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$e^x neq 0$ Proof Correctness


Correctness of proof of division in ceiling functionCorrectness of Proof by RefutationProve that $ 2^n not equiv 1 pmodn $ for any $n > 1$.Proof of Correctness of Recursive AlgorithmProof about the convergence of a sequenceTowers of Hanoi - Proof of CorrectnessIs this proof for $e^ipi=-1$ correct?Proof in constructive mathematics using decidability.Is this proof of irrationality?A Proof for Generalized Rolle's Theorem













0












$begingroup$


note: I’m not looking for another proof for this, I am just asking if this proof is correct.



This is my proof.



Assume $f(x)=e^x=0$



Then $e^fracx2e^fracx2=0$



More generally, $(e^fracxn)^n=0$



$lim_n to inftyf(x)=lim_n to infty1^n=1$



That means $1=0$ hence the contradiction.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    I don't follow the proof since the first limit, should it be $lim_n to infty f(x/n)$ perhaps? And why does that come out to $1^n$?
    $endgroup$
    – Joppy
    Mar 14 at 6:02










  • $begingroup$
    @Joppy It comes out to $1^n$ because I took the limit of $e^fracxn$ first which equals 1.
    $endgroup$
    – Simplex1
    Mar 14 at 6:04










  • $begingroup$
    It is quite clear from the expansion of $e^x$ that $e^x > 0$ for $x>0$ Now observe that $e^xcdot e^-x = 1.$ So $e^-x neq 0.$
    $endgroup$
    – Dbchatto67
    Mar 14 at 6:04











  • $begingroup$
    You can't evaluate limits like $(e^fracxn)^n$ "one at a time"
    $endgroup$
    – Joppy
    Mar 14 at 6:06










  • $begingroup$
    Why cant you do that?
    $endgroup$
    – Simplex1
    Mar 14 at 6:08















0












$begingroup$


note: I’m not looking for another proof for this, I am just asking if this proof is correct.



This is my proof.



Assume $f(x)=e^x=0$



Then $e^fracx2e^fracx2=0$



More generally, $(e^fracxn)^n=0$



$lim_n to inftyf(x)=lim_n to infty1^n=1$



That means $1=0$ hence the contradiction.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    I don't follow the proof since the first limit, should it be $lim_n to infty f(x/n)$ perhaps? And why does that come out to $1^n$?
    $endgroup$
    – Joppy
    Mar 14 at 6:02










  • $begingroup$
    @Joppy It comes out to $1^n$ because I took the limit of $e^fracxn$ first which equals 1.
    $endgroup$
    – Simplex1
    Mar 14 at 6:04










  • $begingroup$
    It is quite clear from the expansion of $e^x$ that $e^x > 0$ for $x>0$ Now observe that $e^xcdot e^-x = 1.$ So $e^-x neq 0.$
    $endgroup$
    – Dbchatto67
    Mar 14 at 6:04











  • $begingroup$
    You can't evaluate limits like $(e^fracxn)^n$ "one at a time"
    $endgroup$
    – Joppy
    Mar 14 at 6:06










  • $begingroup$
    Why cant you do that?
    $endgroup$
    – Simplex1
    Mar 14 at 6:08













0












0








0





$begingroup$


note: I’m not looking for another proof for this, I am just asking if this proof is correct.



This is my proof.



Assume $f(x)=e^x=0$



Then $e^fracx2e^fracx2=0$



More generally, $(e^fracxn)^n=0$



$lim_n to inftyf(x)=lim_n to infty1^n=1$



That means $1=0$ hence the contradiction.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




note: I’m not looking for another proof for this, I am just asking if this proof is correct.



This is my proof.



Assume $f(x)=e^x=0$



Then $e^fracx2e^fracx2=0$



More generally, $(e^fracxn)^n=0$



$lim_n to inftyf(x)=lim_n to infty1^n=1$



That means $1=0$ hence the contradiction.







limits proof-verification exponential-function






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Mar 14 at 7:11









José Carlos Santos

169k23132237




169k23132237










asked Mar 14 at 5:58









Simplex1Simplex1

404




404











  • $begingroup$
    I don't follow the proof since the first limit, should it be $lim_n to infty f(x/n)$ perhaps? And why does that come out to $1^n$?
    $endgroup$
    – Joppy
    Mar 14 at 6:02










  • $begingroup$
    @Joppy It comes out to $1^n$ because I took the limit of $e^fracxn$ first which equals 1.
    $endgroup$
    – Simplex1
    Mar 14 at 6:04










  • $begingroup$
    It is quite clear from the expansion of $e^x$ that $e^x > 0$ for $x>0$ Now observe that $e^xcdot e^-x = 1.$ So $e^-x neq 0.$
    $endgroup$
    – Dbchatto67
    Mar 14 at 6:04











  • $begingroup$
    You can't evaluate limits like $(e^fracxn)^n$ "one at a time"
    $endgroup$
    – Joppy
    Mar 14 at 6:06










  • $begingroup$
    Why cant you do that?
    $endgroup$
    – Simplex1
    Mar 14 at 6:08
















  • $begingroup$
    I don't follow the proof since the first limit, should it be $lim_n to infty f(x/n)$ perhaps? And why does that come out to $1^n$?
    $endgroup$
    – Joppy
    Mar 14 at 6:02










  • $begingroup$
    @Joppy It comes out to $1^n$ because I took the limit of $e^fracxn$ first which equals 1.
    $endgroup$
    – Simplex1
    Mar 14 at 6:04










  • $begingroup$
    It is quite clear from the expansion of $e^x$ that $e^x > 0$ for $x>0$ Now observe that $e^xcdot e^-x = 1.$ So $e^-x neq 0.$
    $endgroup$
    – Dbchatto67
    Mar 14 at 6:04











  • $begingroup$
    You can't evaluate limits like $(e^fracxn)^n$ "one at a time"
    $endgroup$
    – Joppy
    Mar 14 at 6:06










  • $begingroup$
    Why cant you do that?
    $endgroup$
    – Simplex1
    Mar 14 at 6:08















$begingroup$
I don't follow the proof since the first limit, should it be $lim_n to infty f(x/n)$ perhaps? And why does that come out to $1^n$?
$endgroup$
– Joppy
Mar 14 at 6:02




$begingroup$
I don't follow the proof since the first limit, should it be $lim_n to infty f(x/n)$ perhaps? And why does that come out to $1^n$?
$endgroup$
– Joppy
Mar 14 at 6:02












$begingroup$
@Joppy It comes out to $1^n$ because I took the limit of $e^fracxn$ first which equals 1.
$endgroup$
– Simplex1
Mar 14 at 6:04




$begingroup$
@Joppy It comes out to $1^n$ because I took the limit of $e^fracxn$ first which equals 1.
$endgroup$
– Simplex1
Mar 14 at 6:04












$begingroup$
It is quite clear from the expansion of $e^x$ that $e^x > 0$ for $x>0$ Now observe that $e^xcdot e^-x = 1.$ So $e^-x neq 0.$
$endgroup$
– Dbchatto67
Mar 14 at 6:04





$begingroup$
It is quite clear from the expansion of $e^x$ that $e^x > 0$ for $x>0$ Now observe that $e^xcdot e^-x = 1.$ So $e^-x neq 0.$
$endgroup$
– Dbchatto67
Mar 14 at 6:04













$begingroup$
You can't evaluate limits like $(e^fracxn)^n$ "one at a time"
$endgroup$
– Joppy
Mar 14 at 6:06




$begingroup$
You can't evaluate limits like $(e^fracxn)^n$ "one at a time"
$endgroup$
– Joppy
Mar 14 at 6:06












$begingroup$
Why cant you do that?
$endgroup$
– Simplex1
Mar 14 at 6:08




$begingroup$
Why cant you do that?
$endgroup$
– Simplex1
Mar 14 at 6:08










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















7












$begingroup$

The proof is not correct because it assumes implicitely that if a sequence $(a_n)_ninmathbb N$ converges to $1$, then $lim_ntoinftya_n^n=1$. This is not true. For instance,$$lim_ntoinfty left (1 + frac1n right )=1text and lim_ntoinftyleft(1 + frac1nright)^n=eneq1.$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$












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    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

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    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    7












    $begingroup$

    The proof is not correct because it assumes implicitely that if a sequence $(a_n)_ninmathbb N$ converges to $1$, then $lim_ntoinftya_n^n=1$. This is not true. For instance,$$lim_ntoinfty left (1 + frac1n right )=1text and lim_ntoinftyleft(1 + frac1nright)^n=eneq1.$$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$

















      7












      $begingroup$

      The proof is not correct because it assumes implicitely that if a sequence $(a_n)_ninmathbb N$ converges to $1$, then $lim_ntoinftya_n^n=1$. This is not true. For instance,$$lim_ntoinfty left (1 + frac1n right )=1text and lim_ntoinftyleft(1 + frac1nright)^n=eneq1.$$






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$















        7












        7








        7





        $begingroup$

        The proof is not correct because it assumes implicitely that if a sequence $(a_n)_ninmathbb N$ converges to $1$, then $lim_ntoinftya_n^n=1$. This is not true. For instance,$$lim_ntoinfty left (1 + frac1n right )=1text and lim_ntoinftyleft(1 + frac1nright)^n=eneq1.$$






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        The proof is not correct because it assumes implicitely that if a sequence $(a_n)_ninmathbb N$ converges to $1$, then $lim_ntoinftya_n^n=1$. This is not true. For instance,$$lim_ntoinfty left (1 + frac1n right )=1text and lim_ntoinftyleft(1 + frac1nright)^n=eneq1.$$







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Mar 14 at 6:22









        Dbchatto67

        1,995319




        1,995319










        answered Mar 14 at 6:16









        José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos

        169k23132237




        169k23132237



























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