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What is the average efficiency of this function?


Quick sort algorithm average case complexity analysisHow to calculate the probability that the average of a multinomial process exceeds some valueProbability of swapping elements in an arrayBernoulli Experiment with infinite trials.Understanding Cumulative distribution functionAverage-case cost analysis of the Hiring problem.What is minimum and maximum probabilityProbability of rolling a specific average (4, 5) with a six-sided die over n-rollsDefine a function that has a minimum given these probabilities.what is the average cost of a product, given the cost of each case and its probability













0












$begingroup$


Let's say you had an algorithm which worked to find the minimum and maximum values of an array n values long by looking through each value of the array, comparing it to the current maximum value, then if it wasn't greater than that value, it compared it to the current minimum value (both initially set equal to the value of the first value of the array).



As a result, its best case efficiency function was $(n-1)$, while its worst case is $2(n-1)$. Since both are Big O(n), that means that the average case also has to be Big O(n). The material I have says that its average efficiency is $2n-ln(n)-1$.



I'm not certain why this is the case; if there is a probability p that each element is greater than the current maximum, wouldn't you get a binomial probability distribution centered around $(n-1)*p$ "successes", and an average efficiency of about $2(n-1)(p)+(n-1)(1-p)$? Where does the $ln(n)$ come in? Is it from assuming that you're less likely to find a new maximum value as the maximum value increases, or something?










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New contributor




nick012000 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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  • $begingroup$
    Welcome to MSE. Please edit and use MathJax to properly format math expressions. BTW, your tags are misleading.
    $endgroup$
    – Lee David Chung Lin
    Mar 14 at 5:17










  • $begingroup$
    What would I even change with that “MathJax” stuff? All my equations look fine to me. Also, how are my tags misleading?
    $endgroup$
    – nick012000
    Mar 15 at 1:35










  • $begingroup$
    For example, the consensus is that $2(n-1)p+(n-1)(1-p)$ looks nicer than 2(n-1)(p)+(n-1)(1-p) and $O(n)$ is better than O(n).
    $endgroup$
    – Lee David Chung Lin
    Mar 15 at 1:37
















0












$begingroup$


Let's say you had an algorithm which worked to find the minimum and maximum values of an array n values long by looking through each value of the array, comparing it to the current maximum value, then if it wasn't greater than that value, it compared it to the current minimum value (both initially set equal to the value of the first value of the array).



As a result, its best case efficiency function was $(n-1)$, while its worst case is $2(n-1)$. Since both are Big O(n), that means that the average case also has to be Big O(n). The material I have says that its average efficiency is $2n-ln(n)-1$.



I'm not certain why this is the case; if there is a probability p that each element is greater than the current maximum, wouldn't you get a binomial probability distribution centered around $(n-1)*p$ "successes", and an average efficiency of about $2(n-1)(p)+(n-1)(1-p)$? Where does the $ln(n)$ come in? Is it from assuming that you're less likely to find a new maximum value as the maximum value increases, or something?










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




nick012000 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    Welcome to MSE. Please edit and use MathJax to properly format math expressions. BTW, your tags are misleading.
    $endgroup$
    – Lee David Chung Lin
    Mar 14 at 5:17










  • $begingroup$
    What would I even change with that “MathJax” stuff? All my equations look fine to me. Also, how are my tags misleading?
    $endgroup$
    – nick012000
    Mar 15 at 1:35










  • $begingroup$
    For example, the consensus is that $2(n-1)p+(n-1)(1-p)$ looks nicer than 2(n-1)(p)+(n-1)(1-p) and $O(n)$ is better than O(n).
    $endgroup$
    – Lee David Chung Lin
    Mar 15 at 1:37














0












0








0





$begingroup$


Let's say you had an algorithm which worked to find the minimum and maximum values of an array n values long by looking through each value of the array, comparing it to the current maximum value, then if it wasn't greater than that value, it compared it to the current minimum value (both initially set equal to the value of the first value of the array).



As a result, its best case efficiency function was $(n-1)$, while its worst case is $2(n-1)$. Since both are Big O(n), that means that the average case also has to be Big O(n). The material I have says that its average efficiency is $2n-ln(n)-1$.



I'm not certain why this is the case; if there is a probability p that each element is greater than the current maximum, wouldn't you get a binomial probability distribution centered around $(n-1)*p$ "successes", and an average efficiency of about $2(n-1)(p)+(n-1)(1-p)$? Where does the $ln(n)$ come in? Is it from assuming that you're less likely to find a new maximum value as the maximum value increases, or something?










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




nick012000 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$




Let's say you had an algorithm which worked to find the minimum and maximum values of an array n values long by looking through each value of the array, comparing it to the current maximum value, then if it wasn't greater than that value, it compared it to the current minimum value (both initially set equal to the value of the first value of the array).



As a result, its best case efficiency function was $(n-1)$, while its worst case is $2(n-1)$. Since both are Big O(n), that means that the average case also has to be Big O(n). The material I have says that its average efficiency is $2n-ln(n)-1$.



I'm not certain why this is the case; if there is a probability p that each element is greater than the current maximum, wouldn't you get a binomial probability distribution centered around $(n-1)*p$ "successes", and an average efficiency of about $2(n-1)(p)+(n-1)(1-p)$? Where does the $ln(n)$ come in? Is it from assuming that you're less likely to find a new maximum value as the maximum value increases, or something?







probability probability-distributions asymptotics






share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




nick012000 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




nick012000 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Mar 15 at 1:43







nick012000













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nick012000 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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asked Mar 14 at 4:51









nick012000nick012000

1033




1033




New contributor




nick012000 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.





New contributor





nick012000 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






nick012000 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











  • $begingroup$
    Welcome to MSE. Please edit and use MathJax to properly format math expressions. BTW, your tags are misleading.
    $endgroup$
    – Lee David Chung Lin
    Mar 14 at 5:17










  • $begingroup$
    What would I even change with that “MathJax” stuff? All my equations look fine to me. Also, how are my tags misleading?
    $endgroup$
    – nick012000
    Mar 15 at 1:35










  • $begingroup$
    For example, the consensus is that $2(n-1)p+(n-1)(1-p)$ looks nicer than 2(n-1)(p)+(n-1)(1-p) and $O(n)$ is better than O(n).
    $endgroup$
    – Lee David Chung Lin
    Mar 15 at 1:37

















  • $begingroup$
    Welcome to MSE. Please edit and use MathJax to properly format math expressions. BTW, your tags are misleading.
    $endgroup$
    – Lee David Chung Lin
    Mar 14 at 5:17










  • $begingroup$
    What would I even change with that “MathJax” stuff? All my equations look fine to me. Also, how are my tags misleading?
    $endgroup$
    – nick012000
    Mar 15 at 1:35










  • $begingroup$
    For example, the consensus is that $2(n-1)p+(n-1)(1-p)$ looks nicer than 2(n-1)(p)+(n-1)(1-p) and $O(n)$ is better than O(n).
    $endgroup$
    – Lee David Chung Lin
    Mar 15 at 1:37
















$begingroup$
Welcome to MSE. Please edit and use MathJax to properly format math expressions. BTW, your tags are misleading.
$endgroup$
– Lee David Chung Lin
Mar 14 at 5:17




$begingroup$
Welcome to MSE. Please edit and use MathJax to properly format math expressions. BTW, your tags are misleading.
$endgroup$
– Lee David Chung Lin
Mar 14 at 5:17












$begingroup$
What would I even change with that “MathJax” stuff? All my equations look fine to me. Also, how are my tags misleading?
$endgroup$
– nick012000
Mar 15 at 1:35




$begingroup$
What would I even change with that “MathJax” stuff? All my equations look fine to me. Also, how are my tags misleading?
$endgroup$
– nick012000
Mar 15 at 1:35












$begingroup$
For example, the consensus is that $2(n-1)p+(n-1)(1-p)$ looks nicer than 2(n-1)(p)+(n-1)(1-p) and $O(n)$ is better than O(n).
$endgroup$
– Lee David Chung Lin
Mar 15 at 1:37





$begingroup$
For example, the consensus is that $2(n-1)p+(n-1)(1-p)$ looks nicer than 2(n-1)(p)+(n-1)(1-p) and $O(n)$ is better than O(n).
$endgroup$
– Lee David Chung Lin
Mar 15 at 1:37











1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

Pls do what @LeeDavidChungLin said - even if this answer resolves your question. :)



Meanwhile, the answer to your last question is Yes...kinda.



There is no assumption that as you progress, Prob(current entry > current max) decreases.



Rather, the assumption is that the input array is randomly ordered to begin with, i.e. any of $n!$ permutations is equally likely.



Under this assumption, when you're examining the $k$th entry, Prob($k$th entry > current max) = $1/k$, because any permutation of the initial $k$-long subsequence is equally likely.



In other words, the decrease in probability is not an assumption by itself, but rather, a consequence of the (very reasonable) "random permutation" assumption.



Finally, $ln n$ comes from an approximation to $sum^n_k=1 1over k$.






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    1 Answer
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    1












    $begingroup$

    Pls do what @LeeDavidChungLin said - even if this answer resolves your question. :)



    Meanwhile, the answer to your last question is Yes...kinda.



    There is no assumption that as you progress, Prob(current entry > current max) decreases.



    Rather, the assumption is that the input array is randomly ordered to begin with, i.e. any of $n!$ permutations is equally likely.



    Under this assumption, when you're examining the $k$th entry, Prob($k$th entry > current max) = $1/k$, because any permutation of the initial $k$-long subsequence is equally likely.



    In other words, the decrease in probability is not an assumption by itself, but rather, a consequence of the (very reasonable) "random permutation" assumption.



    Finally, $ln n$ comes from an approximation to $sum^n_k=1 1over k$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$

















      1












      $begingroup$

      Pls do what @LeeDavidChungLin said - even if this answer resolves your question. :)



      Meanwhile, the answer to your last question is Yes...kinda.



      There is no assumption that as you progress, Prob(current entry > current max) decreases.



      Rather, the assumption is that the input array is randomly ordered to begin with, i.e. any of $n!$ permutations is equally likely.



      Under this assumption, when you're examining the $k$th entry, Prob($k$th entry > current max) = $1/k$, because any permutation of the initial $k$-long subsequence is equally likely.



      In other words, the decrease in probability is not an assumption by itself, but rather, a consequence of the (very reasonable) "random permutation" assumption.



      Finally, $ln n$ comes from an approximation to $sum^n_k=1 1over k$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        Pls do what @LeeDavidChungLin said - even if this answer resolves your question. :)



        Meanwhile, the answer to your last question is Yes...kinda.



        There is no assumption that as you progress, Prob(current entry > current max) decreases.



        Rather, the assumption is that the input array is randomly ordered to begin with, i.e. any of $n!$ permutations is equally likely.



        Under this assumption, when you're examining the $k$th entry, Prob($k$th entry > current max) = $1/k$, because any permutation of the initial $k$-long subsequence is equally likely.



        In other words, the decrease in probability is not an assumption by itself, but rather, a consequence of the (very reasonable) "random permutation" assumption.



        Finally, $ln n$ comes from an approximation to $sum^n_k=1 1over k$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Pls do what @LeeDavidChungLin said - even if this answer resolves your question. :)



        Meanwhile, the answer to your last question is Yes...kinda.



        There is no assumption that as you progress, Prob(current entry > current max) decreases.



        Rather, the assumption is that the input array is randomly ordered to begin with, i.e. any of $n!$ permutations is equally likely.



        Under this assumption, when you're examining the $k$th entry, Prob($k$th entry > current max) = $1/k$, because any permutation of the initial $k$-long subsequence is equally likely.



        In other words, the decrease in probability is not an assumption by itself, but rather, a consequence of the (very reasonable) "random permutation" assumption.



        Finally, $ln n$ comes from an approximation to $sum^n_k=1 1over k$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Mar 14 at 5:59









        antkamantkam

        2,192212




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