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Is there an elementary proof for the diameter of an ellipse?


How to find the center of an (scaled) ellipse?Finding the eccentricity/focus/directrix of ellipses and hyperbolas under some rotationFinding the point on a rotated ellipse corresponding to a given tangential angleLongest parallel chord of an ellipseUsing the Pin-And-String Method to create parametric equation for an ellipseProperty of ellipses involving normals at the endpoints of a focal chord and the midpoint of that chordFit an ellipse with known semi-major-axis and pointsHow to find ellipse circumference using 5 points?Determining the normal of an ellipseGraphically locate the axes or foci of an ellipse from 5 arbitrary points on its perimeter.













1












$begingroup$


Let $A=(x,y) in mathbb R^2 , $ be an ellipse. ($a,b>0$). It is a known fact that the diameter of $A$, is $2maxa,b$. This can be proved via Lagrange multiplier's method.



Is there a more elementary proof? (not using Lagrange multiplier's method). Is there a proof without calculus at all?



I think that one can imagine the following process: Start with an arbitrary point $p_0$ on the ellipse, and connect it with a chord to its "antipodal point"- that is the point on the ellipse that maximizes the distance from $p_0$. (we can sort of know where it should be "visually", since the connecting chord should be orthogonal to the ellipse at that point).



Now, moving continuously the initial point $p_0$, it is rather intuitive that the longest chord should be the major axis.



Of course, this is not a rigorous proof.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$
















    1












    $begingroup$


    Let $A=(x,y) in mathbb R^2 , $ be an ellipse. ($a,b>0$). It is a known fact that the diameter of $A$, is $2maxa,b$. This can be proved via Lagrange multiplier's method.



    Is there a more elementary proof? (not using Lagrange multiplier's method). Is there a proof without calculus at all?



    I think that one can imagine the following process: Start with an arbitrary point $p_0$ on the ellipse, and connect it with a chord to its "antipodal point"- that is the point on the ellipse that maximizes the distance from $p_0$. (we can sort of know where it should be "visually", since the connecting chord should be orthogonal to the ellipse at that point).



    Now, moving continuously the initial point $p_0$, it is rather intuitive that the longest chord should be the major axis.



    Of course, this is not a rigorous proof.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$














      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      Let $A=(x,y) in mathbb R^2 , $ be an ellipse. ($a,b>0$). It is a known fact that the diameter of $A$, is $2maxa,b$. This can be proved via Lagrange multiplier's method.



      Is there a more elementary proof? (not using Lagrange multiplier's method). Is there a proof without calculus at all?



      I think that one can imagine the following process: Start with an arbitrary point $p_0$ on the ellipse, and connect it with a chord to its "antipodal point"- that is the point on the ellipse that maximizes the distance from $p_0$. (we can sort of know where it should be "visually", since the connecting chord should be orthogonal to the ellipse at that point).



      Now, moving continuously the initial point $p_0$, it is rather intuitive that the longest chord should be the major axis.



      Of course, this is not a rigorous proof.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Let $A=(x,y) in mathbb R^2 , $ be an ellipse. ($a,b>0$). It is a known fact that the diameter of $A$, is $2maxa,b$. This can be proved via Lagrange multiplier's method.



      Is there a more elementary proof? (not using Lagrange multiplier's method). Is there a proof without calculus at all?



      I think that one can imagine the following process: Start with an arbitrary point $p_0$ on the ellipse, and connect it with a chord to its "antipodal point"- that is the point on the ellipse that maximizes the distance from $p_0$. (we can sort of know where it should be "visually", since the connecting chord should be orthogonal to the ellipse at that point).



      Now, moving continuously the initial point $p_0$, it is rather intuitive that the longest chord should be the major axis.



      Of course, this is not a rigorous proof.







      multivariable-calculus optimization analytic-geometry conic-sections maxima-minima






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Mar 14 at 7:58









      Asaf ShacharAsaf Shachar

      5,77931144




      5,77931144




















          4 Answers
          4






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          3












          $begingroup$

          Geometrically, the map $xmapsto x/a$ stretches the $x$ axis by $a$, and similarly $ymapsto y/b$ stretches the $y$ axis by a factor of $b$. Thus the graph of $(x/a)^2+(y/b)^2=1$ is the graph of the circle, but stretched in the $x,y$ directions by a factor of $a,b$ respectively. The conclusion follows.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            To tie all the loose ends, it is easy to show that for any two points $p,q$ at distance $d=|p-q|$, the transformed points $p',q'$ are at distance $d'=|p'-q'|$ with $bdle d'le ad$.
            $endgroup$
            – Rahul
            Mar 14 at 8:59











          • $begingroup$
            @Rahul Can you please elaborate on that? I do not see it...
            $endgroup$
            – Asaf Shachar
            Mar 14 at 9:50










          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for this answer. Can you please elaborate on how the conclusion follows from this geometric description? I don't see that immediately.
            $endgroup$
            – Asaf Shachar
            Mar 14 at 9:51






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @Asaf: Let's say $p-q=(x,y)$. Then $d'=sqrt(ax)^2+(by)^2lesqrt(ax)^2+(ay)^2=asqrtx^2+y^2=ad$ (sorry, I assumed $age b$ in my comment). Similarly one can show $d'ge bd$.
            $endgroup$
            – Rahul
            Mar 14 at 10:12











          • $begingroup$
            @AsafShachar assuming $ageq b$, we know the antipodal points $(pm 1,0)$ have become $2a$ apart under the map. To see that it is the longest segment through the origin, note that $(x,y)$ with $x^2+y^2=1$ is mapped to $(ax,by)$ so that the distance from the origin to that point is $sqrta^2x^2+b^2y^2leqsqrta^2(x^2+y^2)=a$. So the segment on the $x$ axis maximises the length to the origin.
            $endgroup$
            – YiFan
            Mar 14 at 14:16


















          0












          $begingroup$

          $(fracxa)^2 +(fracyb)^2=1$,



          an ellipse centered at the origin.



          Set $x= a cos t$; $y= b sin t$, $0 le t <2π$.



          Note :



          $x(t+π)=-x$, $y(t+π)= -y$;



          the points $(x(t), y(t))$ and $(x(t+π),y(t+t))$ lie on the line $y= mx$ , $m= tan t$, on 'opposite' sides of the ellipse, and are equidistant from the origin.



          Given the symmetry about the $y-$axis it is sufficient to consider the first quadrant, and find $r=(d/2).$



          Distance $r$ from origin of a point $(x,y)$ on the ellipse:



          $r^2=a^2cos ^2 t +b^2 sin^2 t.$



          1) $a ge b$:



          $r^2 = a^2- a^2sin^2 t +b^2 sin^2 t$;



          $r^2= a^2 -(a^2-b^2)sin^2 t le a^2$.



          $r_max^2 = a^2$, or $d=2r= 2a$;



          Similarly:



          2) $a lt b$:



          $r^2 = b^2-(b^2-a^2)cos ^2 t le b^2$;



          $r_max^2 = b^2$, or $d= 2r=2b$.



          Hence $d=max (2a,2b)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Max.Thanks for suggestions.
            $endgroup$
            – Peter Szilas
            Mar 14 at 9:45


















          0












          $begingroup$

          An ellipse $mathscrE$ is a smooth, convex, centrally-symmetric shape. Assume that $A,BinmathscrE$ are the endpoints of a diameter. Then $AB$ has to be perpendicular to the tangent at $A$ and the tangent at $B$, hence such tangents have to be parallel to each other. This implies that $AB$ goes through the center of the ellipse, hence $B$ is the symmetric of $A$ with respect to the center, and the determination of the longest chord in an ellipse is equivalent to the maximization problem
          $$ max_fracx^2a^2+fracy^2b^2=1 (x^2+y^2) $$
          or to the determination of the eigenvalues/eigenvectors of the symmetric matrix $beginpmatrixfrac1a&0\ 0&frac1bendpmatrix$, which are the trivial ones.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$




















            0












            $begingroup$

            There sure is. Let $AB$ be a chord of the ellipse and let $ F_1$ and $F_2$ be the foci, as pictured in the diagram. enter image description here
            let $l$ be the focal length of the ellipse. Then by definition $AF_1+AF_2=l$ and $BF_1 +BF_2=l$. If $A$, $B$, $F_1$ and $F_2$ are not all collinear, then by the triangle inequality at least one of $ AB<AF_1+BF_1$ and $AB<AF_2+BF_2$ is true. Hence $$2l= AF_1 +AF_2 +BF_1+BF_2>2AB$$
            $$l>AB$$
            On the other hand if $A$, $B$, $F_1$ and $F_2$ are all collinear and $A ne B$
            $$2l= AF_1 +AF_2 +BF_1+BF_2=2AB$$
            $$l=AB$$



            Placing coordinates so that the foci lie on the $x$ axis and the ellipse is $fracx^2a^2 + fracy^2b^2=1$. It is clear that the collinear case has $A$ and $B$ as the $x$ intercepts, $(a,0)$ and $(-a,0)$ , hence $l=2a$ and $AB < 2a$ whenever it does not pass through both foci.






            share|cite|improve this answer











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              4 Answers
              4






              active

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              4 Answers
              4






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes









              3












              $begingroup$

              Geometrically, the map $xmapsto x/a$ stretches the $x$ axis by $a$, and similarly $ymapsto y/b$ stretches the $y$ axis by a factor of $b$. Thus the graph of $(x/a)^2+(y/b)^2=1$ is the graph of the circle, but stretched in the $x,y$ directions by a factor of $a,b$ respectively. The conclusion follows.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$












              • $begingroup$
                To tie all the loose ends, it is easy to show that for any two points $p,q$ at distance $d=|p-q|$, the transformed points $p',q'$ are at distance $d'=|p'-q'|$ with $bdle d'le ad$.
                $endgroup$
                – Rahul
                Mar 14 at 8:59











              • $begingroup$
                @Rahul Can you please elaborate on that? I do not see it...
                $endgroup$
                – Asaf Shachar
                Mar 14 at 9:50










              • $begingroup$
                Thank you for this answer. Can you please elaborate on how the conclusion follows from this geometric description? I don't see that immediately.
                $endgroup$
                – Asaf Shachar
                Mar 14 at 9:51






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                @Asaf: Let's say $p-q=(x,y)$. Then $d'=sqrt(ax)^2+(by)^2lesqrt(ax)^2+(ay)^2=asqrtx^2+y^2=ad$ (sorry, I assumed $age b$ in my comment). Similarly one can show $d'ge bd$.
                $endgroup$
                – Rahul
                Mar 14 at 10:12











              • $begingroup$
                @AsafShachar assuming $ageq b$, we know the antipodal points $(pm 1,0)$ have become $2a$ apart under the map. To see that it is the longest segment through the origin, note that $(x,y)$ with $x^2+y^2=1$ is mapped to $(ax,by)$ so that the distance from the origin to that point is $sqrta^2x^2+b^2y^2leqsqrta^2(x^2+y^2)=a$. So the segment on the $x$ axis maximises the length to the origin.
                $endgroup$
                – YiFan
                Mar 14 at 14:16















              3












              $begingroup$

              Geometrically, the map $xmapsto x/a$ stretches the $x$ axis by $a$, and similarly $ymapsto y/b$ stretches the $y$ axis by a factor of $b$. Thus the graph of $(x/a)^2+(y/b)^2=1$ is the graph of the circle, but stretched in the $x,y$ directions by a factor of $a,b$ respectively. The conclusion follows.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$












              • $begingroup$
                To tie all the loose ends, it is easy to show that for any two points $p,q$ at distance $d=|p-q|$, the transformed points $p',q'$ are at distance $d'=|p'-q'|$ with $bdle d'le ad$.
                $endgroup$
                – Rahul
                Mar 14 at 8:59











              • $begingroup$
                @Rahul Can you please elaborate on that? I do not see it...
                $endgroup$
                – Asaf Shachar
                Mar 14 at 9:50










              • $begingroup$
                Thank you for this answer. Can you please elaborate on how the conclusion follows from this geometric description? I don't see that immediately.
                $endgroup$
                – Asaf Shachar
                Mar 14 at 9:51






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                @Asaf: Let's say $p-q=(x,y)$. Then $d'=sqrt(ax)^2+(by)^2lesqrt(ax)^2+(ay)^2=asqrtx^2+y^2=ad$ (sorry, I assumed $age b$ in my comment). Similarly one can show $d'ge bd$.
                $endgroup$
                – Rahul
                Mar 14 at 10:12











              • $begingroup$
                @AsafShachar assuming $ageq b$, we know the antipodal points $(pm 1,0)$ have become $2a$ apart under the map. To see that it is the longest segment through the origin, note that $(x,y)$ with $x^2+y^2=1$ is mapped to $(ax,by)$ so that the distance from the origin to that point is $sqrta^2x^2+b^2y^2leqsqrta^2(x^2+y^2)=a$. So the segment on the $x$ axis maximises the length to the origin.
                $endgroup$
                – YiFan
                Mar 14 at 14:16













              3












              3








              3





              $begingroup$

              Geometrically, the map $xmapsto x/a$ stretches the $x$ axis by $a$, and similarly $ymapsto y/b$ stretches the $y$ axis by a factor of $b$. Thus the graph of $(x/a)^2+(y/b)^2=1$ is the graph of the circle, but stretched in the $x,y$ directions by a factor of $a,b$ respectively. The conclusion follows.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$



              Geometrically, the map $xmapsto x/a$ stretches the $x$ axis by $a$, and similarly $ymapsto y/b$ stretches the $y$ axis by a factor of $b$. Thus the graph of $(x/a)^2+(y/b)^2=1$ is the graph of the circle, but stretched in the $x,y$ directions by a factor of $a,b$ respectively. The conclusion follows.







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Mar 14 at 8:30









              YiFanYiFan

              4,7531727




              4,7531727











              • $begingroup$
                To tie all the loose ends, it is easy to show that for any two points $p,q$ at distance $d=|p-q|$, the transformed points $p',q'$ are at distance $d'=|p'-q'|$ with $bdle d'le ad$.
                $endgroup$
                – Rahul
                Mar 14 at 8:59











              • $begingroup$
                @Rahul Can you please elaborate on that? I do not see it...
                $endgroup$
                – Asaf Shachar
                Mar 14 at 9:50










              • $begingroup$
                Thank you for this answer. Can you please elaborate on how the conclusion follows from this geometric description? I don't see that immediately.
                $endgroup$
                – Asaf Shachar
                Mar 14 at 9:51






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                @Asaf: Let's say $p-q=(x,y)$. Then $d'=sqrt(ax)^2+(by)^2lesqrt(ax)^2+(ay)^2=asqrtx^2+y^2=ad$ (sorry, I assumed $age b$ in my comment). Similarly one can show $d'ge bd$.
                $endgroup$
                – Rahul
                Mar 14 at 10:12











              • $begingroup$
                @AsafShachar assuming $ageq b$, we know the antipodal points $(pm 1,0)$ have become $2a$ apart under the map. To see that it is the longest segment through the origin, note that $(x,y)$ with $x^2+y^2=1$ is mapped to $(ax,by)$ so that the distance from the origin to that point is $sqrta^2x^2+b^2y^2leqsqrta^2(x^2+y^2)=a$. So the segment on the $x$ axis maximises the length to the origin.
                $endgroup$
                – YiFan
                Mar 14 at 14:16
















              • $begingroup$
                To tie all the loose ends, it is easy to show that for any two points $p,q$ at distance $d=|p-q|$, the transformed points $p',q'$ are at distance $d'=|p'-q'|$ with $bdle d'le ad$.
                $endgroup$
                – Rahul
                Mar 14 at 8:59











              • $begingroup$
                @Rahul Can you please elaborate on that? I do not see it...
                $endgroup$
                – Asaf Shachar
                Mar 14 at 9:50










              • $begingroup$
                Thank you for this answer. Can you please elaborate on how the conclusion follows from this geometric description? I don't see that immediately.
                $endgroup$
                – Asaf Shachar
                Mar 14 at 9:51






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                @Asaf: Let's say $p-q=(x,y)$. Then $d'=sqrt(ax)^2+(by)^2lesqrt(ax)^2+(ay)^2=asqrtx^2+y^2=ad$ (sorry, I assumed $age b$ in my comment). Similarly one can show $d'ge bd$.
                $endgroup$
                – Rahul
                Mar 14 at 10:12











              • $begingroup$
                @AsafShachar assuming $ageq b$, we know the antipodal points $(pm 1,0)$ have become $2a$ apart under the map. To see that it is the longest segment through the origin, note that $(x,y)$ with $x^2+y^2=1$ is mapped to $(ax,by)$ so that the distance from the origin to that point is $sqrta^2x^2+b^2y^2leqsqrta^2(x^2+y^2)=a$. So the segment on the $x$ axis maximises the length to the origin.
                $endgroup$
                – YiFan
                Mar 14 at 14:16















              $begingroup$
              To tie all the loose ends, it is easy to show that for any two points $p,q$ at distance $d=|p-q|$, the transformed points $p',q'$ are at distance $d'=|p'-q'|$ with $bdle d'le ad$.
              $endgroup$
              – Rahul
              Mar 14 at 8:59





              $begingroup$
              To tie all the loose ends, it is easy to show that for any two points $p,q$ at distance $d=|p-q|$, the transformed points $p',q'$ are at distance $d'=|p'-q'|$ with $bdle d'le ad$.
              $endgroup$
              – Rahul
              Mar 14 at 8:59













              $begingroup$
              @Rahul Can you please elaborate on that? I do not see it...
              $endgroup$
              – Asaf Shachar
              Mar 14 at 9:50




              $begingroup$
              @Rahul Can you please elaborate on that? I do not see it...
              $endgroup$
              – Asaf Shachar
              Mar 14 at 9:50












              $begingroup$
              Thank you for this answer. Can you please elaborate on how the conclusion follows from this geometric description? I don't see that immediately.
              $endgroup$
              – Asaf Shachar
              Mar 14 at 9:51




              $begingroup$
              Thank you for this answer. Can you please elaborate on how the conclusion follows from this geometric description? I don't see that immediately.
              $endgroup$
              – Asaf Shachar
              Mar 14 at 9:51




              1




              1




              $begingroup$
              @Asaf: Let's say $p-q=(x,y)$. Then $d'=sqrt(ax)^2+(by)^2lesqrt(ax)^2+(ay)^2=asqrtx^2+y^2=ad$ (sorry, I assumed $age b$ in my comment). Similarly one can show $d'ge bd$.
              $endgroup$
              – Rahul
              Mar 14 at 10:12





              $begingroup$
              @Asaf: Let's say $p-q=(x,y)$. Then $d'=sqrt(ax)^2+(by)^2lesqrt(ax)^2+(ay)^2=asqrtx^2+y^2=ad$ (sorry, I assumed $age b$ in my comment). Similarly one can show $d'ge bd$.
              $endgroup$
              – Rahul
              Mar 14 at 10:12













              $begingroup$
              @AsafShachar assuming $ageq b$, we know the antipodal points $(pm 1,0)$ have become $2a$ apart under the map. To see that it is the longest segment through the origin, note that $(x,y)$ with $x^2+y^2=1$ is mapped to $(ax,by)$ so that the distance from the origin to that point is $sqrta^2x^2+b^2y^2leqsqrta^2(x^2+y^2)=a$. So the segment on the $x$ axis maximises the length to the origin.
              $endgroup$
              – YiFan
              Mar 14 at 14:16




              $begingroup$
              @AsafShachar assuming $ageq b$, we know the antipodal points $(pm 1,0)$ have become $2a$ apart under the map. To see that it is the longest segment through the origin, note that $(x,y)$ with $x^2+y^2=1$ is mapped to $(ax,by)$ so that the distance from the origin to that point is $sqrta^2x^2+b^2y^2leqsqrta^2(x^2+y^2)=a$. So the segment on the $x$ axis maximises the length to the origin.
              $endgroup$
              – YiFan
              Mar 14 at 14:16











              0












              $begingroup$

              $(fracxa)^2 +(fracyb)^2=1$,



              an ellipse centered at the origin.



              Set $x= a cos t$; $y= b sin t$, $0 le t <2π$.



              Note :



              $x(t+π)=-x$, $y(t+π)= -y$;



              the points $(x(t), y(t))$ and $(x(t+π),y(t+t))$ lie on the line $y= mx$ , $m= tan t$, on 'opposite' sides of the ellipse, and are equidistant from the origin.



              Given the symmetry about the $y-$axis it is sufficient to consider the first quadrant, and find $r=(d/2).$



              Distance $r$ from origin of a point $(x,y)$ on the ellipse:



              $r^2=a^2cos ^2 t +b^2 sin^2 t.$



              1) $a ge b$:



              $r^2 = a^2- a^2sin^2 t +b^2 sin^2 t$;



              $r^2= a^2 -(a^2-b^2)sin^2 t le a^2$.



              $r_max^2 = a^2$, or $d=2r= 2a$;



              Similarly:



              2) $a lt b$:



              $r^2 = b^2-(b^2-a^2)cos ^2 t le b^2$;



              $r_max^2 = b^2$, or $d= 2r=2b$.



              Hence $d=max (2a,2b)$.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$












              • $begingroup$
                Max.Thanks for suggestions.
                $endgroup$
                – Peter Szilas
                Mar 14 at 9:45















              0












              $begingroup$

              $(fracxa)^2 +(fracyb)^2=1$,



              an ellipse centered at the origin.



              Set $x= a cos t$; $y= b sin t$, $0 le t <2π$.



              Note :



              $x(t+π)=-x$, $y(t+π)= -y$;



              the points $(x(t), y(t))$ and $(x(t+π),y(t+t))$ lie on the line $y= mx$ , $m= tan t$, on 'opposite' sides of the ellipse, and are equidistant from the origin.



              Given the symmetry about the $y-$axis it is sufficient to consider the first quadrant, and find $r=(d/2).$



              Distance $r$ from origin of a point $(x,y)$ on the ellipse:



              $r^2=a^2cos ^2 t +b^2 sin^2 t.$



              1) $a ge b$:



              $r^2 = a^2- a^2sin^2 t +b^2 sin^2 t$;



              $r^2= a^2 -(a^2-b^2)sin^2 t le a^2$.



              $r_max^2 = a^2$, or $d=2r= 2a$;



              Similarly:



              2) $a lt b$:



              $r^2 = b^2-(b^2-a^2)cos ^2 t le b^2$;



              $r_max^2 = b^2$, or $d= 2r=2b$.



              Hence $d=max (2a,2b)$.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$












              • $begingroup$
                Max.Thanks for suggestions.
                $endgroup$
                – Peter Szilas
                Mar 14 at 9:45













              0












              0








              0





              $begingroup$

              $(fracxa)^2 +(fracyb)^2=1$,



              an ellipse centered at the origin.



              Set $x= a cos t$; $y= b sin t$, $0 le t <2π$.



              Note :



              $x(t+π)=-x$, $y(t+π)= -y$;



              the points $(x(t), y(t))$ and $(x(t+π),y(t+t))$ lie on the line $y= mx$ , $m= tan t$, on 'opposite' sides of the ellipse, and are equidistant from the origin.



              Given the symmetry about the $y-$axis it is sufficient to consider the first quadrant, and find $r=(d/2).$



              Distance $r$ from origin of a point $(x,y)$ on the ellipse:



              $r^2=a^2cos ^2 t +b^2 sin^2 t.$



              1) $a ge b$:



              $r^2 = a^2- a^2sin^2 t +b^2 sin^2 t$;



              $r^2= a^2 -(a^2-b^2)sin^2 t le a^2$.



              $r_max^2 = a^2$, or $d=2r= 2a$;



              Similarly:



              2) $a lt b$:



              $r^2 = b^2-(b^2-a^2)cos ^2 t le b^2$;



              $r_max^2 = b^2$, or $d= 2r=2b$.



              Hence $d=max (2a,2b)$.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$



              $(fracxa)^2 +(fracyb)^2=1$,



              an ellipse centered at the origin.



              Set $x= a cos t$; $y= b sin t$, $0 le t <2π$.



              Note :



              $x(t+π)=-x$, $y(t+π)= -y$;



              the points $(x(t), y(t))$ and $(x(t+π),y(t+t))$ lie on the line $y= mx$ , $m= tan t$, on 'opposite' sides of the ellipse, and are equidistant from the origin.



              Given the symmetry about the $y-$axis it is sufficient to consider the first quadrant, and find $r=(d/2).$



              Distance $r$ from origin of a point $(x,y)$ on the ellipse:



              $r^2=a^2cos ^2 t +b^2 sin^2 t.$



              1) $a ge b$:



              $r^2 = a^2- a^2sin^2 t +b^2 sin^2 t$;



              $r^2= a^2 -(a^2-b^2)sin^2 t le a^2$.



              $r_max^2 = a^2$, or $d=2r= 2a$;



              Similarly:



              2) $a lt b$:



              $r^2 = b^2-(b^2-a^2)cos ^2 t le b^2$;



              $r_max^2 = b^2$, or $d= 2r=2b$.



              Hence $d=max (2a,2b)$.







              share|cite|improve this answer














              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer








              edited Mar 14 at 10:11









              Max

              9011318




              9011318










              answered Mar 14 at 8:50









              Peter SzilasPeter Szilas

              11.6k2822




              11.6k2822











              • $begingroup$
                Max.Thanks for suggestions.
                $endgroup$
                – Peter Szilas
                Mar 14 at 9:45
















              • $begingroup$
                Max.Thanks for suggestions.
                $endgroup$
                – Peter Szilas
                Mar 14 at 9:45















              $begingroup$
              Max.Thanks for suggestions.
              $endgroup$
              – Peter Szilas
              Mar 14 at 9:45




              $begingroup$
              Max.Thanks for suggestions.
              $endgroup$
              – Peter Szilas
              Mar 14 at 9:45











              0












              $begingroup$

              An ellipse $mathscrE$ is a smooth, convex, centrally-symmetric shape. Assume that $A,BinmathscrE$ are the endpoints of a diameter. Then $AB$ has to be perpendicular to the tangent at $A$ and the tangent at $B$, hence such tangents have to be parallel to each other. This implies that $AB$ goes through the center of the ellipse, hence $B$ is the symmetric of $A$ with respect to the center, and the determination of the longest chord in an ellipse is equivalent to the maximization problem
              $$ max_fracx^2a^2+fracy^2b^2=1 (x^2+y^2) $$
              or to the determination of the eigenvalues/eigenvectors of the symmetric matrix $beginpmatrixfrac1a&0\ 0&frac1bendpmatrix$, which are the trivial ones.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$

















                0












                $begingroup$

                An ellipse $mathscrE$ is a smooth, convex, centrally-symmetric shape. Assume that $A,BinmathscrE$ are the endpoints of a diameter. Then $AB$ has to be perpendicular to the tangent at $A$ and the tangent at $B$, hence such tangents have to be parallel to each other. This implies that $AB$ goes through the center of the ellipse, hence $B$ is the symmetric of $A$ with respect to the center, and the determination of the longest chord in an ellipse is equivalent to the maximization problem
                $$ max_fracx^2a^2+fracy^2b^2=1 (x^2+y^2) $$
                or to the determination of the eigenvalues/eigenvectors of the symmetric matrix $beginpmatrixfrac1a&0\ 0&frac1bendpmatrix$, which are the trivial ones.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$















                  0












                  0








                  0





                  $begingroup$

                  An ellipse $mathscrE$ is a smooth, convex, centrally-symmetric shape. Assume that $A,BinmathscrE$ are the endpoints of a diameter. Then $AB$ has to be perpendicular to the tangent at $A$ and the tangent at $B$, hence such tangents have to be parallel to each other. This implies that $AB$ goes through the center of the ellipse, hence $B$ is the symmetric of $A$ with respect to the center, and the determination of the longest chord in an ellipse is equivalent to the maximization problem
                  $$ max_fracx^2a^2+fracy^2b^2=1 (x^2+y^2) $$
                  or to the determination of the eigenvalues/eigenvectors of the symmetric matrix $beginpmatrixfrac1a&0\ 0&frac1bendpmatrix$, which are the trivial ones.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  An ellipse $mathscrE$ is a smooth, convex, centrally-symmetric shape. Assume that $A,BinmathscrE$ are the endpoints of a diameter. Then $AB$ has to be perpendicular to the tangent at $A$ and the tangent at $B$, hence such tangents have to be parallel to each other. This implies that $AB$ goes through the center of the ellipse, hence $B$ is the symmetric of $A$ with respect to the center, and the determination of the longest chord in an ellipse is equivalent to the maximization problem
                  $$ max_fracx^2a^2+fracy^2b^2=1 (x^2+y^2) $$
                  or to the determination of the eigenvalues/eigenvectors of the symmetric matrix $beginpmatrixfrac1a&0\ 0&frac1bendpmatrix$, which are the trivial ones.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Mar 14 at 13:50









                  Jack D'AurizioJack D'Aurizio

                  291k33284669




                  291k33284669





















                      0












                      $begingroup$

                      There sure is. Let $AB$ be a chord of the ellipse and let $ F_1$ and $F_2$ be the foci, as pictured in the diagram. enter image description here
                      let $l$ be the focal length of the ellipse. Then by definition $AF_1+AF_2=l$ and $BF_1 +BF_2=l$. If $A$, $B$, $F_1$ and $F_2$ are not all collinear, then by the triangle inequality at least one of $ AB<AF_1+BF_1$ and $AB<AF_2+BF_2$ is true. Hence $$2l= AF_1 +AF_2 +BF_1+BF_2>2AB$$
                      $$l>AB$$
                      On the other hand if $A$, $B$, $F_1$ and $F_2$ are all collinear and $A ne B$
                      $$2l= AF_1 +AF_2 +BF_1+BF_2=2AB$$
                      $$l=AB$$



                      Placing coordinates so that the foci lie on the $x$ axis and the ellipse is $fracx^2a^2 + fracy^2b^2=1$. It is clear that the collinear case has $A$ and $B$ as the $x$ intercepts, $(a,0)$ and $(-a,0)$ , hence $l=2a$ and $AB < 2a$ whenever it does not pass through both foci.






                      share|cite|improve this answer











                      $endgroup$

















                        0












                        $begingroup$

                        There sure is. Let $AB$ be a chord of the ellipse and let $ F_1$ and $F_2$ be the foci, as pictured in the diagram. enter image description here
                        let $l$ be the focal length of the ellipse. Then by definition $AF_1+AF_2=l$ and $BF_1 +BF_2=l$. If $A$, $B$, $F_1$ and $F_2$ are not all collinear, then by the triangle inequality at least one of $ AB<AF_1+BF_1$ and $AB<AF_2+BF_2$ is true. Hence $$2l= AF_1 +AF_2 +BF_1+BF_2>2AB$$
                        $$l>AB$$
                        On the other hand if $A$, $B$, $F_1$ and $F_2$ are all collinear and $A ne B$
                        $$2l= AF_1 +AF_2 +BF_1+BF_2=2AB$$
                        $$l=AB$$



                        Placing coordinates so that the foci lie on the $x$ axis and the ellipse is $fracx^2a^2 + fracy^2b^2=1$. It is clear that the collinear case has $A$ and $B$ as the $x$ intercepts, $(a,0)$ and $(-a,0)$ , hence $l=2a$ and $AB < 2a$ whenever it does not pass through both foci.






                        share|cite|improve this answer











                        $endgroup$















                          0












                          0








                          0





                          $begingroup$

                          There sure is. Let $AB$ be a chord of the ellipse and let $ F_1$ and $F_2$ be the foci, as pictured in the diagram. enter image description here
                          let $l$ be the focal length of the ellipse. Then by definition $AF_1+AF_2=l$ and $BF_1 +BF_2=l$. If $A$, $B$, $F_1$ and $F_2$ are not all collinear, then by the triangle inequality at least one of $ AB<AF_1+BF_1$ and $AB<AF_2+BF_2$ is true. Hence $$2l= AF_1 +AF_2 +BF_1+BF_2>2AB$$
                          $$l>AB$$
                          On the other hand if $A$, $B$, $F_1$ and $F_2$ are all collinear and $A ne B$
                          $$2l= AF_1 +AF_2 +BF_1+BF_2=2AB$$
                          $$l=AB$$



                          Placing coordinates so that the foci lie on the $x$ axis and the ellipse is $fracx^2a^2 + fracy^2b^2=1$. It is clear that the collinear case has $A$ and $B$ as the $x$ intercepts, $(a,0)$ and $(-a,0)$ , hence $l=2a$ and $AB < 2a$ whenever it does not pass through both foci.






                          share|cite|improve this answer











                          $endgroup$



                          There sure is. Let $AB$ be a chord of the ellipse and let $ F_1$ and $F_2$ be the foci, as pictured in the diagram. enter image description here
                          let $l$ be the focal length of the ellipse. Then by definition $AF_1+AF_2=l$ and $BF_1 +BF_2=l$. If $A$, $B$, $F_1$ and $F_2$ are not all collinear, then by the triangle inequality at least one of $ AB<AF_1+BF_1$ and $AB<AF_2+BF_2$ is true. Hence $$2l= AF_1 +AF_2 +BF_1+BF_2>2AB$$
                          $$l>AB$$
                          On the other hand if $A$, $B$, $F_1$ and $F_2$ are all collinear and $A ne B$
                          $$2l= AF_1 +AF_2 +BF_1+BF_2=2AB$$
                          $$l=AB$$



                          Placing coordinates so that the foci lie on the $x$ axis and the ellipse is $fracx^2a^2 + fracy^2b^2=1$. It is clear that the collinear case has $A$ and $B$ as the $x$ intercepts, $(a,0)$ and $(-a,0)$ , hence $l=2a$ and $AB < 2a$ whenever it does not pass through both foci.







                          share|cite|improve this answer














                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer








                          edited Mar 15 at 9:46

























                          answered Mar 14 at 9:00









                          B.MartinB.Martin

                          4121210




                          4121210



























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