Computation of $Phi(T,[gamma])$ in a paper of Poonen and Rodriguez-VillegasHow to prove $operatornameLog(z) = log(|z|)+iarg(z)$.Unique continuous complex log of a function nowhere zeroIs there an analytic function $f$ on $mathbbCsetminus[-1,1]$ that satisfies $e^f(z)=fracz+1z-1$?The line integral $int_gammafrac 1z$ and branchs of logarithmThe branch point of inverse functions of modular formsDefining Complex logarithm with integralExistence of complex branch for real exponentsBranch of logarithm and spiralWinding number always zero by definition. Help find the mistake.Antiderivative of $frac1z$ on $mathbb Csetminus(-infty,0]$
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Computation of $Phi(T,[gamma])$ in a paper of Poonen and Rodriguez-Villegas
How to prove $operatornameLog(z) = log(|z|)+iarg(z)$.Unique continuous complex log of a function nowhere zeroIs there an analytic function $f$ on $mathbbCsetminus[-1,1]$ that satisfies $e^f(z)=fracz+1z-1$?The line integral $int_gammafrac 1z$ and branchs of logarithmThe branch point of inverse functions of modular formsDefining Complex logarithm with integralExistence of complex branch for real exponentsBranch of logarithm and spiralWinding number always zero by definition. Help find the mistake.Antiderivative of $frac1z$ on $mathbb Csetminus(-infty,0]$
$begingroup$
I am reading the paper "Lattice Polygons and the Number 12" by Bjorn Poonen and Fernando Rodriguez-Villegas (a copy of this paper can be found, e.g., on the first author's webpage). In it, the authors make use of the following weight $12$ cusp form for $SL(2,mathbbZ)$:
$$Delta(z)=(2pi)^12e^2pi izprod_n=1^infty(1-e^2pi inz)^24.$$
Let $mathbbH$ denote the upper-half plane. The following is a quotation from the paper.
Also, $mathbbH$ is simply connected, so we may fix once and for all a branch of $logDelta(z)$ on $mathbbH.$ Then
$$logDelta(Mz)-logDelta(z)=12log(cz+d)+2pi im$$
for some integer $m$ depending on the branch of $log(cz+d).$
Their idea is to choose a branch of $log(cz+d)$ by choosing a path $gamma$ in $mathbbR^2setminus(0,0).$ The following is a quotation from the paper.
If $M=beginbmatrix a & b \ c & d endbmatrixin SL(2,mathbbR),$ then having a path $gamma$ from $(0,1)$ to $(c,d)$ in $mathbbR^2setminus(0,0)$ lets us make a canonical choice of branch of $log(cz+d)$: for fixed $zinmathbbH,$ we set $log(0cdot z + 1)=0$ and then make $log(c^primez+d^prime)$ a continuous function of the path parameter, as $(c^prime,d^prime)$ moves from $(0,1)$ to $(c,d).$ Moreover this choice of branch depends only on the path-homotopy class of $gamma;$ we call it $L(M,[gamma];z).$ For $(M,[gamma])inwidetildeSL(2,mathbbZ),$
$$logDelta(Mz)-logDelta(z)=12L(M,[gamma];z)+2pi iPhi(M,[gamma])$$
now defines a function $Phicolon widetildeSL(2,mathbbZ)tomathbbZ.$
Here $widetildeSL(2,mathbbZ)$ is a funky group, the definition of which is irrelevant to my question. Suffice it to say that the elements of $widetildeSL(2,mathbbZ)$ look like $(M,[gamma])$ for $Min SL(2,mathbbZ)$ and $gamma$ as above.
Let $T=beginbmatrix 1 & 1 \ 0 & 1 endbmatrix$ and let $gamma$ be the "trivial" (I understand this to mean "constant") path from $(0,1)$ to $(0,1)$ in $mathbbR^2setminus(0,0).$ From the definition above, I compute that $Phi(T,[gamma])=0.$ Here's why:
- The left-hand side of the defining equation has to be $0,$ since, because $Delta$ is a modular form of weight $12$ for $SL(2,mathbbZ),$ we have $Delta(Tz)=(0z+1)^12Delta(z)=Delta(z).$
- The right-hand side is just $2pi iPhi(T,[gamma]),$ because $L(T,[gamma];z)$ is the principal logarithm of $0z+1=1,$ which is $0.$
However, in the paper, the authors claim that $Phi(T,[gamma])=1,$ and in fact this is a crucial part of the proof of their main result. They compute the value a different way, which uses other ideas from the paper, but give a parenthetical remark saying that it could be calculated directly. I have gone through their calculation and have found no issues.
Question. What has gone wrong with my understanding of this definition of $Phi$ that leads me to the (apparently incorrect) value $0$?
complex-analysis logarithms modular-forms
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I am reading the paper "Lattice Polygons and the Number 12" by Bjorn Poonen and Fernando Rodriguez-Villegas (a copy of this paper can be found, e.g., on the first author's webpage). In it, the authors make use of the following weight $12$ cusp form for $SL(2,mathbbZ)$:
$$Delta(z)=(2pi)^12e^2pi izprod_n=1^infty(1-e^2pi inz)^24.$$
Let $mathbbH$ denote the upper-half plane. The following is a quotation from the paper.
Also, $mathbbH$ is simply connected, so we may fix once and for all a branch of $logDelta(z)$ on $mathbbH.$ Then
$$logDelta(Mz)-logDelta(z)=12log(cz+d)+2pi im$$
for some integer $m$ depending on the branch of $log(cz+d).$
Their idea is to choose a branch of $log(cz+d)$ by choosing a path $gamma$ in $mathbbR^2setminus(0,0).$ The following is a quotation from the paper.
If $M=beginbmatrix a & b \ c & d endbmatrixin SL(2,mathbbR),$ then having a path $gamma$ from $(0,1)$ to $(c,d)$ in $mathbbR^2setminus(0,0)$ lets us make a canonical choice of branch of $log(cz+d)$: for fixed $zinmathbbH,$ we set $log(0cdot z + 1)=0$ and then make $log(c^primez+d^prime)$ a continuous function of the path parameter, as $(c^prime,d^prime)$ moves from $(0,1)$ to $(c,d).$ Moreover this choice of branch depends only on the path-homotopy class of $gamma;$ we call it $L(M,[gamma];z).$ For $(M,[gamma])inwidetildeSL(2,mathbbZ),$
$$logDelta(Mz)-logDelta(z)=12L(M,[gamma];z)+2pi iPhi(M,[gamma])$$
now defines a function $Phicolon widetildeSL(2,mathbbZ)tomathbbZ.$
Here $widetildeSL(2,mathbbZ)$ is a funky group, the definition of which is irrelevant to my question. Suffice it to say that the elements of $widetildeSL(2,mathbbZ)$ look like $(M,[gamma])$ for $Min SL(2,mathbbZ)$ and $gamma$ as above.
Let $T=beginbmatrix 1 & 1 \ 0 & 1 endbmatrix$ and let $gamma$ be the "trivial" (I understand this to mean "constant") path from $(0,1)$ to $(0,1)$ in $mathbbR^2setminus(0,0).$ From the definition above, I compute that $Phi(T,[gamma])=0.$ Here's why:
- The left-hand side of the defining equation has to be $0,$ since, because $Delta$ is a modular form of weight $12$ for $SL(2,mathbbZ),$ we have $Delta(Tz)=(0z+1)^12Delta(z)=Delta(z).$
- The right-hand side is just $2pi iPhi(T,[gamma]),$ because $L(T,[gamma];z)$ is the principal logarithm of $0z+1=1,$ which is $0.$
However, in the paper, the authors claim that $Phi(T,[gamma])=1,$ and in fact this is a crucial part of the proof of their main result. They compute the value a different way, which uses other ideas from the paper, but give a parenthetical remark saying that it could be calculated directly. I have gone through their calculation and have found no issues.
Question. What has gone wrong with my understanding of this definition of $Phi$ that leads me to the (apparently incorrect) value $0$?
complex-analysis logarithms modular-forms
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I am reading the paper "Lattice Polygons and the Number 12" by Bjorn Poonen and Fernando Rodriguez-Villegas (a copy of this paper can be found, e.g., on the first author's webpage). In it, the authors make use of the following weight $12$ cusp form for $SL(2,mathbbZ)$:
$$Delta(z)=(2pi)^12e^2pi izprod_n=1^infty(1-e^2pi inz)^24.$$
Let $mathbbH$ denote the upper-half plane. The following is a quotation from the paper.
Also, $mathbbH$ is simply connected, so we may fix once and for all a branch of $logDelta(z)$ on $mathbbH.$ Then
$$logDelta(Mz)-logDelta(z)=12log(cz+d)+2pi im$$
for some integer $m$ depending on the branch of $log(cz+d).$
Their idea is to choose a branch of $log(cz+d)$ by choosing a path $gamma$ in $mathbbR^2setminus(0,0).$ The following is a quotation from the paper.
If $M=beginbmatrix a & b \ c & d endbmatrixin SL(2,mathbbR),$ then having a path $gamma$ from $(0,1)$ to $(c,d)$ in $mathbbR^2setminus(0,0)$ lets us make a canonical choice of branch of $log(cz+d)$: for fixed $zinmathbbH,$ we set $log(0cdot z + 1)=0$ and then make $log(c^primez+d^prime)$ a continuous function of the path parameter, as $(c^prime,d^prime)$ moves from $(0,1)$ to $(c,d).$ Moreover this choice of branch depends only on the path-homotopy class of $gamma;$ we call it $L(M,[gamma];z).$ For $(M,[gamma])inwidetildeSL(2,mathbbZ),$
$$logDelta(Mz)-logDelta(z)=12L(M,[gamma];z)+2pi iPhi(M,[gamma])$$
now defines a function $Phicolon widetildeSL(2,mathbbZ)tomathbbZ.$
Here $widetildeSL(2,mathbbZ)$ is a funky group, the definition of which is irrelevant to my question. Suffice it to say that the elements of $widetildeSL(2,mathbbZ)$ look like $(M,[gamma])$ for $Min SL(2,mathbbZ)$ and $gamma$ as above.
Let $T=beginbmatrix 1 & 1 \ 0 & 1 endbmatrix$ and let $gamma$ be the "trivial" (I understand this to mean "constant") path from $(0,1)$ to $(0,1)$ in $mathbbR^2setminus(0,0).$ From the definition above, I compute that $Phi(T,[gamma])=0.$ Here's why:
- The left-hand side of the defining equation has to be $0,$ since, because $Delta$ is a modular form of weight $12$ for $SL(2,mathbbZ),$ we have $Delta(Tz)=(0z+1)^12Delta(z)=Delta(z).$
- The right-hand side is just $2pi iPhi(T,[gamma]),$ because $L(T,[gamma];z)$ is the principal logarithm of $0z+1=1,$ which is $0.$
However, in the paper, the authors claim that $Phi(T,[gamma])=1,$ and in fact this is a crucial part of the proof of their main result. They compute the value a different way, which uses other ideas from the paper, but give a parenthetical remark saying that it could be calculated directly. I have gone through their calculation and have found no issues.
Question. What has gone wrong with my understanding of this definition of $Phi$ that leads me to the (apparently incorrect) value $0$?
complex-analysis logarithms modular-forms
$endgroup$
I am reading the paper "Lattice Polygons and the Number 12" by Bjorn Poonen and Fernando Rodriguez-Villegas (a copy of this paper can be found, e.g., on the first author's webpage). In it, the authors make use of the following weight $12$ cusp form for $SL(2,mathbbZ)$:
$$Delta(z)=(2pi)^12e^2pi izprod_n=1^infty(1-e^2pi inz)^24.$$
Let $mathbbH$ denote the upper-half plane. The following is a quotation from the paper.
Also, $mathbbH$ is simply connected, so we may fix once and for all a branch of $logDelta(z)$ on $mathbbH.$ Then
$$logDelta(Mz)-logDelta(z)=12log(cz+d)+2pi im$$
for some integer $m$ depending on the branch of $log(cz+d).$
Their idea is to choose a branch of $log(cz+d)$ by choosing a path $gamma$ in $mathbbR^2setminus(0,0).$ The following is a quotation from the paper.
If $M=beginbmatrix a & b \ c & d endbmatrixin SL(2,mathbbR),$ then having a path $gamma$ from $(0,1)$ to $(c,d)$ in $mathbbR^2setminus(0,0)$ lets us make a canonical choice of branch of $log(cz+d)$: for fixed $zinmathbbH,$ we set $log(0cdot z + 1)=0$ and then make $log(c^primez+d^prime)$ a continuous function of the path parameter, as $(c^prime,d^prime)$ moves from $(0,1)$ to $(c,d).$ Moreover this choice of branch depends only on the path-homotopy class of $gamma;$ we call it $L(M,[gamma];z).$ For $(M,[gamma])inwidetildeSL(2,mathbbZ),$
$$logDelta(Mz)-logDelta(z)=12L(M,[gamma];z)+2pi iPhi(M,[gamma])$$
now defines a function $Phicolon widetildeSL(2,mathbbZ)tomathbbZ.$
Here $widetildeSL(2,mathbbZ)$ is a funky group, the definition of which is irrelevant to my question. Suffice it to say that the elements of $widetildeSL(2,mathbbZ)$ look like $(M,[gamma])$ for $Min SL(2,mathbbZ)$ and $gamma$ as above.
Let $T=beginbmatrix 1 & 1 \ 0 & 1 endbmatrix$ and let $gamma$ be the "trivial" (I understand this to mean "constant") path from $(0,1)$ to $(0,1)$ in $mathbbR^2setminus(0,0).$ From the definition above, I compute that $Phi(T,[gamma])=0.$ Here's why:
- The left-hand side of the defining equation has to be $0,$ since, because $Delta$ is a modular form of weight $12$ for $SL(2,mathbbZ),$ we have $Delta(Tz)=(0z+1)^12Delta(z)=Delta(z).$
- The right-hand side is just $2pi iPhi(T,[gamma]),$ because $L(T,[gamma];z)$ is the principal logarithm of $0z+1=1,$ which is $0.$
However, in the paper, the authors claim that $Phi(T,[gamma])=1,$ and in fact this is a crucial part of the proof of their main result. They compute the value a different way, which uses other ideas from the paper, but give a parenthetical remark saying that it could be calculated directly. I have gone through their calculation and have found no issues.
Question. What has gone wrong with my understanding of this definition of $Phi$ that leads me to the (apparently incorrect) value $0$?
complex-analysis logarithms modular-forms
complex-analysis logarithms modular-forms
edited Mar 14 at 19:23
Will R
asked Mar 14 at 5:26
Will RWill R
6,71231429
6,71231429
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
Let $G = M in SL_2(mathbbZ), c > 0$ then $Im(cz+d)> 0$ and we can take everywhere the principal branch of $log$. Since $Im(z) > 0$ is simply connected and $Delta$ doesn't vanish there is an holomorphic function $L$ such that $Delta(z) = e^L(z)$.
For $M in SL_2(mathbbZ)$ let $r(M)(z) = cz+d$. Then $Delta in M_12(G)$, $Delta(M(z)) = r(M(z))^12 Delta(z)$ implies $$L(M(z)) = 12 log(r(M)(z)) + L(z)+2ipi n(M), qquad n : SL_2(mathbbZ) to mathbbZ$$
By direct computation $r(M_2M)(z) = r(M)(z) r(M_2)(M(z))$ so that $$L(M_2 M(z)) = 12 log r(M_2M)(z) + L(z)+2ipi n(M_2M)\=L(M_2 (M(z)))=12 log r(M_2)(M(z)) + L(M(z))+2ipi n(M_2)\=12 log r(M_2)(M(z)) +12 log r(M)(z) + L(z)+2ipi n(M)+2ipi n(M_2)$$
$r(M_2M)(z) = r(M)(z) r(M_2)(M(z))$ implies $log r(M_2M)(z) = log r(M_2)(M(z)) + log r(M)(z)+2i pi k(M_2,M)$.
For $M,M_2,M_2M in G$ we know $log r(M_2M)(z),log r( M_2)(M(z)), log r(M)(z)$ send $Im(z)> 0$ to $Im(z) in (0,pi)$ so $log r(M_2)(M(z)) + log r(M)(z)$ sends $Im(z) > 0$ to $Im(z) in (0,2pi)$ and hence $k(M_2,M) =0$.
Thus for $M,M_2,M_2M in G$ $$n(M_2M) = n(M)+n(M_2)$$
The few remaining cases are $M$ or $M_2$ with $c=0$ and $M_2M$ with $c le 0$ to find $n(M)$ for every $M in SL_2(mathbbZ)$ and the transformation law of $L(z)$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I don't see how this answers my question.
$endgroup$
– Will R
Mar 14 at 19:14
$begingroup$
@WillR Why that. Except for the remaining cases, not hard to treat, this is what your question is about. I showed there is no funky group/action nor homotopy classes.
$endgroup$
– reuns
Mar 14 at 19:45
$begingroup$
My question is "Why is $Phi(T,gamma)$ equal to $1,$ not $0$?". Nowhere in your answer have you even mentioned $Phi,$ $T$ or $gamma.$ You appear to be halfway to proving that $Phi$ (defined above) is a group homomorphism, in a certain sense; indeed, this is true, and is made precise in the paper that the question is referencing. But I understand their proof and I am not asking for a proof that $Phi$ is a group homomorphism. I am asking why, for a specified input, $Phi$ should output $1$ (and more specifically, what is wrong with my argument that it actually outputs $0$).
$endgroup$
– Will R
Mar 14 at 19:47
$begingroup$
Once it is a group homomorphism it suffices to look at $M(z) = z+1$ and $M(z) = -1/z$ so my method solves your problem. If your paper is really messing up with complicated group/actions and homotopy classes then my method is much simpler.
$endgroup$
– reuns
Mar 14 at 19:50
$begingroup$
$M(z)=z+1$ is $Tz,$ so you have not solved my problem unless you do the work to compute the corresponding value of $n.$ Also, you do not appear to have understood the point. The whole point of the construction is that we introduce the path $gamma$ to choose the branch of $log(cz+d).$ The resulting value of $n$ (in your notation) very much depends on the $gamma$ used. If you aren't using paths, then you aren't working on the problem I have asked about.
$endgroup$
– Will R
Mar 14 at 19:52
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
Let $G = M in SL_2(mathbbZ), c > 0$ then $Im(cz+d)> 0$ and we can take everywhere the principal branch of $log$. Since $Im(z) > 0$ is simply connected and $Delta$ doesn't vanish there is an holomorphic function $L$ such that $Delta(z) = e^L(z)$.
For $M in SL_2(mathbbZ)$ let $r(M)(z) = cz+d$. Then $Delta in M_12(G)$, $Delta(M(z)) = r(M(z))^12 Delta(z)$ implies $$L(M(z)) = 12 log(r(M)(z)) + L(z)+2ipi n(M), qquad n : SL_2(mathbbZ) to mathbbZ$$
By direct computation $r(M_2M)(z) = r(M)(z) r(M_2)(M(z))$ so that $$L(M_2 M(z)) = 12 log r(M_2M)(z) + L(z)+2ipi n(M_2M)\=L(M_2 (M(z)))=12 log r(M_2)(M(z)) + L(M(z))+2ipi n(M_2)\=12 log r(M_2)(M(z)) +12 log r(M)(z) + L(z)+2ipi n(M)+2ipi n(M_2)$$
$r(M_2M)(z) = r(M)(z) r(M_2)(M(z))$ implies $log r(M_2M)(z) = log r(M_2)(M(z)) + log r(M)(z)+2i pi k(M_2,M)$.
For $M,M_2,M_2M in G$ we know $log r(M_2M)(z),log r( M_2)(M(z)), log r(M)(z)$ send $Im(z)> 0$ to $Im(z) in (0,pi)$ so $log r(M_2)(M(z)) + log r(M)(z)$ sends $Im(z) > 0$ to $Im(z) in (0,2pi)$ and hence $k(M_2,M) =0$.
Thus for $M,M_2,M_2M in G$ $$n(M_2M) = n(M)+n(M_2)$$
The few remaining cases are $M$ or $M_2$ with $c=0$ and $M_2M$ with $c le 0$ to find $n(M)$ for every $M in SL_2(mathbbZ)$ and the transformation law of $L(z)$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I don't see how this answers my question.
$endgroup$
– Will R
Mar 14 at 19:14
$begingroup$
@WillR Why that. Except for the remaining cases, not hard to treat, this is what your question is about. I showed there is no funky group/action nor homotopy classes.
$endgroup$
– reuns
Mar 14 at 19:45
$begingroup$
My question is "Why is $Phi(T,gamma)$ equal to $1,$ not $0$?". Nowhere in your answer have you even mentioned $Phi,$ $T$ or $gamma.$ You appear to be halfway to proving that $Phi$ (defined above) is a group homomorphism, in a certain sense; indeed, this is true, and is made precise in the paper that the question is referencing. But I understand their proof and I am not asking for a proof that $Phi$ is a group homomorphism. I am asking why, for a specified input, $Phi$ should output $1$ (and more specifically, what is wrong with my argument that it actually outputs $0$).
$endgroup$
– Will R
Mar 14 at 19:47
$begingroup$
Once it is a group homomorphism it suffices to look at $M(z) = z+1$ and $M(z) = -1/z$ so my method solves your problem. If your paper is really messing up with complicated group/actions and homotopy classes then my method is much simpler.
$endgroup$
– reuns
Mar 14 at 19:50
$begingroup$
$M(z)=z+1$ is $Tz,$ so you have not solved my problem unless you do the work to compute the corresponding value of $n.$ Also, you do not appear to have understood the point. The whole point of the construction is that we introduce the path $gamma$ to choose the branch of $log(cz+d).$ The resulting value of $n$ (in your notation) very much depends on the $gamma$ used. If you aren't using paths, then you aren't working on the problem I have asked about.
$endgroup$
– Will R
Mar 14 at 19:52
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $G = M in SL_2(mathbbZ), c > 0$ then $Im(cz+d)> 0$ and we can take everywhere the principal branch of $log$. Since $Im(z) > 0$ is simply connected and $Delta$ doesn't vanish there is an holomorphic function $L$ such that $Delta(z) = e^L(z)$.
For $M in SL_2(mathbbZ)$ let $r(M)(z) = cz+d$. Then $Delta in M_12(G)$, $Delta(M(z)) = r(M(z))^12 Delta(z)$ implies $$L(M(z)) = 12 log(r(M)(z)) + L(z)+2ipi n(M), qquad n : SL_2(mathbbZ) to mathbbZ$$
By direct computation $r(M_2M)(z) = r(M)(z) r(M_2)(M(z))$ so that $$L(M_2 M(z)) = 12 log r(M_2M)(z) + L(z)+2ipi n(M_2M)\=L(M_2 (M(z)))=12 log r(M_2)(M(z)) + L(M(z))+2ipi n(M_2)\=12 log r(M_2)(M(z)) +12 log r(M)(z) + L(z)+2ipi n(M)+2ipi n(M_2)$$
$r(M_2M)(z) = r(M)(z) r(M_2)(M(z))$ implies $log r(M_2M)(z) = log r(M_2)(M(z)) + log r(M)(z)+2i pi k(M_2,M)$.
For $M,M_2,M_2M in G$ we know $log r(M_2M)(z),log r( M_2)(M(z)), log r(M)(z)$ send $Im(z)> 0$ to $Im(z) in (0,pi)$ so $log r(M_2)(M(z)) + log r(M)(z)$ sends $Im(z) > 0$ to $Im(z) in (0,2pi)$ and hence $k(M_2,M) =0$.
Thus for $M,M_2,M_2M in G$ $$n(M_2M) = n(M)+n(M_2)$$
The few remaining cases are $M$ or $M_2$ with $c=0$ and $M_2M$ with $c le 0$ to find $n(M)$ for every $M in SL_2(mathbbZ)$ and the transformation law of $L(z)$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I don't see how this answers my question.
$endgroup$
– Will R
Mar 14 at 19:14
$begingroup$
@WillR Why that. Except for the remaining cases, not hard to treat, this is what your question is about. I showed there is no funky group/action nor homotopy classes.
$endgroup$
– reuns
Mar 14 at 19:45
$begingroup$
My question is "Why is $Phi(T,gamma)$ equal to $1,$ not $0$?". Nowhere in your answer have you even mentioned $Phi,$ $T$ or $gamma.$ You appear to be halfway to proving that $Phi$ (defined above) is a group homomorphism, in a certain sense; indeed, this is true, and is made precise in the paper that the question is referencing. But I understand their proof and I am not asking for a proof that $Phi$ is a group homomorphism. I am asking why, for a specified input, $Phi$ should output $1$ (and more specifically, what is wrong with my argument that it actually outputs $0$).
$endgroup$
– Will R
Mar 14 at 19:47
$begingroup$
Once it is a group homomorphism it suffices to look at $M(z) = z+1$ and $M(z) = -1/z$ so my method solves your problem. If your paper is really messing up with complicated group/actions and homotopy classes then my method is much simpler.
$endgroup$
– reuns
Mar 14 at 19:50
$begingroup$
$M(z)=z+1$ is $Tz,$ so you have not solved my problem unless you do the work to compute the corresponding value of $n.$ Also, you do not appear to have understood the point. The whole point of the construction is that we introduce the path $gamma$ to choose the branch of $log(cz+d).$ The resulting value of $n$ (in your notation) very much depends on the $gamma$ used. If you aren't using paths, then you aren't working on the problem I have asked about.
$endgroup$
– Will R
Mar 14 at 19:52
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $G = M in SL_2(mathbbZ), c > 0$ then $Im(cz+d)> 0$ and we can take everywhere the principal branch of $log$. Since $Im(z) > 0$ is simply connected and $Delta$ doesn't vanish there is an holomorphic function $L$ such that $Delta(z) = e^L(z)$.
For $M in SL_2(mathbbZ)$ let $r(M)(z) = cz+d$. Then $Delta in M_12(G)$, $Delta(M(z)) = r(M(z))^12 Delta(z)$ implies $$L(M(z)) = 12 log(r(M)(z)) + L(z)+2ipi n(M), qquad n : SL_2(mathbbZ) to mathbbZ$$
By direct computation $r(M_2M)(z) = r(M)(z) r(M_2)(M(z))$ so that $$L(M_2 M(z)) = 12 log r(M_2M)(z) + L(z)+2ipi n(M_2M)\=L(M_2 (M(z)))=12 log r(M_2)(M(z)) + L(M(z))+2ipi n(M_2)\=12 log r(M_2)(M(z)) +12 log r(M)(z) + L(z)+2ipi n(M)+2ipi n(M_2)$$
$r(M_2M)(z) = r(M)(z) r(M_2)(M(z))$ implies $log r(M_2M)(z) = log r(M_2)(M(z)) + log r(M)(z)+2i pi k(M_2,M)$.
For $M,M_2,M_2M in G$ we know $log r(M_2M)(z),log r( M_2)(M(z)), log r(M)(z)$ send $Im(z)> 0$ to $Im(z) in (0,pi)$ so $log r(M_2)(M(z)) + log r(M)(z)$ sends $Im(z) > 0$ to $Im(z) in (0,2pi)$ and hence $k(M_2,M) =0$.
Thus for $M,M_2,M_2M in G$ $$n(M_2M) = n(M)+n(M_2)$$
The few remaining cases are $M$ or $M_2$ with $c=0$ and $M_2M$ with $c le 0$ to find $n(M)$ for every $M in SL_2(mathbbZ)$ and the transformation law of $L(z)$.
$endgroup$
Let $G = M in SL_2(mathbbZ), c > 0$ then $Im(cz+d)> 0$ and we can take everywhere the principal branch of $log$. Since $Im(z) > 0$ is simply connected and $Delta$ doesn't vanish there is an holomorphic function $L$ such that $Delta(z) = e^L(z)$.
For $M in SL_2(mathbbZ)$ let $r(M)(z) = cz+d$. Then $Delta in M_12(G)$, $Delta(M(z)) = r(M(z))^12 Delta(z)$ implies $$L(M(z)) = 12 log(r(M)(z)) + L(z)+2ipi n(M), qquad n : SL_2(mathbbZ) to mathbbZ$$
By direct computation $r(M_2M)(z) = r(M)(z) r(M_2)(M(z))$ so that $$L(M_2 M(z)) = 12 log r(M_2M)(z) + L(z)+2ipi n(M_2M)\=L(M_2 (M(z)))=12 log r(M_2)(M(z)) + L(M(z))+2ipi n(M_2)\=12 log r(M_2)(M(z)) +12 log r(M)(z) + L(z)+2ipi n(M)+2ipi n(M_2)$$
$r(M_2M)(z) = r(M)(z) r(M_2)(M(z))$ implies $log r(M_2M)(z) = log r(M_2)(M(z)) + log r(M)(z)+2i pi k(M_2,M)$.
For $M,M_2,M_2M in G$ we know $log r(M_2M)(z),log r( M_2)(M(z)), log r(M)(z)$ send $Im(z)> 0$ to $Im(z) in (0,pi)$ so $log r(M_2)(M(z)) + log r(M)(z)$ sends $Im(z) > 0$ to $Im(z) in (0,2pi)$ and hence $k(M_2,M) =0$.
Thus for $M,M_2,M_2M in G$ $$n(M_2M) = n(M)+n(M_2)$$
The few remaining cases are $M$ or $M_2$ with $c=0$ and $M_2M$ with $c le 0$ to find $n(M)$ for every $M in SL_2(mathbbZ)$ and the transformation law of $L(z)$.
edited Mar 14 at 18:14
answered Mar 14 at 17:42
reunsreuns
21.5k21352
21.5k21352
$begingroup$
I don't see how this answers my question.
$endgroup$
– Will R
Mar 14 at 19:14
$begingroup$
@WillR Why that. Except for the remaining cases, not hard to treat, this is what your question is about. I showed there is no funky group/action nor homotopy classes.
$endgroup$
– reuns
Mar 14 at 19:45
$begingroup$
My question is "Why is $Phi(T,gamma)$ equal to $1,$ not $0$?". Nowhere in your answer have you even mentioned $Phi,$ $T$ or $gamma.$ You appear to be halfway to proving that $Phi$ (defined above) is a group homomorphism, in a certain sense; indeed, this is true, and is made precise in the paper that the question is referencing. But I understand their proof and I am not asking for a proof that $Phi$ is a group homomorphism. I am asking why, for a specified input, $Phi$ should output $1$ (and more specifically, what is wrong with my argument that it actually outputs $0$).
$endgroup$
– Will R
Mar 14 at 19:47
$begingroup$
Once it is a group homomorphism it suffices to look at $M(z) = z+1$ and $M(z) = -1/z$ so my method solves your problem. If your paper is really messing up with complicated group/actions and homotopy classes then my method is much simpler.
$endgroup$
– reuns
Mar 14 at 19:50
$begingroup$
$M(z)=z+1$ is $Tz,$ so you have not solved my problem unless you do the work to compute the corresponding value of $n.$ Also, you do not appear to have understood the point. The whole point of the construction is that we introduce the path $gamma$ to choose the branch of $log(cz+d).$ The resulting value of $n$ (in your notation) very much depends on the $gamma$ used. If you aren't using paths, then you aren't working on the problem I have asked about.
$endgroup$
– Will R
Mar 14 at 19:52
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I don't see how this answers my question.
$endgroup$
– Will R
Mar 14 at 19:14
$begingroup$
@WillR Why that. Except for the remaining cases, not hard to treat, this is what your question is about. I showed there is no funky group/action nor homotopy classes.
$endgroup$
– reuns
Mar 14 at 19:45
$begingroup$
My question is "Why is $Phi(T,gamma)$ equal to $1,$ not $0$?". Nowhere in your answer have you even mentioned $Phi,$ $T$ or $gamma.$ You appear to be halfway to proving that $Phi$ (defined above) is a group homomorphism, in a certain sense; indeed, this is true, and is made precise in the paper that the question is referencing. But I understand their proof and I am not asking for a proof that $Phi$ is a group homomorphism. I am asking why, for a specified input, $Phi$ should output $1$ (and more specifically, what is wrong with my argument that it actually outputs $0$).
$endgroup$
– Will R
Mar 14 at 19:47
$begingroup$
Once it is a group homomorphism it suffices to look at $M(z) = z+1$ and $M(z) = -1/z$ so my method solves your problem. If your paper is really messing up with complicated group/actions and homotopy classes then my method is much simpler.
$endgroup$
– reuns
Mar 14 at 19:50
$begingroup$
$M(z)=z+1$ is $Tz,$ so you have not solved my problem unless you do the work to compute the corresponding value of $n.$ Also, you do not appear to have understood the point. The whole point of the construction is that we introduce the path $gamma$ to choose the branch of $log(cz+d).$ The resulting value of $n$ (in your notation) very much depends on the $gamma$ used. If you aren't using paths, then you aren't working on the problem I have asked about.
$endgroup$
– Will R
Mar 14 at 19:52
$begingroup$
I don't see how this answers my question.
$endgroup$
– Will R
Mar 14 at 19:14
$begingroup$
I don't see how this answers my question.
$endgroup$
– Will R
Mar 14 at 19:14
$begingroup$
@WillR Why that. Except for the remaining cases, not hard to treat, this is what your question is about. I showed there is no funky group/action nor homotopy classes.
$endgroup$
– reuns
Mar 14 at 19:45
$begingroup$
@WillR Why that. Except for the remaining cases, not hard to treat, this is what your question is about. I showed there is no funky group/action nor homotopy classes.
$endgroup$
– reuns
Mar 14 at 19:45
$begingroup$
My question is "Why is $Phi(T,gamma)$ equal to $1,$ not $0$?". Nowhere in your answer have you even mentioned $Phi,$ $T$ or $gamma.$ You appear to be halfway to proving that $Phi$ (defined above) is a group homomorphism, in a certain sense; indeed, this is true, and is made precise in the paper that the question is referencing. But I understand their proof and I am not asking for a proof that $Phi$ is a group homomorphism. I am asking why, for a specified input, $Phi$ should output $1$ (and more specifically, what is wrong with my argument that it actually outputs $0$).
$endgroup$
– Will R
Mar 14 at 19:47
$begingroup$
My question is "Why is $Phi(T,gamma)$ equal to $1,$ not $0$?". Nowhere in your answer have you even mentioned $Phi,$ $T$ or $gamma.$ You appear to be halfway to proving that $Phi$ (defined above) is a group homomorphism, in a certain sense; indeed, this is true, and is made precise in the paper that the question is referencing. But I understand their proof and I am not asking for a proof that $Phi$ is a group homomorphism. I am asking why, for a specified input, $Phi$ should output $1$ (and more specifically, what is wrong with my argument that it actually outputs $0$).
$endgroup$
– Will R
Mar 14 at 19:47
$begingroup$
Once it is a group homomorphism it suffices to look at $M(z) = z+1$ and $M(z) = -1/z$ so my method solves your problem. If your paper is really messing up with complicated group/actions and homotopy classes then my method is much simpler.
$endgroup$
– reuns
Mar 14 at 19:50
$begingroup$
Once it is a group homomorphism it suffices to look at $M(z) = z+1$ and $M(z) = -1/z$ so my method solves your problem. If your paper is really messing up with complicated group/actions and homotopy classes then my method is much simpler.
$endgroup$
– reuns
Mar 14 at 19:50
$begingroup$
$M(z)=z+1$ is $Tz,$ so you have not solved my problem unless you do the work to compute the corresponding value of $n.$ Also, you do not appear to have understood the point. The whole point of the construction is that we introduce the path $gamma$ to choose the branch of $log(cz+d).$ The resulting value of $n$ (in your notation) very much depends on the $gamma$ used. If you aren't using paths, then you aren't working on the problem I have asked about.
$endgroup$
– Will R
Mar 14 at 19:52
$begingroup$
$M(z)=z+1$ is $Tz,$ so you have not solved my problem unless you do the work to compute the corresponding value of $n.$ Also, you do not appear to have understood the point. The whole point of the construction is that we introduce the path $gamma$ to choose the branch of $log(cz+d).$ The resulting value of $n$ (in your notation) very much depends on the $gamma$ used. If you aren't using paths, then you aren't working on the problem I have asked about.
$endgroup$
– Will R
Mar 14 at 19:52
add a comment |
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