$C^infty_0(barOmega)$ dense in $W^k,p(Omega)$: the closure is necessary?Compactness result PDEsBehavior of the pointwise norm of the gradient w.r.t. to boundary conditions in elliptic PDEsAbsolutely continuous representative in $W^1,p(Omega,X)$What is the dense subset in $H_0^1(Omega)cap H^2(Omega)$Is $C^infty_0(barOmega)$ dense in the hilbert space $W^2,2(Omega)cap W^1,2_0(Omega)$How to modify a $H^1$ weak convergence sequence so that I have the $L^2$ equi-integrability of gradient?Under some regularity assumptions to the boundary $partialOmega$, the first weak eigenfunction of $-Delta$ in $Omega$ is also a strong oneUpper bound for the difference between two solutions of nonhomgenous Helmholtz pdeShow that $mathcal C^1(bar Omega )$ is dense in $W^1,p(Omega )$.Comparison principle for heat equation

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$C^infty_0(barOmega)$ dense in $W^k,p(Omega)$: the closure is necessary?


Compactness result PDEsBehavior of the pointwise norm of the gradient w.r.t. to boundary conditions in elliptic PDEsAbsolutely continuous representative in $W^1,p(Omega,X)$What is the dense subset in $H_0^1(Omega)cap H^2(Omega)$Is $C^infty_0(barOmega)$ dense in the hilbert space $W^2,2(Omega)cap W^1,2_0(Omega)$How to modify a $H^1$ weak convergence sequence so that I have the $L^2$ equi-integrability of gradient?Under some regularity assumptions to the boundary $partialOmega$, the first weak eigenfunction of $-Delta$ in $Omega$ is also a strong oneUpper bound for the difference between two solutions of nonhomgenous Helmholtz pdeShow that $mathcal C^1(bar Omega )$ is dense in $W^1,p(Omega )$.Comparison principle for heat equation













11












$begingroup$


It is a fundamental result of Sobolve space that




Let $Omega subset mathbbR^d$ or $mathbbR^d_+$, then
$C^infty_0(barOmega)$ is dense in $W^k,p(Omega)$.




However, in some literatures, the fact is pointed out that $C^infty_0(Omega)$ fails to dense in $W^k,p(Omega)$ in some cases.



Some I would like to try some counterexamples.



My guess is take $d = 1, k = 1, p = 2$ and $Omega = (0,1)$, i.e. claim that




$C^infty_0((0,1))$ fails to dense in $W^1,2((0,1))$.




But how should I proceed such an argument in a precise way?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The basic issue can be seen with constant functions, where the derivative is zero but the derivative of $C_0^infty$ functions that approximate constant functions are highly singular near the boundary.
    $endgroup$
    – Chris Janjigian
    May 5 '12 at 3:26















11












$begingroup$


It is a fundamental result of Sobolve space that




Let $Omega subset mathbbR^d$ or $mathbbR^d_+$, then
$C^infty_0(barOmega)$ is dense in $W^k,p(Omega)$.




However, in some literatures, the fact is pointed out that $C^infty_0(Omega)$ fails to dense in $W^k,p(Omega)$ in some cases.



Some I would like to try some counterexamples.



My guess is take $d = 1, k = 1, p = 2$ and $Omega = (0,1)$, i.e. claim that




$C^infty_0((0,1))$ fails to dense in $W^1,2((0,1))$.




But how should I proceed such an argument in a precise way?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The basic issue can be seen with constant functions, where the derivative is zero but the derivative of $C_0^infty$ functions that approximate constant functions are highly singular near the boundary.
    $endgroup$
    – Chris Janjigian
    May 5 '12 at 3:26













11












11








11


9



$begingroup$


It is a fundamental result of Sobolve space that




Let $Omega subset mathbbR^d$ or $mathbbR^d_+$, then
$C^infty_0(barOmega)$ is dense in $W^k,p(Omega)$.




However, in some literatures, the fact is pointed out that $C^infty_0(Omega)$ fails to dense in $W^k,p(Omega)$ in some cases.



Some I would like to try some counterexamples.



My guess is take $d = 1, k = 1, p = 2$ and $Omega = (0,1)$, i.e. claim that




$C^infty_0((0,1))$ fails to dense in $W^1,2((0,1))$.




But how should I proceed such an argument in a precise way?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




It is a fundamental result of Sobolve space that




Let $Omega subset mathbbR^d$ or $mathbbR^d_+$, then
$C^infty_0(barOmega)$ is dense in $W^k,p(Omega)$.




However, in some literatures, the fact is pointed out that $C^infty_0(Omega)$ fails to dense in $W^k,p(Omega)$ in some cases.



Some I would like to try some counterexamples.



My guess is take $d = 1, k = 1, p = 2$ and $Omega = (0,1)$, i.e. claim that




$C^infty_0((0,1))$ fails to dense in $W^1,2((0,1))$.




But how should I proceed such an argument in a precise way?







pde sobolev-spaces






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited May 25 '18 at 17:14









S. Maths

657116




657116










asked May 5 '12 at 3:02









newbienewbie

1,54111936




1,54111936







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The basic issue can be seen with constant functions, where the derivative is zero but the derivative of $C_0^infty$ functions that approximate constant functions are highly singular near the boundary.
    $endgroup$
    – Chris Janjigian
    May 5 '12 at 3:26












  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The basic issue can be seen with constant functions, where the derivative is zero but the derivative of $C_0^infty$ functions that approximate constant functions are highly singular near the boundary.
    $endgroup$
    – Chris Janjigian
    May 5 '12 at 3:26







1




1




$begingroup$
The basic issue can be seen with constant functions, where the derivative is zero but the derivative of $C_0^infty$ functions that approximate constant functions are highly singular near the boundary.
$endgroup$
– Chris Janjigian
May 5 '12 at 3:26




$begingroup$
The basic issue can be seen with constant functions, where the derivative is zero but the derivative of $C_0^infty$ functions that approximate constant functions are highly singular near the boundary.
$endgroup$
– Chris Janjigian
May 5 '12 at 3:26










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















12












$begingroup$

Just like Chris said in his comment, let us suppose we have a bounded Lipschitz domain $Omegasubset mathbbR^d$, $C^infty_0(Omega)$ fails to approximate an arbitrary $W^k,p(Omega)$-function unless you set the boundary value to be 0.



A possible argument could be constructed using the trace theorem. Roughly speaking, denote $H^1(Omega) := W^1,2(Omega)$, let
$$
T: H^1(Omega) longrightarrow H^1/2(partial Omega)
$$
be the trace operator. Suppose we prescribe a $uin H^1(Omega)$, which has a non-zero trace, leading us to the trace inequality
$$
|Tu |_H^1/2(partial Omega) leq c| u |_H^1(Omega)
$$
Now assume we have a sequence $u_nsubset C^infty_0(Omega) subset H^1(Omega)$, such that $u_nto u$ in the $H^1(Omega)$-norm, then use trace inequality we will see the contradiction in which zero is greater than or equal to a positive number.




If you are not satisfying with the existence of the "non-zero trace" part, we could circumvent this by using the surjectivity of the trace operator, define its right inverse as
$$
mathscrI: H^1/2(partial Omega)longrightarrow H^1(Omega)
$$
serving like an extension of any function defined on boundary to the interior, and $T(mathscrIg) = g$ for any $gin H^1/2(partial Omega)$, prescribe any $gin H^1/2(partial Omega)$, say $g = 1$ on $partial Omega$, let $u = mathscrIg$.




Counter-example on $Omega = (0,1)$:



Let $u = 1in H^1(Omega) = W^1,2(Omega)$, suppose we have a sequence $u_n subset C^infty_0(Omega)$ such that
$$
| u - u_n|^2_H^1(Omega) = | u - u_n|^2_L^2(Omega) +
| u'_n|^2_L^2(Omega) longrightarrow 0
$$
so for any $epsilon>0$ we could find $N>0$ for all $n>N$:
$$
| u - u_n|_L^2(Omega) < epsilon, text and ; |u'_n|_L^2(Omega) < epsilon
$$
By triangle inequality:
$$
left|| u|_L^2(Omega) - | u_n|_L^2(Omega)right| leq | u - u_n|_L^2(Omega) < epsilon
$$
due to $| u|_L^2(Omega) = 1$, above implies
$$
1-epsilon < | u_n|_L^2(Omega) < 1+epsilon
$$
Now we would like to argue like the proof for Poincaré inequality to reach the contradiction, for 1 dimensional case it is very straightforward, for any $xin Omega$ we have:
$$
|u_n(x) - u_n(0)| = left| int^x_0 u'_n(t),dtright| leq
left| int^1_0 u'_n(t)^2,dtright|^frac12 ;
left| int^1_0 1^2,dtright|^frac12 = |u'_n|_L^2(Omega)
$$
This implies $displaystylesup_xinOmega|u_n(x)| leq |u'_n|_L^2(Omega)$, therefore combining everything we have would lead us to the following:
$$
1-epsilon < | u_n|_L^2(Omega) leq
left| int^1_0 sup_tinOmega|u_n(t)|^2,dtright|^frac12 = sup_xinOmega|u_n(x)| leq |u'_n|_L^2(Omega) < epsilon
$$
which is a contradiction, hence such sequence $u_n subset C^infty_0(Omega)$ does not exist.




A last remark: Why would the density argument of $C^infty_0(Omega)$ is true for the whole space is because of the decaying property of both the function itself and the derivative of the $W^k,p$-functions, for something to be $L^p$-integrable on the whole space, its integration must be small outside a ball of certain size, however for bounded domain, decaying property does not hold any more unless you add the compactly-supported condition.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    thanks for your reply. I'm wondering if it is possible to argue the specific case mentioned above($C^infty_0((0,1))$) without trace? Preferably, a counter-example would be selfstanding.
    $endgroup$
    – newbie
    May 7 '12 at 5:10










  • $begingroup$
    @newbie Edited the counter-example into my answer.
    $endgroup$
    – Shuhao Cao
    May 7 '12 at 6:32










  • $begingroup$
    It is crystal clear. Thanks a lot!
    $endgroup$
    – newbie
    May 7 '12 at 6:38










  • $begingroup$
    Hey, sorry I got one more question. In the estimation of sup, is $u^n(0) = 0$ from definition of $C^infty_0((0,1))$?
    $endgroup$
    – newbie
    May 7 '12 at 6:57











  • $begingroup$
    @newbie Yes, $C^infty_0((0,1))$ normally denotes the compactly supported infinitely differentiable functions on $(0,1)$, the compact supportedness means it is zero on some small neighborhood of the interval's end points.
    $endgroup$
    – Shuhao Cao
    May 7 '12 at 7:05


















0












$begingroup$

Let $f(x) = cosh(x) = tfrace^x+e^-x2$ for $xin (a,b)$. Then obviously $fin C^infty(a,b)subset H^1(a,b)$ with $f'' = f$. Hence, for all $uin C_0^infty(a,b)$ we have
$$
(f,u)_H^1 = (f,u) + (f',u') = (f,u) + [f'overline u]_a^b - (f'',u) = (f-f'',u) = 0.
$$

Therefore $C_0^infty(a,b)$ is not dense in $H^1(a,b)$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    12












    $begingroup$

    Just like Chris said in his comment, let us suppose we have a bounded Lipschitz domain $Omegasubset mathbbR^d$, $C^infty_0(Omega)$ fails to approximate an arbitrary $W^k,p(Omega)$-function unless you set the boundary value to be 0.



    A possible argument could be constructed using the trace theorem. Roughly speaking, denote $H^1(Omega) := W^1,2(Omega)$, let
    $$
    T: H^1(Omega) longrightarrow H^1/2(partial Omega)
    $$
    be the trace operator. Suppose we prescribe a $uin H^1(Omega)$, which has a non-zero trace, leading us to the trace inequality
    $$
    |Tu |_H^1/2(partial Omega) leq c| u |_H^1(Omega)
    $$
    Now assume we have a sequence $u_nsubset C^infty_0(Omega) subset H^1(Omega)$, such that $u_nto u$ in the $H^1(Omega)$-norm, then use trace inequality we will see the contradiction in which zero is greater than or equal to a positive number.




    If you are not satisfying with the existence of the "non-zero trace" part, we could circumvent this by using the surjectivity of the trace operator, define its right inverse as
    $$
    mathscrI: H^1/2(partial Omega)longrightarrow H^1(Omega)
    $$
    serving like an extension of any function defined on boundary to the interior, and $T(mathscrIg) = g$ for any $gin H^1/2(partial Omega)$, prescribe any $gin H^1/2(partial Omega)$, say $g = 1$ on $partial Omega$, let $u = mathscrIg$.




    Counter-example on $Omega = (0,1)$:



    Let $u = 1in H^1(Omega) = W^1,2(Omega)$, suppose we have a sequence $u_n subset C^infty_0(Omega)$ such that
    $$
    | u - u_n|^2_H^1(Omega) = | u - u_n|^2_L^2(Omega) +
    | u'_n|^2_L^2(Omega) longrightarrow 0
    $$
    so for any $epsilon>0$ we could find $N>0$ for all $n>N$:
    $$
    | u - u_n|_L^2(Omega) < epsilon, text and ; |u'_n|_L^2(Omega) < epsilon
    $$
    By triangle inequality:
    $$
    left|| u|_L^2(Omega) - | u_n|_L^2(Omega)right| leq | u - u_n|_L^2(Omega) < epsilon
    $$
    due to $| u|_L^2(Omega) = 1$, above implies
    $$
    1-epsilon < | u_n|_L^2(Omega) < 1+epsilon
    $$
    Now we would like to argue like the proof for Poincaré inequality to reach the contradiction, for 1 dimensional case it is very straightforward, for any $xin Omega$ we have:
    $$
    |u_n(x) - u_n(0)| = left| int^x_0 u'_n(t),dtright| leq
    left| int^1_0 u'_n(t)^2,dtright|^frac12 ;
    left| int^1_0 1^2,dtright|^frac12 = |u'_n|_L^2(Omega)
    $$
    This implies $displaystylesup_xinOmega|u_n(x)| leq |u'_n|_L^2(Omega)$, therefore combining everything we have would lead us to the following:
    $$
    1-epsilon < | u_n|_L^2(Omega) leq
    left| int^1_0 sup_tinOmega|u_n(t)|^2,dtright|^frac12 = sup_xinOmega|u_n(x)| leq |u'_n|_L^2(Omega) < epsilon
    $$
    which is a contradiction, hence such sequence $u_n subset C^infty_0(Omega)$ does not exist.




    A last remark: Why would the density argument of $C^infty_0(Omega)$ is true for the whole space is because of the decaying property of both the function itself and the derivative of the $W^k,p$-functions, for something to be $L^p$-integrable on the whole space, its integration must be small outside a ball of certain size, however for bounded domain, decaying property does not hold any more unless you add the compactly-supported condition.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      thanks for your reply. I'm wondering if it is possible to argue the specific case mentioned above($C^infty_0((0,1))$) without trace? Preferably, a counter-example would be selfstanding.
      $endgroup$
      – newbie
      May 7 '12 at 5:10










    • $begingroup$
      @newbie Edited the counter-example into my answer.
      $endgroup$
      – Shuhao Cao
      May 7 '12 at 6:32










    • $begingroup$
      It is crystal clear. Thanks a lot!
      $endgroup$
      – newbie
      May 7 '12 at 6:38










    • $begingroup$
      Hey, sorry I got one more question. In the estimation of sup, is $u^n(0) = 0$ from definition of $C^infty_0((0,1))$?
      $endgroup$
      – newbie
      May 7 '12 at 6:57











    • $begingroup$
      @newbie Yes, $C^infty_0((0,1))$ normally denotes the compactly supported infinitely differentiable functions on $(0,1)$, the compact supportedness means it is zero on some small neighborhood of the interval's end points.
      $endgroup$
      – Shuhao Cao
      May 7 '12 at 7:05















    12












    $begingroup$

    Just like Chris said in his comment, let us suppose we have a bounded Lipschitz domain $Omegasubset mathbbR^d$, $C^infty_0(Omega)$ fails to approximate an arbitrary $W^k,p(Omega)$-function unless you set the boundary value to be 0.



    A possible argument could be constructed using the trace theorem. Roughly speaking, denote $H^1(Omega) := W^1,2(Omega)$, let
    $$
    T: H^1(Omega) longrightarrow H^1/2(partial Omega)
    $$
    be the trace operator. Suppose we prescribe a $uin H^1(Omega)$, which has a non-zero trace, leading us to the trace inequality
    $$
    |Tu |_H^1/2(partial Omega) leq c| u |_H^1(Omega)
    $$
    Now assume we have a sequence $u_nsubset C^infty_0(Omega) subset H^1(Omega)$, such that $u_nto u$ in the $H^1(Omega)$-norm, then use trace inequality we will see the contradiction in which zero is greater than or equal to a positive number.




    If you are not satisfying with the existence of the "non-zero trace" part, we could circumvent this by using the surjectivity of the trace operator, define its right inverse as
    $$
    mathscrI: H^1/2(partial Omega)longrightarrow H^1(Omega)
    $$
    serving like an extension of any function defined on boundary to the interior, and $T(mathscrIg) = g$ for any $gin H^1/2(partial Omega)$, prescribe any $gin H^1/2(partial Omega)$, say $g = 1$ on $partial Omega$, let $u = mathscrIg$.




    Counter-example on $Omega = (0,1)$:



    Let $u = 1in H^1(Omega) = W^1,2(Omega)$, suppose we have a sequence $u_n subset C^infty_0(Omega)$ such that
    $$
    | u - u_n|^2_H^1(Omega) = | u - u_n|^2_L^2(Omega) +
    | u'_n|^2_L^2(Omega) longrightarrow 0
    $$
    so for any $epsilon>0$ we could find $N>0$ for all $n>N$:
    $$
    | u - u_n|_L^2(Omega) < epsilon, text and ; |u'_n|_L^2(Omega) < epsilon
    $$
    By triangle inequality:
    $$
    left|| u|_L^2(Omega) - | u_n|_L^2(Omega)right| leq | u - u_n|_L^2(Omega) < epsilon
    $$
    due to $| u|_L^2(Omega) = 1$, above implies
    $$
    1-epsilon < | u_n|_L^2(Omega) < 1+epsilon
    $$
    Now we would like to argue like the proof for Poincaré inequality to reach the contradiction, for 1 dimensional case it is very straightforward, for any $xin Omega$ we have:
    $$
    |u_n(x) - u_n(0)| = left| int^x_0 u'_n(t),dtright| leq
    left| int^1_0 u'_n(t)^2,dtright|^frac12 ;
    left| int^1_0 1^2,dtright|^frac12 = |u'_n|_L^2(Omega)
    $$
    This implies $displaystylesup_xinOmega|u_n(x)| leq |u'_n|_L^2(Omega)$, therefore combining everything we have would lead us to the following:
    $$
    1-epsilon < | u_n|_L^2(Omega) leq
    left| int^1_0 sup_tinOmega|u_n(t)|^2,dtright|^frac12 = sup_xinOmega|u_n(x)| leq |u'_n|_L^2(Omega) < epsilon
    $$
    which is a contradiction, hence such sequence $u_n subset C^infty_0(Omega)$ does not exist.




    A last remark: Why would the density argument of $C^infty_0(Omega)$ is true for the whole space is because of the decaying property of both the function itself and the derivative of the $W^k,p$-functions, for something to be $L^p$-integrable on the whole space, its integration must be small outside a ball of certain size, however for bounded domain, decaying property does not hold any more unless you add the compactly-supported condition.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      thanks for your reply. I'm wondering if it is possible to argue the specific case mentioned above($C^infty_0((0,1))$) without trace? Preferably, a counter-example would be selfstanding.
      $endgroup$
      – newbie
      May 7 '12 at 5:10










    • $begingroup$
      @newbie Edited the counter-example into my answer.
      $endgroup$
      – Shuhao Cao
      May 7 '12 at 6:32










    • $begingroup$
      It is crystal clear. Thanks a lot!
      $endgroup$
      – newbie
      May 7 '12 at 6:38










    • $begingroup$
      Hey, sorry I got one more question. In the estimation of sup, is $u^n(0) = 0$ from definition of $C^infty_0((0,1))$?
      $endgroup$
      – newbie
      May 7 '12 at 6:57











    • $begingroup$
      @newbie Yes, $C^infty_0((0,1))$ normally denotes the compactly supported infinitely differentiable functions on $(0,1)$, the compact supportedness means it is zero on some small neighborhood of the interval's end points.
      $endgroup$
      – Shuhao Cao
      May 7 '12 at 7:05













    12












    12








    12





    $begingroup$

    Just like Chris said in his comment, let us suppose we have a bounded Lipschitz domain $Omegasubset mathbbR^d$, $C^infty_0(Omega)$ fails to approximate an arbitrary $W^k,p(Omega)$-function unless you set the boundary value to be 0.



    A possible argument could be constructed using the trace theorem. Roughly speaking, denote $H^1(Omega) := W^1,2(Omega)$, let
    $$
    T: H^1(Omega) longrightarrow H^1/2(partial Omega)
    $$
    be the trace operator. Suppose we prescribe a $uin H^1(Omega)$, which has a non-zero trace, leading us to the trace inequality
    $$
    |Tu |_H^1/2(partial Omega) leq c| u |_H^1(Omega)
    $$
    Now assume we have a sequence $u_nsubset C^infty_0(Omega) subset H^1(Omega)$, such that $u_nto u$ in the $H^1(Omega)$-norm, then use trace inequality we will see the contradiction in which zero is greater than or equal to a positive number.




    If you are not satisfying with the existence of the "non-zero trace" part, we could circumvent this by using the surjectivity of the trace operator, define its right inverse as
    $$
    mathscrI: H^1/2(partial Omega)longrightarrow H^1(Omega)
    $$
    serving like an extension of any function defined on boundary to the interior, and $T(mathscrIg) = g$ for any $gin H^1/2(partial Omega)$, prescribe any $gin H^1/2(partial Omega)$, say $g = 1$ on $partial Omega$, let $u = mathscrIg$.




    Counter-example on $Omega = (0,1)$:



    Let $u = 1in H^1(Omega) = W^1,2(Omega)$, suppose we have a sequence $u_n subset C^infty_0(Omega)$ such that
    $$
    | u - u_n|^2_H^1(Omega) = | u - u_n|^2_L^2(Omega) +
    | u'_n|^2_L^2(Omega) longrightarrow 0
    $$
    so for any $epsilon>0$ we could find $N>0$ for all $n>N$:
    $$
    | u - u_n|_L^2(Omega) < epsilon, text and ; |u'_n|_L^2(Omega) < epsilon
    $$
    By triangle inequality:
    $$
    left|| u|_L^2(Omega) - | u_n|_L^2(Omega)right| leq | u - u_n|_L^2(Omega) < epsilon
    $$
    due to $| u|_L^2(Omega) = 1$, above implies
    $$
    1-epsilon < | u_n|_L^2(Omega) < 1+epsilon
    $$
    Now we would like to argue like the proof for Poincaré inequality to reach the contradiction, for 1 dimensional case it is very straightforward, for any $xin Omega$ we have:
    $$
    |u_n(x) - u_n(0)| = left| int^x_0 u'_n(t),dtright| leq
    left| int^1_0 u'_n(t)^2,dtright|^frac12 ;
    left| int^1_0 1^2,dtright|^frac12 = |u'_n|_L^2(Omega)
    $$
    This implies $displaystylesup_xinOmega|u_n(x)| leq |u'_n|_L^2(Omega)$, therefore combining everything we have would lead us to the following:
    $$
    1-epsilon < | u_n|_L^2(Omega) leq
    left| int^1_0 sup_tinOmega|u_n(t)|^2,dtright|^frac12 = sup_xinOmega|u_n(x)| leq |u'_n|_L^2(Omega) < epsilon
    $$
    which is a contradiction, hence such sequence $u_n subset C^infty_0(Omega)$ does not exist.




    A last remark: Why would the density argument of $C^infty_0(Omega)$ is true for the whole space is because of the decaying property of both the function itself and the derivative of the $W^k,p$-functions, for something to be $L^p$-integrable on the whole space, its integration must be small outside a ball of certain size, however for bounded domain, decaying property does not hold any more unless you add the compactly-supported condition.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$



    Just like Chris said in his comment, let us suppose we have a bounded Lipschitz domain $Omegasubset mathbbR^d$, $C^infty_0(Omega)$ fails to approximate an arbitrary $W^k,p(Omega)$-function unless you set the boundary value to be 0.



    A possible argument could be constructed using the trace theorem. Roughly speaking, denote $H^1(Omega) := W^1,2(Omega)$, let
    $$
    T: H^1(Omega) longrightarrow H^1/2(partial Omega)
    $$
    be the trace operator. Suppose we prescribe a $uin H^1(Omega)$, which has a non-zero trace, leading us to the trace inequality
    $$
    |Tu |_H^1/2(partial Omega) leq c| u |_H^1(Omega)
    $$
    Now assume we have a sequence $u_nsubset C^infty_0(Omega) subset H^1(Omega)$, such that $u_nto u$ in the $H^1(Omega)$-norm, then use trace inequality we will see the contradiction in which zero is greater than or equal to a positive number.




    If you are not satisfying with the existence of the "non-zero trace" part, we could circumvent this by using the surjectivity of the trace operator, define its right inverse as
    $$
    mathscrI: H^1/2(partial Omega)longrightarrow H^1(Omega)
    $$
    serving like an extension of any function defined on boundary to the interior, and $T(mathscrIg) = g$ for any $gin H^1/2(partial Omega)$, prescribe any $gin H^1/2(partial Omega)$, say $g = 1$ on $partial Omega$, let $u = mathscrIg$.




    Counter-example on $Omega = (0,1)$:



    Let $u = 1in H^1(Omega) = W^1,2(Omega)$, suppose we have a sequence $u_n subset C^infty_0(Omega)$ such that
    $$
    | u - u_n|^2_H^1(Omega) = | u - u_n|^2_L^2(Omega) +
    | u'_n|^2_L^2(Omega) longrightarrow 0
    $$
    so for any $epsilon>0$ we could find $N>0$ for all $n>N$:
    $$
    | u - u_n|_L^2(Omega) < epsilon, text and ; |u'_n|_L^2(Omega) < epsilon
    $$
    By triangle inequality:
    $$
    left|| u|_L^2(Omega) - | u_n|_L^2(Omega)right| leq | u - u_n|_L^2(Omega) < epsilon
    $$
    due to $| u|_L^2(Omega) = 1$, above implies
    $$
    1-epsilon < | u_n|_L^2(Omega) < 1+epsilon
    $$
    Now we would like to argue like the proof for Poincaré inequality to reach the contradiction, for 1 dimensional case it is very straightforward, for any $xin Omega$ we have:
    $$
    |u_n(x) - u_n(0)| = left| int^x_0 u'_n(t),dtright| leq
    left| int^1_0 u'_n(t)^2,dtright|^frac12 ;
    left| int^1_0 1^2,dtright|^frac12 = |u'_n|_L^2(Omega)
    $$
    This implies $displaystylesup_xinOmega|u_n(x)| leq |u'_n|_L^2(Omega)$, therefore combining everything we have would lead us to the following:
    $$
    1-epsilon < | u_n|_L^2(Omega) leq
    left| int^1_0 sup_tinOmega|u_n(t)|^2,dtright|^frac12 = sup_xinOmega|u_n(x)| leq |u'_n|_L^2(Omega) < epsilon
    $$
    which is a contradiction, hence such sequence $u_n subset C^infty_0(Omega)$ does not exist.




    A last remark: Why would the density argument of $C^infty_0(Omega)$ is true for the whole space is because of the decaying property of both the function itself and the derivative of the $W^k,p$-functions, for something to be $L^p$-integrable on the whole space, its integration must be small outside a ball of certain size, however for bounded domain, decaying property does not hold any more unless you add the compactly-supported condition.







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited May 7 '12 at 6:40

























    answered May 5 '12 at 6:02









    Shuhao CaoShuhao Cao

    16.2k34293




    16.2k34293











    • $begingroup$
      thanks for your reply. I'm wondering if it is possible to argue the specific case mentioned above($C^infty_0((0,1))$) without trace? Preferably, a counter-example would be selfstanding.
      $endgroup$
      – newbie
      May 7 '12 at 5:10










    • $begingroup$
      @newbie Edited the counter-example into my answer.
      $endgroup$
      – Shuhao Cao
      May 7 '12 at 6:32










    • $begingroup$
      It is crystal clear. Thanks a lot!
      $endgroup$
      – newbie
      May 7 '12 at 6:38










    • $begingroup$
      Hey, sorry I got one more question. In the estimation of sup, is $u^n(0) = 0$ from definition of $C^infty_0((0,1))$?
      $endgroup$
      – newbie
      May 7 '12 at 6:57











    • $begingroup$
      @newbie Yes, $C^infty_0((0,1))$ normally denotes the compactly supported infinitely differentiable functions on $(0,1)$, the compact supportedness means it is zero on some small neighborhood of the interval's end points.
      $endgroup$
      – Shuhao Cao
      May 7 '12 at 7:05
















    • $begingroup$
      thanks for your reply. I'm wondering if it is possible to argue the specific case mentioned above($C^infty_0((0,1))$) without trace? Preferably, a counter-example would be selfstanding.
      $endgroup$
      – newbie
      May 7 '12 at 5:10










    • $begingroup$
      @newbie Edited the counter-example into my answer.
      $endgroup$
      – Shuhao Cao
      May 7 '12 at 6:32










    • $begingroup$
      It is crystal clear. Thanks a lot!
      $endgroup$
      – newbie
      May 7 '12 at 6:38










    • $begingroup$
      Hey, sorry I got one more question. In the estimation of sup, is $u^n(0) = 0$ from definition of $C^infty_0((0,1))$?
      $endgroup$
      – newbie
      May 7 '12 at 6:57











    • $begingroup$
      @newbie Yes, $C^infty_0((0,1))$ normally denotes the compactly supported infinitely differentiable functions on $(0,1)$, the compact supportedness means it is zero on some small neighborhood of the interval's end points.
      $endgroup$
      – Shuhao Cao
      May 7 '12 at 7:05















    $begingroup$
    thanks for your reply. I'm wondering if it is possible to argue the specific case mentioned above($C^infty_0((0,1))$) without trace? Preferably, a counter-example would be selfstanding.
    $endgroup$
    – newbie
    May 7 '12 at 5:10




    $begingroup$
    thanks for your reply. I'm wondering if it is possible to argue the specific case mentioned above($C^infty_0((0,1))$) without trace? Preferably, a counter-example would be selfstanding.
    $endgroup$
    – newbie
    May 7 '12 at 5:10












    $begingroup$
    @newbie Edited the counter-example into my answer.
    $endgroup$
    – Shuhao Cao
    May 7 '12 at 6:32




    $begingroup$
    @newbie Edited the counter-example into my answer.
    $endgroup$
    – Shuhao Cao
    May 7 '12 at 6:32












    $begingroup$
    It is crystal clear. Thanks a lot!
    $endgroup$
    – newbie
    May 7 '12 at 6:38




    $begingroup$
    It is crystal clear. Thanks a lot!
    $endgroup$
    – newbie
    May 7 '12 at 6:38












    $begingroup$
    Hey, sorry I got one more question. In the estimation of sup, is $u^n(0) = 0$ from definition of $C^infty_0((0,1))$?
    $endgroup$
    – newbie
    May 7 '12 at 6:57





    $begingroup$
    Hey, sorry I got one more question. In the estimation of sup, is $u^n(0) = 0$ from definition of $C^infty_0((0,1))$?
    $endgroup$
    – newbie
    May 7 '12 at 6:57













    $begingroup$
    @newbie Yes, $C^infty_0((0,1))$ normally denotes the compactly supported infinitely differentiable functions on $(0,1)$, the compact supportedness means it is zero on some small neighborhood of the interval's end points.
    $endgroup$
    – Shuhao Cao
    May 7 '12 at 7:05




    $begingroup$
    @newbie Yes, $C^infty_0((0,1))$ normally denotes the compactly supported infinitely differentiable functions on $(0,1)$, the compact supportedness means it is zero on some small neighborhood of the interval's end points.
    $endgroup$
    – Shuhao Cao
    May 7 '12 at 7:05











    0












    $begingroup$

    Let $f(x) = cosh(x) = tfrace^x+e^-x2$ for $xin (a,b)$. Then obviously $fin C^infty(a,b)subset H^1(a,b)$ with $f'' = f$. Hence, for all $uin C_0^infty(a,b)$ we have
    $$
    (f,u)_H^1 = (f,u) + (f',u') = (f,u) + [f'overline u]_a^b - (f'',u) = (f-f'',u) = 0.
    $$

    Therefore $C_0^infty(a,b)$ is not dense in $H^1(a,b)$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$

















      0












      $begingroup$

      Let $f(x) = cosh(x) = tfrace^x+e^-x2$ for $xin (a,b)$. Then obviously $fin C^infty(a,b)subset H^1(a,b)$ with $f'' = f$. Hence, for all $uin C_0^infty(a,b)$ we have
      $$
      (f,u)_H^1 = (f,u) + (f',u') = (f,u) + [f'overline u]_a^b - (f'',u) = (f-f'',u) = 0.
      $$

      Therefore $C_0^infty(a,b)$ is not dense in $H^1(a,b)$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        Let $f(x) = cosh(x) = tfrace^x+e^-x2$ for $xin (a,b)$. Then obviously $fin C^infty(a,b)subset H^1(a,b)$ with $f'' = f$. Hence, for all $uin C_0^infty(a,b)$ we have
        $$
        (f,u)_H^1 = (f,u) + (f',u') = (f,u) + [f'overline u]_a^b - (f'',u) = (f-f'',u) = 0.
        $$

        Therefore $C_0^infty(a,b)$ is not dense in $H^1(a,b)$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Let $f(x) = cosh(x) = tfrace^x+e^-x2$ for $xin (a,b)$. Then obviously $fin C^infty(a,b)subset H^1(a,b)$ with $f'' = f$. Hence, for all $uin C_0^infty(a,b)$ we have
        $$
        (f,u)_H^1 = (f,u) + (f',u') = (f,u) + [f'overline u]_a^b - (f'',u) = (f-f'',u) = 0.
        $$

        Therefore $C_0^infty(a,b)$ is not dense in $H^1(a,b)$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Mar 22 at 0:48









        Friedrich PhilippFriedrich Philipp

        3,350414




        3,350414



























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