$e^x neq 0$ Proof CorrectnessCorrectness of proof of division in ceiling functionCorrectness of Proof by RefutationProve that $ 2^n not equiv 1 pmodn $ for any $n > 1$.Proof of Correctness of Recursive AlgorithmProof about the convergence of a sequenceTowers of Hanoi - Proof of CorrectnessIs this proof for $e^ipi=-1$ correct?Proof in constructive mathematics using decidability.Is this proof of irrationality?A Proof for Generalized Rolle's Theorem
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$e^x neq 0$ Proof Correctness
Correctness of proof of division in ceiling functionCorrectness of Proof by RefutationProve that $ 2^n not equiv 1 pmodn $ for any $n > 1$.Proof of Correctness of Recursive AlgorithmProof about the convergence of a sequenceTowers of Hanoi - Proof of CorrectnessIs this proof for $e^ipi=-1$ correct?Proof in constructive mathematics using decidability.Is this proof of irrationality?A Proof for Generalized Rolle's Theorem
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note: I’m not looking for another proof for this, I am just asking if this proof is correct.
This is my proof.
Assume $f(x)=e^x=0$
Then $e^fracx2e^fracx2=0$
More generally, $(e^fracxn)^n=0$
$lim_n to inftyf(x)=lim_n to infty1^n=1$
That means $1=0$ hence the contradiction.
limits proof-verification exponential-function
$endgroup$
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
note: I’m not looking for another proof for this, I am just asking if this proof is correct.
This is my proof.
Assume $f(x)=e^x=0$
Then $e^fracx2e^fracx2=0$
More generally, $(e^fracxn)^n=0$
$lim_n to inftyf(x)=lim_n to infty1^n=1$
That means $1=0$ hence the contradiction.
limits proof-verification exponential-function
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I don't follow the proof since the first limit, should it be $lim_n to infty f(x/n)$ perhaps? And why does that come out to $1^n$?
$endgroup$
– Joppy
Mar 14 at 6:02
$begingroup$
@Joppy It comes out to $1^n$ because I took the limit of $e^fracxn$ first which equals 1.
$endgroup$
– Simplex1
Mar 14 at 6:04
$begingroup$
It is quite clear from the expansion of $e^x$ that $e^x > 0$ for $x>0$ Now observe that $e^xcdot e^-x = 1.$ So $e^-x neq 0.$
$endgroup$
– Dbchatto67
Mar 14 at 6:04
$begingroup$
You can't evaluate limits like $(e^fracxn)^n$ "one at a time"
$endgroup$
– Joppy
Mar 14 at 6:06
$begingroup$
Why cant you do that?
$endgroup$
– Simplex1
Mar 14 at 6:08
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
note: I’m not looking for another proof for this, I am just asking if this proof is correct.
This is my proof.
Assume $f(x)=e^x=0$
Then $e^fracx2e^fracx2=0$
More generally, $(e^fracxn)^n=0$
$lim_n to inftyf(x)=lim_n to infty1^n=1$
That means $1=0$ hence the contradiction.
limits proof-verification exponential-function
$endgroup$
note: I’m not looking for another proof for this, I am just asking if this proof is correct.
This is my proof.
Assume $f(x)=e^x=0$
Then $e^fracx2e^fracx2=0$
More generally, $(e^fracxn)^n=0$
$lim_n to inftyf(x)=lim_n to infty1^n=1$
That means $1=0$ hence the contradiction.
limits proof-verification exponential-function
limits proof-verification exponential-function
edited Mar 14 at 7:11
José Carlos Santos
169k23132237
169k23132237
asked Mar 14 at 5:58
Simplex1Simplex1
404
404
$begingroup$
I don't follow the proof since the first limit, should it be $lim_n to infty f(x/n)$ perhaps? And why does that come out to $1^n$?
$endgroup$
– Joppy
Mar 14 at 6:02
$begingroup$
@Joppy It comes out to $1^n$ because I took the limit of $e^fracxn$ first which equals 1.
$endgroup$
– Simplex1
Mar 14 at 6:04
$begingroup$
It is quite clear from the expansion of $e^x$ that $e^x > 0$ for $x>0$ Now observe that $e^xcdot e^-x = 1.$ So $e^-x neq 0.$
$endgroup$
– Dbchatto67
Mar 14 at 6:04
$begingroup$
You can't evaluate limits like $(e^fracxn)^n$ "one at a time"
$endgroup$
– Joppy
Mar 14 at 6:06
$begingroup$
Why cant you do that?
$endgroup$
– Simplex1
Mar 14 at 6:08
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
I don't follow the proof since the first limit, should it be $lim_n to infty f(x/n)$ perhaps? And why does that come out to $1^n$?
$endgroup$
– Joppy
Mar 14 at 6:02
$begingroup$
@Joppy It comes out to $1^n$ because I took the limit of $e^fracxn$ first which equals 1.
$endgroup$
– Simplex1
Mar 14 at 6:04
$begingroup$
It is quite clear from the expansion of $e^x$ that $e^x > 0$ for $x>0$ Now observe that $e^xcdot e^-x = 1.$ So $e^-x neq 0.$
$endgroup$
– Dbchatto67
Mar 14 at 6:04
$begingroup$
You can't evaluate limits like $(e^fracxn)^n$ "one at a time"
$endgroup$
– Joppy
Mar 14 at 6:06
$begingroup$
Why cant you do that?
$endgroup$
– Simplex1
Mar 14 at 6:08
$begingroup$
I don't follow the proof since the first limit, should it be $lim_n to infty f(x/n)$ perhaps? And why does that come out to $1^n$?
$endgroup$
– Joppy
Mar 14 at 6:02
$begingroup$
I don't follow the proof since the first limit, should it be $lim_n to infty f(x/n)$ perhaps? And why does that come out to $1^n$?
$endgroup$
– Joppy
Mar 14 at 6:02
$begingroup$
@Joppy It comes out to $1^n$ because I took the limit of $e^fracxn$ first which equals 1.
$endgroup$
– Simplex1
Mar 14 at 6:04
$begingroup$
@Joppy It comes out to $1^n$ because I took the limit of $e^fracxn$ first which equals 1.
$endgroup$
– Simplex1
Mar 14 at 6:04
$begingroup$
It is quite clear from the expansion of $e^x$ that $e^x > 0$ for $x>0$ Now observe that $e^xcdot e^-x = 1.$ So $e^-x neq 0.$
$endgroup$
– Dbchatto67
Mar 14 at 6:04
$begingroup$
It is quite clear from the expansion of $e^x$ that $e^x > 0$ for $x>0$ Now observe that $e^xcdot e^-x = 1.$ So $e^-x neq 0.$
$endgroup$
– Dbchatto67
Mar 14 at 6:04
$begingroup$
You can't evaluate limits like $(e^fracxn)^n$ "one at a time"
$endgroup$
– Joppy
Mar 14 at 6:06
$begingroup$
You can't evaluate limits like $(e^fracxn)^n$ "one at a time"
$endgroup$
– Joppy
Mar 14 at 6:06
$begingroup$
Why cant you do that?
$endgroup$
– Simplex1
Mar 14 at 6:08
$begingroup$
Why cant you do that?
$endgroup$
– Simplex1
Mar 14 at 6:08
|
show 1 more comment
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
The proof is not correct because it assumes implicitely that if a sequence $(a_n)_ninmathbb N$ converges to $1$, then $lim_ntoinftya_n^n=1$. This is not true. For instance,$$lim_ntoinfty left (1 + frac1n right )=1text and lim_ntoinftyleft(1 + frac1nright)^n=eneq1.$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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oldest
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active
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$begingroup$
The proof is not correct because it assumes implicitely that if a sequence $(a_n)_ninmathbb N$ converges to $1$, then $lim_ntoinftya_n^n=1$. This is not true. For instance,$$lim_ntoinfty left (1 + frac1n right )=1text and lim_ntoinftyleft(1 + frac1nright)^n=eneq1.$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The proof is not correct because it assumes implicitely that if a sequence $(a_n)_ninmathbb N$ converges to $1$, then $lim_ntoinftya_n^n=1$. This is not true. For instance,$$lim_ntoinfty left (1 + frac1n right )=1text and lim_ntoinftyleft(1 + frac1nright)^n=eneq1.$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The proof is not correct because it assumes implicitely that if a sequence $(a_n)_ninmathbb N$ converges to $1$, then $lim_ntoinftya_n^n=1$. This is not true. For instance,$$lim_ntoinfty left (1 + frac1n right )=1text and lim_ntoinftyleft(1 + frac1nright)^n=eneq1.$$
$endgroup$
The proof is not correct because it assumes implicitely that if a sequence $(a_n)_ninmathbb N$ converges to $1$, then $lim_ntoinftya_n^n=1$. This is not true. For instance,$$lim_ntoinfty left (1 + frac1n right )=1text and lim_ntoinftyleft(1 + frac1nright)^n=eneq1.$$
edited Mar 14 at 6:22
Dbchatto67
1,995319
1,995319
answered Mar 14 at 6:16
José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos
169k23132237
169k23132237
add a comment |
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
I don't follow the proof since the first limit, should it be $lim_n to infty f(x/n)$ perhaps? And why does that come out to $1^n$?
$endgroup$
– Joppy
Mar 14 at 6:02
$begingroup$
@Joppy It comes out to $1^n$ because I took the limit of $e^fracxn$ first which equals 1.
$endgroup$
– Simplex1
Mar 14 at 6:04
$begingroup$
It is quite clear from the expansion of $e^x$ that $e^x > 0$ for $x>0$ Now observe that $e^xcdot e^-x = 1.$ So $e^-x neq 0.$
$endgroup$
– Dbchatto67
Mar 14 at 6:04
$begingroup$
You can't evaluate limits like $(e^fracxn)^n$ "one at a time"
$endgroup$
– Joppy
Mar 14 at 6:06
$begingroup$
Why cant you do that?
$endgroup$
– Simplex1
Mar 14 at 6:08