotonically decreasing for $n in N$.



          Therefore the largest that $1/n$ can be is 1 and the smallest it can be is 0 (tends to 0). Therefore, the smallest that 2+$1/n$ can be is 2. This should prove (ii)



          Assume there exists a point outside intersection from $(0,1)$ then clearly it will not be in $C_1$, therefore the assumption is wrong. Assume that a point exists in the intersection from $(2, infty)$. Say it is $2+epsilon$ where $epsilon in (0, infty)$. Now for the assumption to hold true this point must lie in interval $C_n$ for all $n in N$,
          $$
          2 + epsilon < 2 + frac1n, forall n in N
          $$



          $$
          epsilon < frac1n, forall n in N
          $$



          But as,
          $$
          lim_n to infty frac1n = 0
          $$



          Therefore there is some $n$ such that,
          $$
          frac1n < epsilon
          $$



          Again the assumption is false. So proved by contradiction.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Hi, thank you for your help!
            $endgroup$
            – brucemcmc
            Mar 22 at 5:14










          • $begingroup$
            If that's all, you can accept the answer.
            $endgroup$
            – Balakrishnan Rajan
            Mar 22 at 5:15










          • $begingroup$
            I believe i did
            $endgroup$
            – brucemcmc
            Mar 22 at 5:18










          • $begingroup$
            I just wanted to know if I missed a step somewhere. Cheers :)
            $endgroup$
            – Balakrishnan Rajan
            Mar 22 at 5:26


















          0












          $begingroup$

          Hint: The second part is similar. If $ 0le xle 2 $, can you show that $ xin C_n $ for all $ n $? If so, then you have $ left[1, 2right] subseteqdisplaystylebigcap_n=1^infty C_n $.



          Likewise, if $ xin C_n $ for all $ n $, can you show that $ 0le x le 2 $? You would then have $ displaystylebigcap_n=1^infty C_nsubseteqleft[1, 2right] $.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$




















            0












            $begingroup$

            First note that $forall ninBbb N, 1/nle 1wedge2+1/n>2impliesforall C_n,[1,2]subset C_n$. Hence, $[1,2]$ lies in their intersection. Next you need to show that $[1,2]$ is the intersection, i.e. for $x>2vee x<1,exists C_k|xnotin C_k$. If $x<1$, then $xnotin C_1$; can you use the Archimidean property for the other?






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$












            • $begingroup$
              Hi thank you for your input!
              $endgroup$
              – brucemcmc
              Mar 22 at 5:17


















            0












            $begingroup$

            Clearly $[1,2]subseteq C_n$ for all $n$, hence $supseteq$ holds in (ii).



            Now we prove the reverse inclusion. Suppose $x$ in the intersection. Then $xgeqfrac1n$ for all $n$, in particular $xgeq1$. Also, $xleq2+frac1n$ for all $n$, which implies $xleq2$. So $xin[1,2]$.



            Note that, if we took $[frac1n,2+frac1n)$, nothing would change, because having $x<2+frac1n$ for all $n$ would still allow 2. Taking $(frac1n,2+frac2n]$ would, instead, turn the intersection to $(1,2]$, because we would have $x>1$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













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              4 Answers
              4






              active

              oldest

              votes








              4 Answers
              4






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes









              1












              $begingroup$

              $f(n) = frac1n$ is monotonically decreasing for $n in N$.



              Therefore the largest that $1/n$ can be is 1 and the smallest it can be is 0 (tends to 0). Therefore, the smallest that 2+$1/n$ can be is 2. This should prove (ii)



              Assume there exists a point outside intersection from $(0,1)$ then clearly it will not be in $C_1$, therefore the assumption is wrong. Assume that a point exists in the intersection from $(2, infty)$. Say it is $2+epsilon$ where $epsilon in (0, infty)$. Now for the assumption to hold true this point must lie in interval $C_n$ for all $n in N$,
              $$
              2 + epsilon < 2 + frac1n, forall n in N
              $$



              $$
              epsilon < frac1n, forall n in N
              $$



              But as,
              $$
              lim_n to infty frac1n = 0
              $$



              Therefore there is some $n$ such that,
              $$
              frac1n < epsilon
              $$



              Again the assumption is false. So proved by contradiction.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$












              • $begingroup$
                Hi, thank you for your help!
                $endgroup$
                – brucemcmc
                Mar 22 at 5:14










              • $begingroup$
                If that's all, you can accept the answer.
                $endgroup$
                – Balakrishnan Rajan
                Mar 22 at 5:15










              • $begingroup$
                I believe i did
                $endgroup$
                – brucemcmc
                Mar 22 at 5:18










              • $begingroup$
                I just wanted to know if I missed a step somewhere. Cheers :)
                $endgroup$
                – Balakrishnan Rajan
                Mar 22 at 5:26















              1












              $begingroup$

              $f(n) = frac1n$ is monotonically decreasing for $n in N$.



              Therefore the largest that $1/n$ can be is 1 and the smallest it can be is 0 (tends to 0). Therefore, the smallest that 2+$1/n$ can be is 2. This should prove (ii)



              Assume there exists a point outside intersection from $(0,1)$ then clearly it will not be in $C_1$, therefore the assumption is wrong. Assume that a point exists in the intersection from $(2, infty)$. Say it is $2+epsilon$ where $epsilon in (0, infty)$. Now for the assumption to hold true this point must lie in interval $C_n$ for all $n in N$,
              $$
              2 + epsilon < 2 + frac1n, forall n in N
              $$



              $$
              epsilon < frac1n, forall n in N
              $$



              But as,
              $$
              lim_n to infty frac1n = 0
              $$



              Therefore there is some $n$ such that,
              $$
              frac1n < epsilon
              $$



              Again the assumption is false. So proved by contradiction.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$












              • $begingroup$
                Hi, thank you for your help!
                $endgroup$
                – brucemcmc
                Mar 22 at 5:14










              • $begingroup$
                If that's all, you can accept the answer.
                $endgroup$
                – Balakrishnan Rajan
                Mar 22 at 5:15










              • $begingroup$
                I believe i did
                $endgroup$
                – brucemcmc
                Mar 22 at 5:18










              • $begingroup$
                I just wanted to know if I missed a step somewhere. Cheers :)
                $endgroup$
                – Balakrishnan Rajan
                Mar 22 at 5:26













              1












              1








              1





              $begingroup$

              $f(n) = frac1n$ is monotonically decreasing for $n in N$.



              Therefore the largest that $1/n$ can be is 1 and the smallest it can be is 0 (tends to 0). Therefore, the smallest that 2+$1/n$ can be is 2. This should prove (ii)



              Assume there exists a point outside intersection from $(0,1)$ then clearly it will not be in $C_1$, therefore the assumption is wrong. Assume that a point exists in the intersection from $(2, infty)$. Say it is $2+epsilon$ where $epsilon in (0, infty)$. Now for the assumption to hold true this point must lie in interval $C_n$ for all $n in N$,
              $$
              2 + epsilon < 2 + frac1n, forall n in N
              $$



              $$
              epsilon < frac1n, forall n in N
              $$



              But as,
              $$
              lim_n to infty frac1n = 0
              $$



              Therefore there is some $n$ such that,
              $$
              frac1n < epsilon
              $$



              Again the assumption is false. So proved by contradiction.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$



              $f(n) = frac1n$ is monotonically decreasing for $n in N$.



              Therefore the largest that $1/n$ can be is 1 and the smallest it can be is 0 (tends to 0). Therefore, the smallest that 2+$1/n$ can be is 2. This should prove (ii)



              Assume there exists a point outside intersection from $(0,1)$ then clearly it will not be in $C_1$, therefore the assumption is wrong. Assume that a point exists in the intersection from $(2, infty)$. Say it is $2+epsilon$ where $epsilon in (0, infty)$. Now for the assumption to hold true this point must lie in interval $C_n$ for all $n in N$,
              $$
              2 + epsilon < 2 + frac1n, forall n in N
              $$



              $$
              epsilon < frac1n, forall n in N
              $$



              But as,
              $$
              lim_n to infty frac1n = 0
              $$



              Therefore there is some $n$ such that,
              $$
              frac1n < epsilon
              $$



              Again the assumption is false. So proved by contradiction.







              share|cite|improve this answer














              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer








              edited Mar 22 at 5:01

























              answered Mar 22 at 4:49









              Balakrishnan RajanBalakrishnan Rajan

              1519




              1519











              • $begingroup$
                Hi, thank you for your help!
                $endgroup$
                – brucemcmc
                Mar 22 at 5:14










              • $begingroup$
                If that's all, you can accept the answer.
                $endgroup$
                – Balakrishnan Rajan
                Mar 22 at 5:15










              • $begingroup$
                I believe i did
                $endgroup$
                – brucemcmc
                Mar 22 at 5:18










              • $begingroup$
                I just wanted to know if I missed a step somewhere. Cheers :)
                $endgroup$
                – Balakrishnan Rajan
                Mar 22 at 5:26
















              • $begingroup$
                Hi, thank you for your help!
                $endgroup$
                – brucemcmc
                Mar 22 at 5:14










              • $begingroup$
                If that's all, you can accept the answer.
                $endgroup$
                – Balakrishnan Rajan
                Mar 22 at 5:15










              • $begingroup$
                I believe i did
                $endgroup$
                – brucemcmc
                Mar 22 at 5:18










              • $begingroup$
                I just wanted to know if I missed a step somewhere. Cheers :)
                $endgroup$
                – Balakrishnan Rajan
                Mar 22 at 5:26















              $begingroup$
              Hi, thank you for your help!
              $endgroup$
              – brucemcmc
              Mar 22 at 5:14




              $begingroup$
              Hi, thank you for your help!
              $endgroup$
              – brucemcmc
              Mar 22 at 5:14












              $begingroup$
              If that's all, you can accept the answer.
              $endgroup$
              – Balakrishnan Rajan
              Mar 22 at 5:15




              $begingroup$
              If that's all, you can accept the answer.
              $endgroup$
              – Balakrishnan Rajan
              Mar 22 at 5:15












              $begingroup$
              I believe i did
              $endgroup$
              – brucemcmc
              Mar 22 at 5:18




              $begingroup$
              I believe i did
              $endgroup$
              – brucemcmc
              Mar 22 at 5:18












              $begingroup$
              I just wanted to know if I missed a step somewhere. Cheers :)
              $endgroup$
              – Balakrishnan Rajan
              Mar 22 at 5:26




              $begingroup$
              I just wanted to know if I missed a step somewhere. Cheers :)
              $endgroup$
              – Balakrishnan Rajan
              Mar 22 at 5:26











              0












              $begingroup$

              Hint: The second part is similar. If $ 0le xle 2 $, can you show that $ xin C_n $ for all $ n $? If so, then you have $ left[1, 2right] subseteqdisplaystylebigcap_n=1^infty C_n $.



              Likewise, if $ xin C_n $ for all $ n $, can you show that $ 0le x le 2 $? You would then have $ displaystylebigcap_n=1^infty C_nsubseteqleft[1, 2right] $.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$

















                0












                $begingroup$

                Hint: The second part is similar. If $ 0le xle 2 $, can you show that $ xin C_n $ for all $ n $? If so, then you have $ left[1, 2right] subseteqdisplaystylebigcap_n=1^infty C_n $.



                Likewise, if $ xin C_n $ for all $ n $, can you show that $ 0le x le 2 $? You would then have $ displaystylebigcap_n=1^infty C_nsubseteqleft[1, 2right] $.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$















                  0












                  0








                  0





                  $begingroup$

                  Hint: The second part is similar. If $ 0le xle 2 $, can you show that $ xin C_n $ for all $ n $? If so, then you have $ left[1, 2right] subseteqdisplaystylebigcap_n=1^infty C_n $.



                  Likewise, if $ xin C_n $ for all $ n $, can you show that $ 0le x le 2 $? You would then have $ displaystylebigcap_n=1^infty C_nsubseteqleft[1, 2right] $.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  Hint: The second part is similar. If $ 0le xle 2 $, can you show that $ xin C_n $ for all $ n $? If so, then you have $ left[1, 2right] subseteqdisplaystylebigcap_n=1^infty C_n $.



                  Likewise, if $ xin C_n $ for all $ n $, can you show that $ 0le x le 2 $? You would then have $ displaystylebigcap_n=1^infty C_nsubseteqleft[1, 2right] $.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Mar 22 at 4:53









                  lonza leggieralonza leggiera

                  1,26028




                  1,26028





















                      0












                      $begingroup$

                      First note that $forall ninBbb N, 1/nle 1wedge2+1/n>2impliesforall C_n,[1,2]subset C_n$. Hence, $[1,2]$ lies in their intersection. Next you need to show that $[1,2]$ is the intersection, i.e. for $x>2vee x<1,exists C_k|xnotin C_k$. If $x<1$, then $xnotin C_1$; can you use the Archimidean property for the other?






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$












                      • $begingroup$
                        Hi thank you for your input!
                        $endgroup$
                        – brucemcmc
                        Mar 22 at 5:17















                      0












                      $begingroup$

                      First note that $forall ninBbb N, 1/nle 1wedge2+1/n>2impliesforall C_n,[1,2]subset C_n$. Hence, $[1,2]$ lies in their intersection. Next you need to show that $[1,2]$ is the intersection, i.e. for $x>2vee x<1,exists C_k|xnotin C_k$. If $x<1$, then $xnotin C_1$; can you use the Archimidean property for the other?






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$












                      • $begingroup$
                        Hi thank you for your input!
                        $endgroup$
                        – brucemcmc
                        Mar 22 at 5:17













                      0












                      0








                      0





                      $begingroup$

                      First note that $forall ninBbb N, 1/nle 1wedge2+1/n>2impliesforall C_n,[1,2]subset C_n$. Hence, $[1,2]$ lies in their intersection. Next you need to show that $[1,2]$ is the intersection, i.e. for $x>2vee x<1,exists C_k|xnotin C_k$. If $x<1$, then $xnotin C_1$; can you use the Archimidean property for the other?






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$



                      First note that $forall ninBbb N, 1/nle 1wedge2+1/n>2impliesforall C_n,[1,2]subset C_n$. Hence, $[1,2]$ lies in their intersection. Next you need to show that $[1,2]$ is the intersection, i.e. for $x>2vee x<1,exists C_k|xnotin C_k$. If $x<1$, then $xnotin C_1$; can you use the Archimidean property for the other?







                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer










                      answered Mar 22 at 5:03









                      Shubham JohriShubham Johri

                      5,515818




                      5,515818











                      • $begingroup$
                        Hi thank you for your input!
                        $endgroup$
                        – brucemcmc
                        Mar 22 at 5:17
















                      • $begingroup$
                        Hi thank you for your input!
                        $endgroup$
                        – brucemcmc
                        Mar 22 at 5:17















                      $begingroup$
                      Hi thank you for your input!
                      $endgroup$
                      – brucemcmc
                      Mar 22 at 5:17




                      $begingroup$
                      Hi thank you for your input!
                      $endgroup$
                      – brucemcmc
                      Mar 22 at 5:17











                      0












                      $begingroup$

                      Clearly $[1,2]subseteq C_n$ for all $n$, hence $supseteq$ holds in (ii).



                      Now we prove the reverse inclusion. Suppose $x$ in the intersection. Then $xgeqfrac1n$ for all $n$, in particular $xgeq1$. Also, $xleq2+frac1n$ for all $n$, which implies $xleq2$. So $xin[1,2]$.



                      Note that, if we took $[frac1n,2+frac1n)$, nothing would change, because having $x<2+frac1n$ for all $n$ would still allow 2. Taking $(frac1n,2+frac2n]$ would, instead, turn the intersection to $(1,2]$, because we would have $x>1$.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$

















                        0












                        $begingroup$

                        Clearly $[1,2]subseteq C_n$ for all $n$, hence $supseteq$ holds in (ii).



                        Now we prove the reverse inclusion. Suppose $x$ in the intersection. Then $xgeqfrac1n$ for all $n$, in particular $xgeq1$. Also, $xleq2+frac1n$ for all $n$, which implies $xleq2$. So $xin[1,2]$.



                        Note that, if we took $[frac1n,2+frac1n)$, nothing would change, because having $x<2+frac1n$ for all $n$ would still allow 2. Taking $(frac1n,2+frac2n]$ would, instead, turn the intersection to $(1,2]$, because we would have $x>1$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$















                          0












                          0








                          0





                          $begingroup$

                          Clearly $[1,2]subseteq C_n$ for all $n$, hence $supseteq$ holds in (ii).



                          Now we prove the reverse inclusion. Suppose $x$ in the intersection. Then $xgeqfrac1n$ for all $n$, in particular $xgeq1$. Also, $xleq2+frac1n$ for all $n$, which implies $xleq2$. So $xin[1,2]$.



                          Note that, if we took $[frac1n,2+frac1n)$, nothing would change, because having $x<2+frac1n$ for all $n$ would still allow 2. Taking $(frac1n,2+frac2n]$ would, instead, turn the intersection to $(1,2]$, because we would have $x>1$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          Clearly $[1,2]subseteq C_n$ for all $n$, hence $supseteq$ holds in (ii).



                          Now we prove the reverse inclusion. Suppose $x$ in the intersection. Then $xgeqfrac1n$ for all $n$, in particular $xgeq1$. Also, $xleq2+frac1n$ for all $n$, which implies $xleq2$. So $xin[1,2]$.



                          Note that, if we took $[frac1n,2+frac1n)$, nothing would change, because having $x<2+frac1n$ for all $n$ would still allow 2. Taking $(frac1n,2+frac2n]$ would, instead, turn the intersection to $(1,2]$, because we would have $x>1$.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Mar 22 at 10:35









                          MickGMickG

                          4,35932057




                          4,35932057



























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