Prove improper integral exists and continuously differentiableShowing $intlimits_a^b h(x)sin(nx) dx rightarrow 0$Swapping integral and limit - exampleuniform limit of step functionProve that the improper integral convergesA question related to Limit on Improper integralSwapping an improper integral and seriesA continuously differentiable function is weakly differentiableEvaluate $lim_nrightarrowinfty int_0^1 f(x^n) dx$Limit of a continuously differentiable functionDetermine pointwise and uniform convergence of a given sequence of functions and calculate an integral

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Prove improper integral exists and continuously differentiable


Showing $intlimits_a^b h(x)sin(nx) dx rightarrow 0$Swapping integral and limit - exampleuniform limit of step functionProve that the improper integral convergesA question related to Limit on Improper integralSwapping an improper integral and seriesA continuously differentiable function is weakly differentiableEvaluate $lim_nrightarrowinfty int_0^1 f(x^n) dx$Limit of a continuously differentiable functionDetermine pointwise and uniform convergence of a given sequence of functions and calculate an integral













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$begingroup$


For $xin(0,infty)$, let $F(x)=int_0^inftyfrac1-e^-txt^frac32 dt$. Show that $F:(0,infty)to(0,infty)$ is well-defined, bijective and has continuous non-zero derivative.



I don't know what argument to say about bijectivity. And for derivative exists I suppose we use uniform convergence on compact interval which enables us to interchange limit and integration, but does that mean we have to cut $(0,infty)$ into three parts? As for showing derivative is continuous, it just sounds like a lot of calculation...










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$
















    2












    $begingroup$


    For $xin(0,infty)$, let $F(x)=int_0^inftyfrac1-e^-txt^frac32 dt$. Show that $F:(0,infty)to(0,infty)$ is well-defined, bijective and has continuous non-zero derivative.



    I don't know what argument to say about bijectivity. And for derivative exists I suppose we use uniform convergence on compact interval which enables us to interchange limit and integration, but does that mean we have to cut $(0,infty)$ into three parts? As for showing derivative is continuous, it just sounds like a lot of calculation...










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      2












      2








      2





      $begingroup$


      For $xin(0,infty)$, let $F(x)=int_0^inftyfrac1-e^-txt^frac32 dt$. Show that $F:(0,infty)to(0,infty)$ is well-defined, bijective and has continuous non-zero derivative.



      I don't know what argument to say about bijectivity. And for derivative exists I suppose we use uniform convergence on compact interval which enables us to interchange limit and integration, but does that mean we have to cut $(0,infty)$ into three parts? As for showing derivative is continuous, it just sounds like a lot of calculation...










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      For $xin(0,infty)$, let $F(x)=int_0^inftyfrac1-e^-txt^frac32 dt$. Show that $F:(0,infty)to(0,infty)$ is well-defined, bijective and has continuous non-zero derivative.



      I don't know what argument to say about bijectivity. And for derivative exists I suppose we use uniform convergence on compact interval which enables us to interchange limit and integration, but does that mean we have to cut $(0,infty)$ into three parts? As for showing derivative is continuous, it just sounds like a lot of calculation...







      real-analysis






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      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Mar 14 at 19:39







      Fluffy Skye

















      asked Mar 14 at 6:53









      Fluffy SkyeFluffy Skye

      31919




      31919




















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          2












          $begingroup$

          To see that $F$ is well defined, you have to study separately the two singularities of $$f(t) = frac1-e^-xtt^3/2$$
          For $t to 0^+$ you have
          $$frac1-e^-xtt^3/2 sim fracxtt^3/2 = fracxt^1/2$$
          since $int_0^1 fracxt^1/2 dt$ converges, you have convergence of $int_0^1 f(t) dt$.



          For $t to + infty$ you have
          $$frac1-e^-xtt^3/2 sim frac1t^3/2$$
          since $int_1^+infty frac1t^3/2 dt$ converges, you have convergence of $int_1^+infty f(t) dt$.



          This shows that $F$ is well defined for all $x$.



          Now, for $0<x_1 < x_2$ and for all $t > 0$ you have
          $$frac1-e^-x_1tt^3/2<frac1-e^-x_2tt^3/2$$
          thus integrating you have
          $$int_0^+ infty frac1-e^-x_1tt^3/2 mathrm dt <int_0^+ infty frac1-e^-x_2tt^3/2 mathrm dt$$



          This shows that $F$ is strictly increasing on $(0, + infty)$. In particular it is injective. To show that it is bijective it is enough to prove continuity. To show that $F$ is continuous, it is enough to prove that $F$ is differentiable.
          This seems quite complicated.



          HOWEVER:
          Note that, if you call $u=xt$, then your function becomes:
          $$F(x)=sqrtx int_0^+ infty frac1-e^-uu^3/2 mathrm du = F(1) sqrt x$$
          which is a well-known function: continuous, strictly increasing, differentiable and bijective.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Say we didn't notice that $F(x) = F(1)sqrtx$ and we wanted to differentiate $F$ by dominating $$fracddxleft(frac1-e^-txt^3/2right) = frace^-txsqrtt$$ by an integrable function on $(0,+infty)$ independent of $x$. I haven't been able to come up with the dominating function. Clearly $frace^-txsqrtt le frac1sqrtt$ for $t le 1$ but for $t ge 1$ what to dominate it with?
            $endgroup$
            – mechanodroid
            Mar 14 at 9:58











          • $begingroup$
            For $t ge 1$, $frace^-txsqrtt le e^-tx$.
            $endgroup$
            – Crostul
            Mar 14 at 10:25










          • $begingroup$
            Unfortunately this is not independent of $x$. And you cannot say $e^-tx le e^-t$ for $x < 1$. My other attempt was $$frace^-txsqrtt le frac1sqrtt(1+tx)$$ but again I was unable to eliminate $x$.
            $endgroup$
            – mechanodroid
            Mar 14 at 10:27







          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @mechanodroid If we had $e^-tx/sqrt t le g(t)$ everwhere, then letting $xto 0^+$ gives $1/sqrt tle g(t)$ for all $t>0,$ which implies $gnotin L^1(0,infty).$
            $endgroup$
            – zhw.
            Mar 14 at 16:58






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @mechanodroid However, if $a>0,$ then for $(x,t)in [a,infty)times (0,infty),$ we have $$e^-tx/sqrt t le e^-ta/sqrt t.$$ That is enough to use differentiation through the integral sign.
            $endgroup$
            – zhw.
            Mar 14 at 17:33


















          1












          $begingroup$

          The derivative of the integrand is
          $$fracddxleft(frac1-e^-txt^3/2right) = frace^-txsqrtt$$
          We claim that
          $$F'(x) = int_0^infty frace^-txsqrtt,dt$$
          for all $x > 0$.



          Fix $a > 0$ and notice that for $x ge a$ we have
          $$frace^-txsqrtt le frace^-tasqrtt le frac1sqrttchi_(0,1](t) + e^-tachi_[1,infty)(t)$$
          the latter being an integrable function on $(0,infty)$.
          For any such $x$ we have
          $$F'(x) = lim_hto 0 fracF(x+h) - F(x)h = lim_hto 0 int_0^infty frac1hleft[frac1-e^-t(x+h)t^3/2 - frac1-e^-txt^3/2right],dt$$
          The mean value theorem implies that $exists theta(h) in (x,x+h)$ such that $$frac1hleft[frac1-e^-t(x+h)t^3/2 - frac1-e^-txt^3/2right] = frace^-tthetasqrtt$$
          so $$F'(x) = lim_hto 0 int_0^infty frace^-ttheta(h)sqrtt ,dt = int_0^infty lim_hto 0frace^-ttheta(h)sqrtt ,dt = int_0^infty frace^-txsqrtt,dt$$
          We were able to swap the integral and the limit according to the Lebesgue dominated convergence theorem since
          $$left|frace^-ttheta(h)sqrtt right| le frac1sqrttchi_(0,1](t) + e^-tachi_[1,infty)(t), quadforall t > 0$$
          Notice that it is important that the dominating function does not depend on $h$ in any way.



          Since $a > 0$ is arbitrary, we conclude $F'(x) = int_0^infty frace^-txsqrtt,dt$ for all $x > 0$.




          For surjectivity it suffices to show that $lim_xto 0 F(x) = 0$ and $lim_xtoinfty F(x) = infty$. This together with continuity yields the desired result via the intermediate value theorem.



          For $x le 1$ we have
          $$frac1-e^-txt^3/2 le frac1sqrttchi_(0,1](t) + frac1t^3/2chi_[1,infty)(t)$$
          having used $e^-tx ge 1-tx$. The latter function is integrable on $(0,infty)$ so Lebesgue dominated convergence theorem implies
          $$lim_xto 0 F(x) = lim_xto 0 int_0^infty frac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty lim_xto 0frac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty 0 ,dt = 0$$



          You already know that for $x_1,x_2 in (0,infty)$ with $x_1 < x_2$ we have $$frac1-e^-tx_1t^3/2 < frac1-e^-tx_2t^3/2$$



          Lebesgue monotone convergence theorem thus implies
          $$lim_xto infty F(x) = lim_xto infty int_0^infty frac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty lim_xto inftyfrac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty frac1t^3/2 ,dt = infty$$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Thank you so much! I just learnt improper integral and this is the first excercie I got, I just want to know every detail.
            $endgroup$
            – Fluffy Skye
            Mar 14 at 21:39










          • $begingroup$
            But regarding surjectivity, without having the explicit formula, only knowing injectivity and continuity is not enough, is it?
            $endgroup$
            – Fluffy Skye
            Mar 14 at 23:40










          • $begingroup$
            @FluffySkye It isn't, we also need to show that $lim_xto 0 F(x) = 0$ and $lim_xtoinfty F(x) = infty$ and then the result follows from the intermediate value theorem. Have a look, I added it in the answer.
            $endgroup$
            – mechanodroid
            Mar 15 at 21:34










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          2 Answers
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          2 Answers
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          2












          $begingroup$

          To see that $F$ is well defined, you have to study separately the two singularities of $$f(t) = frac1-e^-xtt^3/2$$
          For $t to 0^+$ you have
          $$frac1-e^-xtt^3/2 sim fracxtt^3/2 = fracxt^1/2$$
          since $int_0^1 fracxt^1/2 dt$ converges, you have convergence of $int_0^1 f(t) dt$.



          For $t to + infty$ you have
          $$frac1-e^-xtt^3/2 sim frac1t^3/2$$
          since $int_1^+infty frac1t^3/2 dt$ converges, you have convergence of $int_1^+infty f(t) dt$.



          This shows that $F$ is well defined for all $x$.



          Now, for $0<x_1 < x_2$ and for all $t > 0$ you have
          $$frac1-e^-x_1tt^3/2<frac1-e^-x_2tt^3/2$$
          thus integrating you have
          $$int_0^+ infty frac1-e^-x_1tt^3/2 mathrm dt <int_0^+ infty frac1-e^-x_2tt^3/2 mathrm dt$$



          This shows that $F$ is strictly increasing on $(0, + infty)$. In particular it is injective. To show that it is bijective it is enough to prove continuity. To show that $F$ is continuous, it is enough to prove that $F$ is differentiable.
          This seems quite complicated.



          HOWEVER:
          Note that, if you call $u=xt$, then your function becomes:
          $$F(x)=sqrtx int_0^+ infty frac1-e^-uu^3/2 mathrm du = F(1) sqrt x$$
          which is a well-known function: continuous, strictly increasing, differentiable and bijective.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Say we didn't notice that $F(x) = F(1)sqrtx$ and we wanted to differentiate $F$ by dominating $$fracddxleft(frac1-e^-txt^3/2right) = frace^-txsqrtt$$ by an integrable function on $(0,+infty)$ independent of $x$. I haven't been able to come up with the dominating function. Clearly $frace^-txsqrtt le frac1sqrtt$ for $t le 1$ but for $t ge 1$ what to dominate it with?
            $endgroup$
            – mechanodroid
            Mar 14 at 9:58











          • $begingroup$
            For $t ge 1$, $frace^-txsqrtt le e^-tx$.
            $endgroup$
            – Crostul
            Mar 14 at 10:25










          • $begingroup$
            Unfortunately this is not independent of $x$. And you cannot say $e^-tx le e^-t$ for $x < 1$. My other attempt was $$frace^-txsqrtt le frac1sqrtt(1+tx)$$ but again I was unable to eliminate $x$.
            $endgroup$
            – mechanodroid
            Mar 14 at 10:27







          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @mechanodroid If we had $e^-tx/sqrt t le g(t)$ everwhere, then letting $xto 0^+$ gives $1/sqrt tle g(t)$ for all $t>0,$ which implies $gnotin L^1(0,infty).$
            $endgroup$
            – zhw.
            Mar 14 at 16:58






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @mechanodroid However, if $a>0,$ then for $(x,t)in [a,infty)times (0,infty),$ we have $$e^-tx/sqrt t le e^-ta/sqrt t.$$ That is enough to use differentiation through the integral sign.
            $endgroup$
            – zhw.
            Mar 14 at 17:33















          2












          $begingroup$

          To see that $F$ is well defined, you have to study separately the two singularities of $$f(t) = frac1-e^-xtt^3/2$$
          For $t to 0^+$ you have
          $$frac1-e^-xtt^3/2 sim fracxtt^3/2 = fracxt^1/2$$
          since $int_0^1 fracxt^1/2 dt$ converges, you have convergence of $int_0^1 f(t) dt$.



          For $t to + infty$ you have
          $$frac1-e^-xtt^3/2 sim frac1t^3/2$$
          since $int_1^+infty frac1t^3/2 dt$ converges, you have convergence of $int_1^+infty f(t) dt$.



          This shows that $F$ is well defined for all $x$.



          Now, for $0<x_1 < x_2$ and for all $t > 0$ you have
          $$frac1-e^-x_1tt^3/2<frac1-e^-x_2tt^3/2$$
          thus integrating you have
          $$int_0^+ infty frac1-e^-x_1tt^3/2 mathrm dt <int_0^+ infty frac1-e^-x_2tt^3/2 mathrm dt$$



          This shows that $F$ is strictly increasing on $(0, + infty)$. In particular it is injective. To show that it is bijective it is enough to prove continuity. To show that $F$ is continuous, it is enough to prove that $F$ is differentiable.
          This seems quite complicated.



          HOWEVER:
          Note that, if you call $u=xt$, then your function becomes:
          $$F(x)=sqrtx int_0^+ infty frac1-e^-uu^3/2 mathrm du = F(1) sqrt x$$
          which is a well-known function: continuous, strictly increasing, differentiable and bijective.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Say we didn't notice that $F(x) = F(1)sqrtx$ and we wanted to differentiate $F$ by dominating $$fracddxleft(frac1-e^-txt^3/2right) = frace^-txsqrtt$$ by an integrable function on $(0,+infty)$ independent of $x$. I haven't been able to come up with the dominating function. Clearly $frace^-txsqrtt le frac1sqrtt$ for $t le 1$ but for $t ge 1$ what to dominate it with?
            $endgroup$
            – mechanodroid
            Mar 14 at 9:58











          • $begingroup$
            For $t ge 1$, $frace^-txsqrtt le e^-tx$.
            $endgroup$
            – Crostul
            Mar 14 at 10:25










          • $begingroup$
            Unfortunately this is not independent of $x$. And you cannot say $e^-tx le e^-t$ for $x < 1$. My other attempt was $$frace^-txsqrtt le frac1sqrtt(1+tx)$$ but again I was unable to eliminate $x$.
            $endgroup$
            – mechanodroid
            Mar 14 at 10:27







          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @mechanodroid If we had $e^-tx/sqrt t le g(t)$ everwhere, then letting $xto 0^+$ gives $1/sqrt tle g(t)$ for all $t>0,$ which implies $gnotin L^1(0,infty).$
            $endgroup$
            – zhw.
            Mar 14 at 16:58






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @mechanodroid However, if $a>0,$ then for $(x,t)in [a,infty)times (0,infty),$ we have $$e^-tx/sqrt t le e^-ta/sqrt t.$$ That is enough to use differentiation through the integral sign.
            $endgroup$
            – zhw.
            Mar 14 at 17:33













          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          To see that $F$ is well defined, you have to study separately the two singularities of $$f(t) = frac1-e^-xtt^3/2$$
          For $t to 0^+$ you have
          $$frac1-e^-xtt^3/2 sim fracxtt^3/2 = fracxt^1/2$$
          since $int_0^1 fracxt^1/2 dt$ converges, you have convergence of $int_0^1 f(t) dt$.



          For $t to + infty$ you have
          $$frac1-e^-xtt^3/2 sim frac1t^3/2$$
          since $int_1^+infty frac1t^3/2 dt$ converges, you have convergence of $int_1^+infty f(t) dt$.



          This shows that $F$ is well defined for all $x$.



          Now, for $0<x_1 < x_2$ and for all $t > 0$ you have
          $$frac1-e^-x_1tt^3/2<frac1-e^-x_2tt^3/2$$
          thus integrating you have
          $$int_0^+ infty frac1-e^-x_1tt^3/2 mathrm dt <int_0^+ infty frac1-e^-x_2tt^3/2 mathrm dt$$



          This shows that $F$ is strictly increasing on $(0, + infty)$. In particular it is injective. To show that it is bijective it is enough to prove continuity. To show that $F$ is continuous, it is enough to prove that $F$ is differentiable.
          This seems quite complicated.



          HOWEVER:
          Note that, if you call $u=xt$, then your function becomes:
          $$F(x)=sqrtx int_0^+ infty frac1-e^-uu^3/2 mathrm du = F(1) sqrt x$$
          which is a well-known function: continuous, strictly increasing, differentiable and bijective.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          To see that $F$ is well defined, you have to study separately the two singularities of $$f(t) = frac1-e^-xtt^3/2$$
          For $t to 0^+$ you have
          $$frac1-e^-xtt^3/2 sim fracxtt^3/2 = fracxt^1/2$$
          since $int_0^1 fracxt^1/2 dt$ converges, you have convergence of $int_0^1 f(t) dt$.



          For $t to + infty$ you have
          $$frac1-e^-xtt^3/2 sim frac1t^3/2$$
          since $int_1^+infty frac1t^3/2 dt$ converges, you have convergence of $int_1^+infty f(t) dt$.



          This shows that $F$ is well defined for all $x$.



          Now, for $0<x_1 < x_2$ and for all $t > 0$ you have
          $$frac1-e^-x_1tt^3/2<frac1-e^-x_2tt^3/2$$
          thus integrating you have
          $$int_0^+ infty frac1-e^-x_1tt^3/2 mathrm dt <int_0^+ infty frac1-e^-x_2tt^3/2 mathrm dt$$



          This shows that $F$ is strictly increasing on $(0, + infty)$. In particular it is injective. To show that it is bijective it is enough to prove continuity. To show that $F$ is continuous, it is enough to prove that $F$ is differentiable.
          This seems quite complicated.



          HOWEVER:
          Note that, if you call $u=xt$, then your function becomes:
          $$F(x)=sqrtx int_0^+ infty frac1-e^-uu^3/2 mathrm du = F(1) sqrt x$$
          which is a well-known function: continuous, strictly increasing, differentiable and bijective.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Mar 14 at 8:59

























          answered Mar 14 at 8:32









          CrostulCrostul

          28.2k22352




          28.2k22352











          • $begingroup$
            Say we didn't notice that $F(x) = F(1)sqrtx$ and we wanted to differentiate $F$ by dominating $$fracddxleft(frac1-e^-txt^3/2right) = frace^-txsqrtt$$ by an integrable function on $(0,+infty)$ independent of $x$. I haven't been able to come up with the dominating function. Clearly $frace^-txsqrtt le frac1sqrtt$ for $t le 1$ but for $t ge 1$ what to dominate it with?
            $endgroup$
            – mechanodroid
            Mar 14 at 9:58











          • $begingroup$
            For $t ge 1$, $frace^-txsqrtt le e^-tx$.
            $endgroup$
            – Crostul
            Mar 14 at 10:25










          • $begingroup$
            Unfortunately this is not independent of $x$. And you cannot say $e^-tx le e^-t$ for $x < 1$. My other attempt was $$frace^-txsqrtt le frac1sqrtt(1+tx)$$ but again I was unable to eliminate $x$.
            $endgroup$
            – mechanodroid
            Mar 14 at 10:27







          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @mechanodroid If we had $e^-tx/sqrt t le g(t)$ everwhere, then letting $xto 0^+$ gives $1/sqrt tle g(t)$ for all $t>0,$ which implies $gnotin L^1(0,infty).$
            $endgroup$
            – zhw.
            Mar 14 at 16:58






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @mechanodroid However, if $a>0,$ then for $(x,t)in [a,infty)times (0,infty),$ we have $$e^-tx/sqrt t le e^-ta/sqrt t.$$ That is enough to use differentiation through the integral sign.
            $endgroup$
            – zhw.
            Mar 14 at 17:33
















          • $begingroup$
            Say we didn't notice that $F(x) = F(1)sqrtx$ and we wanted to differentiate $F$ by dominating $$fracddxleft(frac1-e^-txt^3/2right) = frace^-txsqrtt$$ by an integrable function on $(0,+infty)$ independent of $x$. I haven't been able to come up with the dominating function. Clearly $frace^-txsqrtt le frac1sqrtt$ for $t le 1$ but for $t ge 1$ what to dominate it with?
            $endgroup$
            – mechanodroid
            Mar 14 at 9:58











          • $begingroup$
            For $t ge 1$, $frace^-txsqrtt le e^-tx$.
            $endgroup$
            – Crostul
            Mar 14 at 10:25










          • $begingroup$
            Unfortunately this is not independent of $x$. And you cannot say $e^-tx le e^-t$ for $x < 1$. My other attempt was $$frace^-txsqrtt le frac1sqrtt(1+tx)$$ but again I was unable to eliminate $x$.
            $endgroup$
            – mechanodroid
            Mar 14 at 10:27







          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @mechanodroid If we had $e^-tx/sqrt t le g(t)$ everwhere, then letting $xto 0^+$ gives $1/sqrt tle g(t)$ for all $t>0,$ which implies $gnotin L^1(0,infty).$
            $endgroup$
            – zhw.
            Mar 14 at 16:58






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @mechanodroid However, if $a>0,$ then for $(x,t)in [a,infty)times (0,infty),$ we have $$e^-tx/sqrt t le e^-ta/sqrt t.$$ That is enough to use differentiation through the integral sign.
            $endgroup$
            – zhw.
            Mar 14 at 17:33















          $begingroup$
          Say we didn't notice that $F(x) = F(1)sqrtx$ and we wanted to differentiate $F$ by dominating $$fracddxleft(frac1-e^-txt^3/2right) = frace^-txsqrtt$$ by an integrable function on $(0,+infty)$ independent of $x$. I haven't been able to come up with the dominating function. Clearly $frace^-txsqrtt le frac1sqrtt$ for $t le 1$ but for $t ge 1$ what to dominate it with?
          $endgroup$
          – mechanodroid
          Mar 14 at 9:58





          $begingroup$
          Say we didn't notice that $F(x) = F(1)sqrtx$ and we wanted to differentiate $F$ by dominating $$fracddxleft(frac1-e^-txt^3/2right) = frace^-txsqrtt$$ by an integrable function on $(0,+infty)$ independent of $x$. I haven't been able to come up with the dominating function. Clearly $frace^-txsqrtt le frac1sqrtt$ for $t le 1$ but for $t ge 1$ what to dominate it with?
          $endgroup$
          – mechanodroid
          Mar 14 at 9:58













          $begingroup$
          For $t ge 1$, $frace^-txsqrtt le e^-tx$.
          $endgroup$
          – Crostul
          Mar 14 at 10:25




          $begingroup$
          For $t ge 1$, $frace^-txsqrtt le e^-tx$.
          $endgroup$
          – Crostul
          Mar 14 at 10:25












          $begingroup$
          Unfortunately this is not independent of $x$. And you cannot say $e^-tx le e^-t$ for $x < 1$. My other attempt was $$frace^-txsqrtt le frac1sqrtt(1+tx)$$ but again I was unable to eliminate $x$.
          $endgroup$
          – mechanodroid
          Mar 14 at 10:27





          $begingroup$
          Unfortunately this is not independent of $x$. And you cannot say $e^-tx le e^-t$ for $x < 1$. My other attempt was $$frace^-txsqrtt le frac1sqrtt(1+tx)$$ but again I was unable to eliminate $x$.
          $endgroup$
          – mechanodroid
          Mar 14 at 10:27





          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          @mechanodroid If we had $e^-tx/sqrt t le g(t)$ everwhere, then letting $xto 0^+$ gives $1/sqrt tle g(t)$ for all $t>0,$ which implies $gnotin L^1(0,infty).$
          $endgroup$
          – zhw.
          Mar 14 at 16:58




          $begingroup$
          @mechanodroid If we had $e^-tx/sqrt t le g(t)$ everwhere, then letting $xto 0^+$ gives $1/sqrt tle g(t)$ for all $t>0,$ which implies $gnotin L^1(0,infty).$
          $endgroup$
          – zhw.
          Mar 14 at 16:58




          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          @mechanodroid However, if $a>0,$ then for $(x,t)in [a,infty)times (0,infty),$ we have $$e^-tx/sqrt t le e^-ta/sqrt t.$$ That is enough to use differentiation through the integral sign.
          $endgroup$
          – zhw.
          Mar 14 at 17:33




          $begingroup$
          @mechanodroid However, if $a>0,$ then for $(x,t)in [a,infty)times (0,infty),$ we have $$e^-tx/sqrt t le e^-ta/sqrt t.$$ That is enough to use differentiation through the integral sign.
          $endgroup$
          – zhw.
          Mar 14 at 17:33











          1












          $begingroup$

          The derivative of the integrand is
          $$fracddxleft(frac1-e^-txt^3/2right) = frace^-txsqrtt$$
          We claim that
          $$F'(x) = int_0^infty frace^-txsqrtt,dt$$
          for all $x > 0$.



          Fix $a > 0$ and notice that for $x ge a$ we have
          $$frace^-txsqrtt le frace^-tasqrtt le frac1sqrttchi_(0,1](t) + e^-tachi_[1,infty)(t)$$
          the latter being an integrable function on $(0,infty)$.
          For any such $x$ we have
          $$F'(x) = lim_hto 0 fracF(x+h) - F(x)h = lim_hto 0 int_0^infty frac1hleft[frac1-e^-t(x+h)t^3/2 - frac1-e^-txt^3/2right],dt$$
          The mean value theorem implies that $exists theta(h) in (x,x+h)$ such that $$frac1hleft[frac1-e^-t(x+h)t^3/2 - frac1-e^-txt^3/2right] = frace^-tthetasqrtt$$
          so $$F'(x) = lim_hto 0 int_0^infty frace^-ttheta(h)sqrtt ,dt = int_0^infty lim_hto 0frace^-ttheta(h)sqrtt ,dt = int_0^infty frace^-txsqrtt,dt$$
          We were able to swap the integral and the limit according to the Lebesgue dominated convergence theorem since
          $$left|frace^-ttheta(h)sqrtt right| le frac1sqrttchi_(0,1](t) + e^-tachi_[1,infty)(t), quadforall t > 0$$
          Notice that it is important that the dominating function does not depend on $h$ in any way.



          Since $a > 0$ is arbitrary, we conclude $F'(x) = int_0^infty frace^-txsqrtt,dt$ for all $x > 0$.




          For surjectivity it suffices to show that $lim_xto 0 F(x) = 0$ and $lim_xtoinfty F(x) = infty$. This together with continuity yields the desired result via the intermediate value theorem.



          For $x le 1$ we have
          $$frac1-e^-txt^3/2 le frac1sqrttchi_(0,1](t) + frac1t^3/2chi_[1,infty)(t)$$
          having used $e^-tx ge 1-tx$. The latter function is integrable on $(0,infty)$ so Lebesgue dominated convergence theorem implies
          $$lim_xto 0 F(x) = lim_xto 0 int_0^infty frac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty lim_xto 0frac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty 0 ,dt = 0$$



          You already know that for $x_1,x_2 in (0,infty)$ with $x_1 < x_2$ we have $$frac1-e^-tx_1t^3/2 < frac1-e^-tx_2t^3/2$$



          Lebesgue monotone convergence theorem thus implies
          $$lim_xto infty F(x) = lim_xto infty int_0^infty frac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty lim_xto inftyfrac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty frac1t^3/2 ,dt = infty$$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Thank you so much! I just learnt improper integral and this is the first excercie I got, I just want to know every detail.
            $endgroup$
            – Fluffy Skye
            Mar 14 at 21:39










          • $begingroup$
            But regarding surjectivity, without having the explicit formula, only knowing injectivity and continuity is not enough, is it?
            $endgroup$
            – Fluffy Skye
            Mar 14 at 23:40










          • $begingroup$
            @FluffySkye It isn't, we also need to show that $lim_xto 0 F(x) = 0$ and $lim_xtoinfty F(x) = infty$ and then the result follows from the intermediate value theorem. Have a look, I added it in the answer.
            $endgroup$
            – mechanodroid
            Mar 15 at 21:34















          1












          $begingroup$

          The derivative of the integrand is
          $$fracddxleft(frac1-e^-txt^3/2right) = frace^-txsqrtt$$
          We claim that
          $$F'(x) = int_0^infty frace^-txsqrtt,dt$$
          for all $x > 0$.



          Fix $a > 0$ and notice that for $x ge a$ we have
          $$frace^-txsqrtt le frace^-tasqrtt le frac1sqrttchi_(0,1](t) + e^-tachi_[1,infty)(t)$$
          the latter being an integrable function on $(0,infty)$.
          For any such $x$ we have
          $$F'(x) = lim_hto 0 fracF(x+h) - F(x)h = lim_hto 0 int_0^infty frac1hleft[frac1-e^-t(x+h)t^3/2 - frac1-e^-txt^3/2right],dt$$
          The mean value theorem implies that $exists theta(h) in (x,x+h)$ such that $$frac1hleft[frac1-e^-t(x+h)t^3/2 - frac1-e^-txt^3/2right] = frace^-tthetasqrtt$$
          so $$F'(x) = lim_hto 0 int_0^infty frace^-ttheta(h)sqrtt ,dt = int_0^infty lim_hto 0frace^-ttheta(h)sqrtt ,dt = int_0^infty frace^-txsqrtt,dt$$
          We were able to swap the integral and the limit according to the Lebesgue dominated convergence theorem since
          $$left|frace^-ttheta(h)sqrtt right| le frac1sqrttchi_(0,1](t) + e^-tachi_[1,infty)(t), quadforall t > 0$$
          Notice that it is important that the dominating function does not depend on $h$ in any way.



          Since $a > 0$ is arbitrary, we conclude $F'(x) = int_0^infty frace^-txsqrtt,dt$ for all $x > 0$.




          For surjectivity it suffices to show that $lim_xto 0 F(x) = 0$ and $lim_xtoinfty F(x) = infty$. This together with continuity yields the desired result via the intermediate value theorem.



          For $x le 1$ we have
          $$frac1-e^-txt^3/2 le frac1sqrttchi_(0,1](t) + frac1t^3/2chi_[1,infty)(t)$$
          having used $e^-tx ge 1-tx$. The latter function is integrable on $(0,infty)$ so Lebesgue dominated convergence theorem implies
          $$lim_xto 0 F(x) = lim_xto 0 int_0^infty frac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty lim_xto 0frac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty 0 ,dt = 0$$



          You already know that for $x_1,x_2 in (0,infty)$ with $x_1 < x_2$ we have $$frac1-e^-tx_1t^3/2 < frac1-e^-tx_2t^3/2$$



          Lebesgue monotone convergence theorem thus implies
          $$lim_xto infty F(x) = lim_xto infty int_0^infty frac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty lim_xto inftyfrac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty frac1t^3/2 ,dt = infty$$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Thank you so much! I just learnt improper integral and this is the first excercie I got, I just want to know every detail.
            $endgroup$
            – Fluffy Skye
            Mar 14 at 21:39










          • $begingroup$
            But regarding surjectivity, without having the explicit formula, only knowing injectivity and continuity is not enough, is it?
            $endgroup$
            – Fluffy Skye
            Mar 14 at 23:40










          • $begingroup$
            @FluffySkye It isn't, we also need to show that $lim_xto 0 F(x) = 0$ and $lim_xtoinfty F(x) = infty$ and then the result follows from the intermediate value theorem. Have a look, I added it in the answer.
            $endgroup$
            – mechanodroid
            Mar 15 at 21:34













          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          The derivative of the integrand is
          $$fracddxleft(frac1-e^-txt^3/2right) = frace^-txsqrtt$$
          We claim that
          $$F'(x) = int_0^infty frace^-txsqrtt,dt$$
          for all $x > 0$.



          Fix $a > 0$ and notice that for $x ge a$ we have
          $$frace^-txsqrtt le frace^-tasqrtt le frac1sqrttchi_(0,1](t) + e^-tachi_[1,infty)(t)$$
          the latter being an integrable function on $(0,infty)$.
          For any such $x$ we have
          $$F'(x) = lim_hto 0 fracF(x+h) - F(x)h = lim_hto 0 int_0^infty frac1hleft[frac1-e^-t(x+h)t^3/2 - frac1-e^-txt^3/2right],dt$$
          The mean value theorem implies that $exists theta(h) in (x,x+h)$ such that $$frac1hleft[frac1-e^-t(x+h)t^3/2 - frac1-e^-txt^3/2right] = frace^-tthetasqrtt$$
          so $$F'(x) = lim_hto 0 int_0^infty frace^-ttheta(h)sqrtt ,dt = int_0^infty lim_hto 0frace^-ttheta(h)sqrtt ,dt = int_0^infty frace^-txsqrtt,dt$$
          We were able to swap the integral and the limit according to the Lebesgue dominated convergence theorem since
          $$left|frace^-ttheta(h)sqrtt right| le frac1sqrttchi_(0,1](t) + e^-tachi_[1,infty)(t), quadforall t > 0$$
          Notice that it is important that the dominating function does not depend on $h$ in any way.



          Since $a > 0$ is arbitrary, we conclude $F'(x) = int_0^infty frace^-txsqrtt,dt$ for all $x > 0$.




          For surjectivity it suffices to show that $lim_xto 0 F(x) = 0$ and $lim_xtoinfty F(x) = infty$. This together with continuity yields the desired result via the intermediate value theorem.



          For $x le 1$ we have
          $$frac1-e^-txt^3/2 le frac1sqrttchi_(0,1](t) + frac1t^3/2chi_[1,infty)(t)$$
          having used $e^-tx ge 1-tx$. The latter function is integrable on $(0,infty)$ so Lebesgue dominated convergence theorem implies
          $$lim_xto 0 F(x) = lim_xto 0 int_0^infty frac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty lim_xto 0frac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty 0 ,dt = 0$$



          You already know that for $x_1,x_2 in (0,infty)$ with $x_1 < x_2$ we have $$frac1-e^-tx_1t^3/2 < frac1-e^-tx_2t^3/2$$



          Lebesgue monotone convergence theorem thus implies
          $$lim_xto infty F(x) = lim_xto infty int_0^infty frac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty lim_xto inftyfrac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty frac1t^3/2 ,dt = infty$$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          The derivative of the integrand is
          $$fracddxleft(frac1-e^-txt^3/2right) = frace^-txsqrtt$$
          We claim that
          $$F'(x) = int_0^infty frace^-txsqrtt,dt$$
          for all $x > 0$.



          Fix $a > 0$ and notice that for $x ge a$ we have
          $$frace^-txsqrtt le frace^-tasqrtt le frac1sqrttchi_(0,1](t) + e^-tachi_[1,infty)(t)$$
          the latter being an integrable function on $(0,infty)$.
          For any such $x$ we have
          $$F'(x) = lim_hto 0 fracF(x+h) - F(x)h = lim_hto 0 int_0^infty frac1hleft[frac1-e^-t(x+h)t^3/2 - frac1-e^-txt^3/2right],dt$$
          The mean value theorem implies that $exists theta(h) in (x,x+h)$ such that $$frac1hleft[frac1-e^-t(x+h)t^3/2 - frac1-e^-txt^3/2right] = frace^-tthetasqrtt$$
          so $$F'(x) = lim_hto 0 int_0^infty frace^-ttheta(h)sqrtt ,dt = int_0^infty lim_hto 0frace^-ttheta(h)sqrtt ,dt = int_0^infty frace^-txsqrtt,dt$$
          We were able to swap the integral and the limit according to the Lebesgue dominated convergence theorem since
          $$left|frace^-ttheta(h)sqrtt right| le frac1sqrttchi_(0,1](t) + e^-tachi_[1,infty)(t), quadforall t > 0$$
          Notice that it is important that the dominating function does not depend on $h$ in any way.



          Since $a > 0$ is arbitrary, we conclude $F'(x) = int_0^infty frace^-txsqrtt,dt$ for all $x > 0$.




          For surjectivity it suffices to show that $lim_xto 0 F(x) = 0$ and $lim_xtoinfty F(x) = infty$. This together with continuity yields the desired result via the intermediate value theorem.



          For $x le 1$ we have
          $$frac1-e^-txt^3/2 le frac1sqrttchi_(0,1](t) + frac1t^3/2chi_[1,infty)(t)$$
          having used $e^-tx ge 1-tx$. The latter function is integrable on $(0,infty)$ so Lebesgue dominated convergence theorem implies
          $$lim_xto 0 F(x) = lim_xto 0 int_0^infty frac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty lim_xto 0frac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty 0 ,dt = 0$$



          You already know that for $x_1,x_2 in (0,infty)$ with $x_1 < x_2$ we have $$frac1-e^-tx_1t^3/2 < frac1-e^-tx_2t^3/2$$



          Lebesgue monotone convergence theorem thus implies
          $$lim_xto infty F(x) = lim_xto infty int_0^infty frac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty lim_xto inftyfrac1-e^-txt^3/2,dt = int_0^infty frac1t^3/2 ,dt = infty$$







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Mar 15 at 21:33

























          answered Mar 14 at 21:10









          mechanodroidmechanodroid

          28.9k62548




          28.9k62548











          • $begingroup$
            Thank you so much! I just learnt improper integral and this is the first excercie I got, I just want to know every detail.
            $endgroup$
            – Fluffy Skye
            Mar 14 at 21:39










          • $begingroup$
            But regarding surjectivity, without having the explicit formula, only knowing injectivity and continuity is not enough, is it?
            $endgroup$
            – Fluffy Skye
            Mar 14 at 23:40










          • $begingroup$
            @FluffySkye It isn't, we also need to show that $lim_xto 0 F(x) = 0$ and $lim_xtoinfty F(x) = infty$ and then the result follows from the intermediate value theorem. Have a look, I added it in the answer.
            $endgroup$
            – mechanodroid
            Mar 15 at 21:34
















          • $begingroup$
            Thank you so much! I just learnt improper integral and this is the first excercie I got, I just want to know every detail.
            $endgroup$
            – Fluffy Skye
            Mar 14 at 21:39










          • $begingroup$
            But regarding surjectivity, without having the explicit formula, only knowing injectivity and continuity is not enough, is it?
            $endgroup$
            – Fluffy Skye
            Mar 14 at 23:40










          • $begingroup$
            @FluffySkye It isn't, we also need to show that $lim_xto 0 F(x) = 0$ and $lim_xtoinfty F(x) = infty$ and then the result follows from the intermediate value theorem. Have a look, I added it in the answer.
            $endgroup$
            – mechanodroid
            Mar 15 at 21:34















          $begingroup$
          Thank you so much! I just learnt improper integral and this is the first excercie I got, I just want to know every detail.
          $endgroup$
          – Fluffy Skye
          Mar 14 at 21:39




          $begingroup$
          Thank you so much! I just learnt improper integral and this is the first excercie I got, I just want to know every detail.
          $endgroup$
          – Fluffy Skye
          Mar 14 at 21:39












          $begingroup$
          But regarding surjectivity, without having the explicit formula, only knowing injectivity and continuity is not enough, is it?
          $endgroup$
          – Fluffy Skye
          Mar 14 at 23:40




          $begingroup$
          But regarding surjectivity, without having the explicit formula, only knowing injectivity and continuity is not enough, is it?
          $endgroup$
          – Fluffy Skye
          Mar 14 at 23:40












          $begingroup$
          @FluffySkye It isn't, we also need to show that $lim_xto 0 F(x) = 0$ and $lim_xtoinfty F(x) = infty$ and then the result follows from the intermediate value theorem. Have a look, I added it in the answer.
          $endgroup$
          – mechanodroid
          Mar 15 at 21:34




          $begingroup$
          @FluffySkye It isn't, we also need to show that $lim_xto 0 F(x) = 0$ and $lim_xtoinfty F(x) = infty$ and then the result follows from the intermediate value theorem. Have a look, I added it in the answer.
          $endgroup$
          – mechanodroid
          Mar 15 at 21:34

















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