Prove improper integral exists and continuously differentiableShowing $intlimits_a^b h(x)sin(nx) dx rightarrow 0$Swapping integral and limit - exampleuniform limit of step functionProve that the improper integral convergesA question related to Limit on Improper integralSwapping an improper integral and seriesA continuously differentiable function is weakly differentiableEvaluate $lim_nrightarrowinfty int_0^1 f(x^n) dx$Limit of a continuously differentiable functionDetermine pointwise and uniform convergence of a given sequence of functions and calculate an integral
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Prove improper integral exists and continuously differentiable
Showing $intlimits_a^b h(x)sin(nx) dx rightarrow 0$Swapping integral and limit - exampleuniform limit of step functionProve that the improper integral convergesA question related to Limit on Improper integralSwapping an improper integral and seriesA continuously differentiable function is weakly differentiableEvaluate $lim_nrightarrowinfty int_0^1 f(x^n) dx$Limit of a continuously differentiable functionDetermine pointwise and uniform convergence of a given sequence of functions and calculate an integral
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For $xin(0,infty)$, let $F(x)=int_0^inftyfrac1-e^-txt^frac32 dt$. Show that $F:(0,infty)to(0,infty)$ is well-defined, bijective and has continuous non-zero derivative.
I don't know what argument to say about bijectivity. And for derivative exists I suppose we use uniform convergence on compact interval which enables us to interchange limit and integration, but does that mean we have to cut $(0,infty)$ into three parts? As for showing derivative is continuous, it just sounds like a lot of calculation...
real-analysis
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For $xin(0,infty)$, let $F(x)=int_0^inftyfrac1-e^-txt^frac32 dt$. Show that $F:(0,infty)to(0,infty)$ is well-defined, bijective and has continuous non-zero derivative.
I don't know what argument to say about bijectivity. And for derivative exists I suppose we use uniform convergence on compact interval which enables us to interchange limit and integration, but does that mean we have to cut $(0,infty)$ into three parts? As for showing derivative is continuous, it just sounds like a lot of calculation...
real-analysis
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For $xin(0,infty)$, let $F(x)=int_0^inftyfrac1-e^-txt^frac32 dt$. Show that $F:(0,infty)to(0,infty)$ is well-defined, bijective and has continuous non-zero derivative.
I don't know what argument to say about bijectivity. And for derivative exists I suppose we use uniform convergence on compact interval which enables us to interchange limit and integration, but does that mean we have to cut $(0,infty)$ into three parts? As for showing derivative is continuous, it just sounds like a lot of calculation...
real-analysis
$endgroup$
For $xin(0,infty)$, let $F(x)=int_0^inftyfrac1-e^-txt^frac32 dt$. Show that $F:(0,infty)to(0,infty)$ is well-defined, bijective and has continuous non-zero derivative.
I don't know what argument to say about bijectivity. And for derivative exists I suppose we use uniform convergence on compact interval which enables us to interchange limit and integration, but does that mean we have to cut $(0,infty)$ into three parts? As for showing derivative is continuous, it just sounds like a lot of calculation...
real-analysis
real-analysis
edited Mar 14 at 19:39
Fluffy Skye
asked Mar 14 at 6:53
Fluffy SkyeFluffy Skye
31919
31919
add a comment |
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
To see that $F$ is well defined, you have to study separately the two singularities of $$f(t) = frac1-e^-xtt^3/2$$
For $t to 0^+$ you have
$$frac1-e^-xtt^3/2 sim fracxtt^3/2 = fracxt^1/2$$
since $int_0^1 fracxt^1/2 dt$ converges, you have convergence of $int_0^1 f(t) dt$.
For $t to + infty$ you have
$$frac1-e^-xtt^3/2 sim frac1t^3/2$$
since $int_1^+infty frac1t^3/2 dt$ converges, you have convergence of $int_1^+infty f(t) dt$.
This shows that $F$ is well defined for all $x$.
Now, for $0<x_1 < x_2$ and for all $t > 0$ you have
$$frac1-e^-x_1tt^3/2<frac1-e^-x_2tt^3/2$$
thus integrating you have
$$int_0^+ infty frac1-e^-x_1tt^3/2 mathrm dt <int_0^+ infty frac1-e^-x_2tt^3/2 mathrm dt$$
This shows that $F$ is strictly increasing on $(0, + infty)$. In particular it is injective. To show that it is bijective it is enough to prove continuity. To show that $F$ is continuous, it is enough to prove that $F$ is differentiable.
This seems quite complicated.
HOWEVER:
Note that, if you call $u=xt$, then your function becomes:
$$F(x)=sqrtx int_0^+ infty frac1-e^-uu^3/2 mathrm du = F(1) sqrt x$$
which is a well-known function: continuous, strictly increasing, differentiable and bijective.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Say we didn't notice that $F(x) = F(1)sqrtx$ and we wanted to differentiate $F$ by dominating $$fracddxleft(frac1-e^-txt^3/2right) = frace^-txsqrtt$$ by an integrable function on $(0,+infty)$ independent of $x$. I haven't been able to come up with the dominating function. Clearly $frace^-txsqrtt le frac1sqrtt$ for $t le 1$ but for $t ge 1$ what to dominate it with?
$endgroup$
– mechanodroid
Mar 14 at 9:58
$begingroup$
For $t ge 1$, $frace^-txsqrtt le e^-tx$.
$endgroup$
– Crostul
Mar 14 at 10:25
$begingroup$
Unfortunately this is not independent of $x$. And you cannot say $e^-tx le e^-t$ for $x < 1$. My other attempt was $$frace^-txsqrtt le frac1sqrtt(1+tx)$$ but again I was unable to eliminate $x$.
$endgroup$
– mechanodroid
Mar 14 at 10:27
1
$begingroup$
@mechanodroid If we had $e^-tx/sqrt t le g(t)$ everwhere, then letting $xto 0^+$ gives $1/sqrt tle g(t)$ for all $t>0,$ which implies $gnotin L^1(0,infty).$
$endgroup$
– zhw.
Mar 14 at 16:58
1
$begingroup$
@mechanodroid However, if $a>0,$ then for $(x,t)in [a,infty)times (0,infty),$ we have $$e^-tx/sqrt t le e^-ta/sqrt t.$$ That is enough to use differentiation through the integral sign.
$endgroup$
– zhw.
Mar 14 at 17:33
|
show 4 more comments
$begingroup$
The derivative of the integrand is
$$fracddxleft(frac1-e^-txt^3/2right) = frace^-txsqrtt$$
We claim that
$$F'(x) = int_0^infty frace^-txsqrtt,dt$$
for all $x > 0$.
Fix $a > 0$ and notice that for $x ge a$ we have
$$frace^-txsqrtt le frace^-tasqrtt le frac1sqrttchi_(0,1](t) + e^-tachi_[1,infty)(t)$$
the latter being an integrable function on $(0,infty)$.
For any such $x$ we have
$$F'(x) = lim_hto 0 fracF(x+h) - F(x)h = lim_hto 0 int_0^infty frac1hleft[frac1-e^-t(x+h)t^3/2 - frac1-e^-txt^3/2right],dt$$
The mean value theorem implies that $exists theta(h) in (x,x+h)$ such that $$frac1hleft[frac1-e^-t(x+h)t^3/2 - frac1-e^-txt^3/2right] = frace^-tthetasqrtt$$
so $$F'(x) = lim_hto 0 int_0^infty frace^-ttheta(h)sqrtt ,dt = int_0^infty lim_hto 0frace^-ttheta(h)sqrtt ,dt = int_0^infty frace^-txsqrtt,dt$$
We were able to swap the integral and the limit according to the Lebesgue dominated convergence theorem since
$$left|frace^-ttheta(h)sqrtt right| le frac1sqrttchi_(0,1](t) + e^-tachi_[1,infty)(t), quadforall t > 0$$
Notice that it is important that the dominating function does not depend on $h$ in any way.
Since $a > 0$ is arbitrary, we conclude $F'(x) = int_0^infty frace^-txsqrtt,dt$ for all $x > 0$.
For surjectivity it suffices to show that $lim_xto 0 F(x) = 0$ and $lim_xtoinfty F(x) = infty$. This together with continuity yields the desired result via the intermediate value theorem.
For $x le 1$ we have
$$frac1-e^-txt^3/2 le frac1sqrttchi_(0,1](t) + frac1t^3/2chi_[1,infty)(t)$$
having used $e^-tx ge 1-tx$. The latter function is integrable on $(0,infty)$ so Lebesgue dominated convergence theorem implies
$$lim_xto 0 F(x) = lim_xto 0 int_0^infty frac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty lim_xto 0frac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty 0 ,dt = 0$$
You already know that for $x_1,x_2 in (0,infty)$ with $x_1 < x_2$ we have $$frac1-e^-tx_1t^3/2 < frac1-e^-tx_2t^3/2$$
Lebesgue monotone convergence theorem thus implies
$$lim_xto infty F(x) = lim_xto infty int_0^infty frac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty lim_xto inftyfrac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty frac1t^3/2 ,dt = infty$$
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Thank you so much! I just learnt improper integral and this is the first excercie I got, I just want to know every detail.
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– Fluffy Skye
Mar 14 at 21:39
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But regarding surjectivity, without having the explicit formula, only knowing injectivity and continuity is not enough, is it?
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– Fluffy Skye
Mar 14 at 23:40
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@FluffySkye It isn't, we also need to show that $lim_xto 0 F(x) = 0$ and $lim_xtoinfty F(x) = infty$ and then the result follows from the intermediate value theorem. Have a look, I added it in the answer.
$endgroup$
– mechanodroid
Mar 15 at 21:34
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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$begingroup$
To see that $F$ is well defined, you have to study separately the two singularities of $$f(t) = frac1-e^-xtt^3/2$$
For $t to 0^+$ you have
$$frac1-e^-xtt^3/2 sim fracxtt^3/2 = fracxt^1/2$$
since $int_0^1 fracxt^1/2 dt$ converges, you have convergence of $int_0^1 f(t) dt$.
For $t to + infty$ you have
$$frac1-e^-xtt^3/2 sim frac1t^3/2$$
since $int_1^+infty frac1t^3/2 dt$ converges, you have convergence of $int_1^+infty f(t) dt$.
This shows that $F$ is well defined for all $x$.
Now, for $0<x_1 < x_2$ and for all $t > 0$ you have
$$frac1-e^-x_1tt^3/2<frac1-e^-x_2tt^3/2$$
thus integrating you have
$$int_0^+ infty frac1-e^-x_1tt^3/2 mathrm dt <int_0^+ infty frac1-e^-x_2tt^3/2 mathrm dt$$
This shows that $F$ is strictly increasing on $(0, + infty)$. In particular it is injective. To show that it is bijective it is enough to prove continuity. To show that $F$ is continuous, it is enough to prove that $F$ is differentiable.
This seems quite complicated.
HOWEVER:
Note that, if you call $u=xt$, then your function becomes:
$$F(x)=sqrtx int_0^+ infty frac1-e^-uu^3/2 mathrm du = F(1) sqrt x$$
which is a well-known function: continuous, strictly increasing, differentiable and bijective.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Say we didn't notice that $F(x) = F(1)sqrtx$ and we wanted to differentiate $F$ by dominating $$fracddxleft(frac1-e^-txt^3/2right) = frace^-txsqrtt$$ by an integrable function on $(0,+infty)$ independent of $x$. I haven't been able to come up with the dominating function. Clearly $frace^-txsqrtt le frac1sqrtt$ for $t le 1$ but for $t ge 1$ what to dominate it with?
$endgroup$
– mechanodroid
Mar 14 at 9:58
$begingroup$
For $t ge 1$, $frace^-txsqrtt le e^-tx$.
$endgroup$
– Crostul
Mar 14 at 10:25
$begingroup$
Unfortunately this is not independent of $x$. And you cannot say $e^-tx le e^-t$ for $x < 1$. My other attempt was $$frace^-txsqrtt le frac1sqrtt(1+tx)$$ but again I was unable to eliminate $x$.
$endgroup$
– mechanodroid
Mar 14 at 10:27
1
$begingroup$
@mechanodroid If we had $e^-tx/sqrt t le g(t)$ everwhere, then letting $xto 0^+$ gives $1/sqrt tle g(t)$ for all $t>0,$ which implies $gnotin L^1(0,infty).$
$endgroup$
– zhw.
Mar 14 at 16:58
1
$begingroup$
@mechanodroid However, if $a>0,$ then for $(x,t)in [a,infty)times (0,infty),$ we have $$e^-tx/sqrt t le e^-ta/sqrt t.$$ That is enough to use differentiation through the integral sign.
$endgroup$
– zhw.
Mar 14 at 17:33
|
show 4 more comments
$begingroup$
To see that $F$ is well defined, you have to study separately the two singularities of $$f(t) = frac1-e^-xtt^3/2$$
For $t to 0^+$ you have
$$frac1-e^-xtt^3/2 sim fracxtt^3/2 = fracxt^1/2$$
since $int_0^1 fracxt^1/2 dt$ converges, you have convergence of $int_0^1 f(t) dt$.
For $t to + infty$ you have
$$frac1-e^-xtt^3/2 sim frac1t^3/2$$
since $int_1^+infty frac1t^3/2 dt$ converges, you have convergence of $int_1^+infty f(t) dt$.
This shows that $F$ is well defined for all $x$.
Now, for $0<x_1 < x_2$ and for all $t > 0$ you have
$$frac1-e^-x_1tt^3/2<frac1-e^-x_2tt^3/2$$
thus integrating you have
$$int_0^+ infty frac1-e^-x_1tt^3/2 mathrm dt <int_0^+ infty frac1-e^-x_2tt^3/2 mathrm dt$$
This shows that $F$ is strictly increasing on $(0, + infty)$. In particular it is injective. To show that it is bijective it is enough to prove continuity. To show that $F$ is continuous, it is enough to prove that $F$ is differentiable.
This seems quite complicated.
HOWEVER:
Note that, if you call $u=xt$, then your function becomes:
$$F(x)=sqrtx int_0^+ infty frac1-e^-uu^3/2 mathrm du = F(1) sqrt x$$
which is a well-known function: continuous, strictly increasing, differentiable and bijective.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Say we didn't notice that $F(x) = F(1)sqrtx$ and we wanted to differentiate $F$ by dominating $$fracddxleft(frac1-e^-txt^3/2right) = frace^-txsqrtt$$ by an integrable function on $(0,+infty)$ independent of $x$. I haven't been able to come up with the dominating function. Clearly $frace^-txsqrtt le frac1sqrtt$ for $t le 1$ but for $t ge 1$ what to dominate it with?
$endgroup$
– mechanodroid
Mar 14 at 9:58
$begingroup$
For $t ge 1$, $frace^-txsqrtt le e^-tx$.
$endgroup$
– Crostul
Mar 14 at 10:25
$begingroup$
Unfortunately this is not independent of $x$. And you cannot say $e^-tx le e^-t$ for $x < 1$. My other attempt was $$frace^-txsqrtt le frac1sqrtt(1+tx)$$ but again I was unable to eliminate $x$.
$endgroup$
– mechanodroid
Mar 14 at 10:27
1
$begingroup$
@mechanodroid If we had $e^-tx/sqrt t le g(t)$ everwhere, then letting $xto 0^+$ gives $1/sqrt tle g(t)$ for all $t>0,$ which implies $gnotin L^1(0,infty).$
$endgroup$
– zhw.
Mar 14 at 16:58
1
$begingroup$
@mechanodroid However, if $a>0,$ then for $(x,t)in [a,infty)times (0,infty),$ we have $$e^-tx/sqrt t le e^-ta/sqrt t.$$ That is enough to use differentiation through the integral sign.
$endgroup$
– zhw.
Mar 14 at 17:33
|
show 4 more comments
$begingroup$
To see that $F$ is well defined, you have to study separately the two singularities of $$f(t) = frac1-e^-xtt^3/2$$
For $t to 0^+$ you have
$$frac1-e^-xtt^3/2 sim fracxtt^3/2 = fracxt^1/2$$
since $int_0^1 fracxt^1/2 dt$ converges, you have convergence of $int_0^1 f(t) dt$.
For $t to + infty$ you have
$$frac1-e^-xtt^3/2 sim frac1t^3/2$$
since $int_1^+infty frac1t^3/2 dt$ converges, you have convergence of $int_1^+infty f(t) dt$.
This shows that $F$ is well defined for all $x$.
Now, for $0<x_1 < x_2$ and for all $t > 0$ you have
$$frac1-e^-x_1tt^3/2<frac1-e^-x_2tt^3/2$$
thus integrating you have
$$int_0^+ infty frac1-e^-x_1tt^3/2 mathrm dt <int_0^+ infty frac1-e^-x_2tt^3/2 mathrm dt$$
This shows that $F$ is strictly increasing on $(0, + infty)$. In particular it is injective. To show that it is bijective it is enough to prove continuity. To show that $F$ is continuous, it is enough to prove that $F$ is differentiable.
This seems quite complicated.
HOWEVER:
Note that, if you call $u=xt$, then your function becomes:
$$F(x)=sqrtx int_0^+ infty frac1-e^-uu^3/2 mathrm du = F(1) sqrt x$$
which is a well-known function: continuous, strictly increasing, differentiable and bijective.
$endgroup$
To see that $F$ is well defined, you have to study separately the two singularities of $$f(t) = frac1-e^-xtt^3/2$$
For $t to 0^+$ you have
$$frac1-e^-xtt^3/2 sim fracxtt^3/2 = fracxt^1/2$$
since $int_0^1 fracxt^1/2 dt$ converges, you have convergence of $int_0^1 f(t) dt$.
For $t to + infty$ you have
$$frac1-e^-xtt^3/2 sim frac1t^3/2$$
since $int_1^+infty frac1t^3/2 dt$ converges, you have convergence of $int_1^+infty f(t) dt$.
This shows that $F$ is well defined for all $x$.
Now, for $0<x_1 < x_2$ and for all $t > 0$ you have
$$frac1-e^-x_1tt^3/2<frac1-e^-x_2tt^3/2$$
thus integrating you have
$$int_0^+ infty frac1-e^-x_1tt^3/2 mathrm dt <int_0^+ infty frac1-e^-x_2tt^3/2 mathrm dt$$
This shows that $F$ is strictly increasing on $(0, + infty)$. In particular it is injective. To show that it is bijective it is enough to prove continuity. To show that $F$ is continuous, it is enough to prove that $F$ is differentiable.
This seems quite complicated.
HOWEVER:
Note that, if you call $u=xt$, then your function becomes:
$$F(x)=sqrtx int_0^+ infty frac1-e^-uu^3/2 mathrm du = F(1) sqrt x$$
which is a well-known function: continuous, strictly increasing, differentiable and bijective.
edited Mar 14 at 8:59
answered Mar 14 at 8:32
CrostulCrostul
28.2k22352
28.2k22352
$begingroup$
Say we didn't notice that $F(x) = F(1)sqrtx$ and we wanted to differentiate $F$ by dominating $$fracddxleft(frac1-e^-txt^3/2right) = frace^-txsqrtt$$ by an integrable function on $(0,+infty)$ independent of $x$. I haven't been able to come up with the dominating function. Clearly $frace^-txsqrtt le frac1sqrtt$ for $t le 1$ but for $t ge 1$ what to dominate it with?
$endgroup$
– mechanodroid
Mar 14 at 9:58
$begingroup$
For $t ge 1$, $frace^-txsqrtt le e^-tx$.
$endgroup$
– Crostul
Mar 14 at 10:25
$begingroup$
Unfortunately this is not independent of $x$. And you cannot say $e^-tx le e^-t$ for $x < 1$. My other attempt was $$frace^-txsqrtt le frac1sqrtt(1+tx)$$ but again I was unable to eliminate $x$.
$endgroup$
– mechanodroid
Mar 14 at 10:27
1
$begingroup$
@mechanodroid If we had $e^-tx/sqrt t le g(t)$ everwhere, then letting $xto 0^+$ gives $1/sqrt tle g(t)$ for all $t>0,$ which implies $gnotin L^1(0,infty).$
$endgroup$
– zhw.
Mar 14 at 16:58
1
$begingroup$
@mechanodroid However, if $a>0,$ then for $(x,t)in [a,infty)times (0,infty),$ we have $$e^-tx/sqrt t le e^-ta/sqrt t.$$ That is enough to use differentiation through the integral sign.
$endgroup$
– zhw.
Mar 14 at 17:33
|
show 4 more comments
$begingroup$
Say we didn't notice that $F(x) = F(1)sqrtx$ and we wanted to differentiate $F$ by dominating $$fracddxleft(frac1-e^-txt^3/2right) = frace^-txsqrtt$$ by an integrable function on $(0,+infty)$ independent of $x$. I haven't been able to come up with the dominating function. Clearly $frace^-txsqrtt le frac1sqrtt$ for $t le 1$ but for $t ge 1$ what to dominate it with?
$endgroup$
– mechanodroid
Mar 14 at 9:58
$begingroup$
For $t ge 1$, $frace^-txsqrtt le e^-tx$.
$endgroup$
– Crostul
Mar 14 at 10:25
$begingroup$
Unfortunately this is not independent of $x$. And you cannot say $e^-tx le e^-t$ for $x < 1$. My other attempt was $$frace^-txsqrtt le frac1sqrtt(1+tx)$$ but again I was unable to eliminate $x$.
$endgroup$
– mechanodroid
Mar 14 at 10:27
1
$begingroup$
@mechanodroid If we had $e^-tx/sqrt t le g(t)$ everwhere, then letting $xto 0^+$ gives $1/sqrt tle g(t)$ for all $t>0,$ which implies $gnotin L^1(0,infty).$
$endgroup$
– zhw.
Mar 14 at 16:58
1
$begingroup$
@mechanodroid However, if $a>0,$ then for $(x,t)in [a,infty)times (0,infty),$ we have $$e^-tx/sqrt t le e^-ta/sqrt t.$$ That is enough to use differentiation through the integral sign.
$endgroup$
– zhw.
Mar 14 at 17:33
$begingroup$
Say we didn't notice that $F(x) = F(1)sqrtx$ and we wanted to differentiate $F$ by dominating $$fracddxleft(frac1-e^-txt^3/2right) = frace^-txsqrtt$$ by an integrable function on $(0,+infty)$ independent of $x$. I haven't been able to come up with the dominating function. Clearly $frace^-txsqrtt le frac1sqrtt$ for $t le 1$ but for $t ge 1$ what to dominate it with?
$endgroup$
– mechanodroid
Mar 14 at 9:58
$begingroup$
Say we didn't notice that $F(x) = F(1)sqrtx$ and we wanted to differentiate $F$ by dominating $$fracddxleft(frac1-e^-txt^3/2right) = frace^-txsqrtt$$ by an integrable function on $(0,+infty)$ independent of $x$. I haven't been able to come up with the dominating function. Clearly $frace^-txsqrtt le frac1sqrtt$ for $t le 1$ but for $t ge 1$ what to dominate it with?
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– mechanodroid
Mar 14 at 9:58
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For $t ge 1$, $frace^-txsqrtt le e^-tx$.
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– Crostul
Mar 14 at 10:25
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For $t ge 1$, $frace^-txsqrtt le e^-tx$.
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– Crostul
Mar 14 at 10:25
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Unfortunately this is not independent of $x$. And you cannot say $e^-tx le e^-t$ for $x < 1$. My other attempt was $$frace^-txsqrtt le frac1sqrtt(1+tx)$$ but again I was unable to eliminate $x$.
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– mechanodroid
Mar 14 at 10:27
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Unfortunately this is not independent of $x$. And you cannot say $e^-tx le e^-t$ for $x < 1$. My other attempt was $$frace^-txsqrtt le frac1sqrtt(1+tx)$$ but again I was unable to eliminate $x$.
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– mechanodroid
Mar 14 at 10:27
1
1
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@mechanodroid If we had $e^-tx/sqrt t le g(t)$ everwhere, then letting $xto 0^+$ gives $1/sqrt tle g(t)$ for all $t>0,$ which implies $gnotin L^1(0,infty).$
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– zhw.
Mar 14 at 16:58
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@mechanodroid If we had $e^-tx/sqrt t le g(t)$ everwhere, then letting $xto 0^+$ gives $1/sqrt tle g(t)$ for all $t>0,$ which implies $gnotin L^1(0,infty).$
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– zhw.
Mar 14 at 16:58
1
1
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@mechanodroid However, if $a>0,$ then for $(x,t)in [a,infty)times (0,infty),$ we have $$e^-tx/sqrt t le e^-ta/sqrt t.$$ That is enough to use differentiation through the integral sign.
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– zhw.
Mar 14 at 17:33
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@mechanodroid However, if $a>0,$ then for $(x,t)in [a,infty)times (0,infty),$ we have $$e^-tx/sqrt t le e^-ta/sqrt t.$$ That is enough to use differentiation through the integral sign.
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– zhw.
Mar 14 at 17:33
|
show 4 more comments
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The derivative of the integrand is
$$fracddxleft(frac1-e^-txt^3/2right) = frace^-txsqrtt$$
We claim that
$$F'(x) = int_0^infty frace^-txsqrtt,dt$$
for all $x > 0$.
Fix $a > 0$ and notice that for $x ge a$ we have
$$frace^-txsqrtt le frace^-tasqrtt le frac1sqrttchi_(0,1](t) + e^-tachi_[1,infty)(t)$$
the latter being an integrable function on $(0,infty)$.
For any such $x$ we have
$$F'(x) = lim_hto 0 fracF(x+h) - F(x)h = lim_hto 0 int_0^infty frac1hleft[frac1-e^-t(x+h)t^3/2 - frac1-e^-txt^3/2right],dt$$
The mean value theorem implies that $exists theta(h) in (x,x+h)$ such that $$frac1hleft[frac1-e^-t(x+h)t^3/2 - frac1-e^-txt^3/2right] = frace^-tthetasqrtt$$
so $$F'(x) = lim_hto 0 int_0^infty frace^-ttheta(h)sqrtt ,dt = int_0^infty lim_hto 0frace^-ttheta(h)sqrtt ,dt = int_0^infty frace^-txsqrtt,dt$$
We were able to swap the integral and the limit according to the Lebesgue dominated convergence theorem since
$$left|frace^-ttheta(h)sqrtt right| le frac1sqrttchi_(0,1](t) + e^-tachi_[1,infty)(t), quadforall t > 0$$
Notice that it is important that the dominating function does not depend on $h$ in any way.
Since $a > 0$ is arbitrary, we conclude $F'(x) = int_0^infty frace^-txsqrtt,dt$ for all $x > 0$.
For surjectivity it suffices to show that $lim_xto 0 F(x) = 0$ and $lim_xtoinfty F(x) = infty$. This together with continuity yields the desired result via the intermediate value theorem.
For $x le 1$ we have
$$frac1-e^-txt^3/2 le frac1sqrttchi_(0,1](t) + frac1t^3/2chi_[1,infty)(t)$$
having used $e^-tx ge 1-tx$. The latter function is integrable on $(0,infty)$ so Lebesgue dominated convergence theorem implies
$$lim_xto 0 F(x) = lim_xto 0 int_0^infty frac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty lim_xto 0frac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty 0 ,dt = 0$$
You already know that for $x_1,x_2 in (0,infty)$ with $x_1 < x_2$ we have $$frac1-e^-tx_1t^3/2 < frac1-e^-tx_2t^3/2$$
Lebesgue monotone convergence theorem thus implies
$$lim_xto infty F(x) = lim_xto infty int_0^infty frac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty lim_xto inftyfrac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty frac1t^3/2 ,dt = infty$$
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Thank you so much! I just learnt improper integral and this is the first excercie I got, I just want to know every detail.
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– Fluffy Skye
Mar 14 at 21:39
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But regarding surjectivity, without having the explicit formula, only knowing injectivity and continuity is not enough, is it?
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– Fluffy Skye
Mar 14 at 23:40
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@FluffySkye It isn't, we also need to show that $lim_xto 0 F(x) = 0$ and $lim_xtoinfty F(x) = infty$ and then the result follows from the intermediate value theorem. Have a look, I added it in the answer.
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– mechanodroid
Mar 15 at 21:34
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The derivative of the integrand is
$$fracddxleft(frac1-e^-txt^3/2right) = frace^-txsqrtt$$
We claim that
$$F'(x) = int_0^infty frace^-txsqrtt,dt$$
for all $x > 0$.
Fix $a > 0$ and notice that for $x ge a$ we have
$$frace^-txsqrtt le frace^-tasqrtt le frac1sqrttchi_(0,1](t) + e^-tachi_[1,infty)(t)$$
the latter being an integrable function on $(0,infty)$.
For any such $x$ we have
$$F'(x) = lim_hto 0 fracF(x+h) - F(x)h = lim_hto 0 int_0^infty frac1hleft[frac1-e^-t(x+h)t^3/2 - frac1-e^-txt^3/2right],dt$$
The mean value theorem implies that $exists theta(h) in (x,x+h)$ such that $$frac1hleft[frac1-e^-t(x+h)t^3/2 - frac1-e^-txt^3/2right] = frace^-tthetasqrtt$$
so $$F'(x) = lim_hto 0 int_0^infty frace^-ttheta(h)sqrtt ,dt = int_0^infty lim_hto 0frace^-ttheta(h)sqrtt ,dt = int_0^infty frace^-txsqrtt,dt$$
We were able to swap the integral and the limit according to the Lebesgue dominated convergence theorem since
$$left|frace^-ttheta(h)sqrtt right| le frac1sqrttchi_(0,1](t) + e^-tachi_[1,infty)(t), quadforall t > 0$$
Notice that it is important that the dominating function does not depend on $h$ in any way.
Since $a > 0$ is arbitrary, we conclude $F'(x) = int_0^infty frace^-txsqrtt,dt$ for all $x > 0$.
For surjectivity it suffices to show that $lim_xto 0 F(x) = 0$ and $lim_xtoinfty F(x) = infty$. This together with continuity yields the desired result via the intermediate value theorem.
For $x le 1$ we have
$$frac1-e^-txt^3/2 le frac1sqrttchi_(0,1](t) + frac1t^3/2chi_[1,infty)(t)$$
having used $e^-tx ge 1-tx$. The latter function is integrable on $(0,infty)$ so Lebesgue dominated convergence theorem implies
$$lim_xto 0 F(x) = lim_xto 0 int_0^infty frac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty lim_xto 0frac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty 0 ,dt = 0$$
You already know that for $x_1,x_2 in (0,infty)$ with $x_1 < x_2$ we have $$frac1-e^-tx_1t^3/2 < frac1-e^-tx_2t^3/2$$
Lebesgue monotone convergence theorem thus implies
$$lim_xto infty F(x) = lim_xto infty int_0^infty frac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty lim_xto inftyfrac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty frac1t^3/2 ,dt = infty$$
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Thank you so much! I just learnt improper integral and this is the first excercie I got, I just want to know every detail.
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 14 at 21:39
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But regarding surjectivity, without having the explicit formula, only knowing injectivity and continuity is not enough, is it?
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 14 at 23:40
$begingroup$
@FluffySkye It isn't, we also need to show that $lim_xto 0 F(x) = 0$ and $lim_xtoinfty F(x) = infty$ and then the result follows from the intermediate value theorem. Have a look, I added it in the answer.
$endgroup$
– mechanodroid
Mar 15 at 21:34
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The derivative of the integrand is
$$fracddxleft(frac1-e^-txt^3/2right) = frace^-txsqrtt$$
We claim that
$$F'(x) = int_0^infty frace^-txsqrtt,dt$$
for all $x > 0$.
Fix $a > 0$ and notice that for $x ge a$ we have
$$frace^-txsqrtt le frace^-tasqrtt le frac1sqrttchi_(0,1](t) + e^-tachi_[1,infty)(t)$$
the latter being an integrable function on $(0,infty)$.
For any such $x$ we have
$$F'(x) = lim_hto 0 fracF(x+h) - F(x)h = lim_hto 0 int_0^infty frac1hleft[frac1-e^-t(x+h)t^3/2 - frac1-e^-txt^3/2right],dt$$
The mean value theorem implies that $exists theta(h) in (x,x+h)$ such that $$frac1hleft[frac1-e^-t(x+h)t^3/2 - frac1-e^-txt^3/2right] = frace^-tthetasqrtt$$
so $$F'(x) = lim_hto 0 int_0^infty frace^-ttheta(h)sqrtt ,dt = int_0^infty lim_hto 0frace^-ttheta(h)sqrtt ,dt = int_0^infty frace^-txsqrtt,dt$$
We were able to swap the integral and the limit according to the Lebesgue dominated convergence theorem since
$$left|frace^-ttheta(h)sqrtt right| le frac1sqrttchi_(0,1](t) + e^-tachi_[1,infty)(t), quadforall t > 0$$
Notice that it is important that the dominating function does not depend on $h$ in any way.
Since $a > 0$ is arbitrary, we conclude $F'(x) = int_0^infty frace^-txsqrtt,dt$ for all $x > 0$.
For surjectivity it suffices to show that $lim_xto 0 F(x) = 0$ and $lim_xtoinfty F(x) = infty$. This together with continuity yields the desired result via the intermediate value theorem.
For $x le 1$ we have
$$frac1-e^-txt^3/2 le frac1sqrttchi_(0,1](t) + frac1t^3/2chi_[1,infty)(t)$$
having used $e^-tx ge 1-tx$. The latter function is integrable on $(0,infty)$ so Lebesgue dominated convergence theorem implies
$$lim_xto 0 F(x) = lim_xto 0 int_0^infty frac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty lim_xto 0frac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty 0 ,dt = 0$$
You already know that for $x_1,x_2 in (0,infty)$ with $x_1 < x_2$ we have $$frac1-e^-tx_1t^3/2 < frac1-e^-tx_2t^3/2$$
Lebesgue monotone convergence theorem thus implies
$$lim_xto infty F(x) = lim_xto infty int_0^infty frac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty lim_xto inftyfrac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty frac1t^3/2 ,dt = infty$$
$endgroup$
The derivative of the integrand is
$$fracddxleft(frac1-e^-txt^3/2right) = frace^-txsqrtt$$
We claim that
$$F'(x) = int_0^infty frace^-txsqrtt,dt$$
for all $x > 0$.
Fix $a > 0$ and notice that for $x ge a$ we have
$$frace^-txsqrtt le frace^-tasqrtt le frac1sqrttchi_(0,1](t) + e^-tachi_[1,infty)(t)$$
the latter being an integrable function on $(0,infty)$.
For any such $x$ we have
$$F'(x) = lim_hto 0 fracF(x+h) - F(x)h = lim_hto 0 int_0^infty frac1hleft[frac1-e^-t(x+h)t^3/2 - frac1-e^-txt^3/2right],dt$$
The mean value theorem implies that $exists theta(h) in (x,x+h)$ such that $$frac1hleft[frac1-e^-t(x+h)t^3/2 - frac1-e^-txt^3/2right] = frace^-tthetasqrtt$$
so $$F'(x) = lim_hto 0 int_0^infty frace^-ttheta(h)sqrtt ,dt = int_0^infty lim_hto 0frace^-ttheta(h)sqrtt ,dt = int_0^infty frace^-txsqrtt,dt$$
We were able to swap the integral and the limit according to the Lebesgue dominated convergence theorem since
$$left|frace^-ttheta(h)sqrtt right| le frac1sqrttchi_(0,1](t) + e^-tachi_[1,infty)(t), quadforall t > 0$$
Notice that it is important that the dominating function does not depend on $h$ in any way.
Since $a > 0$ is arbitrary, we conclude $F'(x) = int_0^infty frace^-txsqrtt,dt$ for all $x > 0$.
For surjectivity it suffices to show that $lim_xto 0 F(x) = 0$ and $lim_xtoinfty F(x) = infty$. This together with continuity yields the desired result via the intermediate value theorem.
For $x le 1$ we have
$$frac1-e^-txt^3/2 le frac1sqrttchi_(0,1](t) + frac1t^3/2chi_[1,infty)(t)$$
having used $e^-tx ge 1-tx$. The latter function is integrable on $(0,infty)$ so Lebesgue dominated convergence theorem implies
$$lim_xto 0 F(x) = lim_xto 0 int_0^infty frac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty lim_xto 0frac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty 0 ,dt = 0$$
You already know that for $x_1,x_2 in (0,infty)$ with $x_1 < x_2$ we have $$frac1-e^-tx_1t^3/2 < frac1-e^-tx_2t^3/2$$
Lebesgue monotone convergence theorem thus implies
$$lim_xto infty F(x) = lim_xto infty int_0^infty frac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty lim_xto inftyfrac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty frac1t^3/2 ,dt = infty$$
edited Mar 15 at 21:33
answered Mar 14 at 21:10
mechanodroidmechanodroid
28.9k62548
28.9k62548
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Thank you so much! I just learnt improper integral and this is the first excercie I got, I just want to know every detail.
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 14 at 21:39
$begingroup$
But regarding surjectivity, without having the explicit formula, only knowing injectivity and continuity is not enough, is it?
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 14 at 23:40
$begingroup$
@FluffySkye It isn't, we also need to show that $lim_xto 0 F(x) = 0$ and $lim_xtoinfty F(x) = infty$ and then the result follows from the intermediate value theorem. Have a look, I added it in the answer.
$endgroup$
– mechanodroid
Mar 15 at 21:34
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Thank you so much! I just learnt improper integral and this is the first excercie I got, I just want to know every detail.
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 14 at 21:39
$begingroup$
But regarding surjectivity, without having the explicit formula, only knowing injectivity and continuity is not enough, is it?
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 14 at 23:40
$begingroup$
@FluffySkye It isn't, we also need to show that $lim_xto 0 F(x) = 0$ and $lim_xtoinfty F(x) = infty$ and then the result follows from the intermediate value theorem. Have a look, I added it in the answer.
$endgroup$
– mechanodroid
Mar 15 at 21:34
$begingroup$
Thank you so much! I just learnt improper integral and this is the first excercie I got, I just want to know every detail.
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 14 at 21:39
$begingroup$
Thank you so much! I just learnt improper integral and this is the first excercie I got, I just want to know every detail.
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 14 at 21:39
$begingroup$
But regarding surjectivity, without having the explicit formula, only knowing injectivity and continuity is not enough, is it?
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 14 at 23:40
$begingroup$
But regarding surjectivity, without having the explicit formula, only knowing injectivity and continuity is not enough, is it?
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 14 at 23:40
$begingroup$
@FluffySkye It isn't, we also need to show that $lim_xto 0 F(x) = 0$ and $lim_xtoinfty F(x) = infty$ and then the result follows from the intermediate value theorem. Have a look, I added it in the answer.
$endgroup$
– mechanodroid
Mar 15 at 21:34
$begingroup$
@FluffySkye It isn't, we also need to show that $lim_xto 0 F(x) = 0$ and $lim_xtoinfty F(x) = infty$ and then the result follows from the intermediate value theorem. Have a look, I added it in the answer.
$endgroup$
– mechanodroid
Mar 15 at 21:34
add a comment |
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