Spivak Change of Variable Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Chain Rule to Compute Second DerivativeHow is this linear transformation defined?Inverse Function Theorem, Spivak's Proofan identity regarding the chain rule for weak derivativesUnderstanding the chain rule result and the derivative (spivak)How to apply change of variables to identity map?mapping / projection onto axisTotal derivative vs chain ruleConfusion in Spivak's proof of theorem 2-7 in Calculus on ManifoldsConstant term in a minimal polynomial is a scalar, but not so when polynomial is composed with linear transformation.

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Spivak Change of Variable



Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Chain Rule to Compute Second DerivativeHow is this linear transformation defined?Inverse Function Theorem, Spivak's Proofan identity regarding the chain rule for weak derivativesUnderstanding the chain rule result and the derivative (spivak)How to apply change of variables to identity map?mapping / projection onto axisTotal derivative vs chain ruleConfusion in Spivak's proof of theorem 2-7 in Calculus on ManifoldsConstant term in a minimal polynomial is a scalar, but not so when polynomial is composed with linear transformation.










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I was a bit confused about the following statement. On page 69, Spivak says "in fact, if T is the linear transformation $Dg(a)$, then $(T^-1circ g)'(a)=I $. I may be applying the chain rule incorrectly, but I do not immediately see why the result should be the identity matrix.










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$endgroup$
















    0












    $begingroup$


    I was a bit confused about the following statement. On page 69, Spivak says "in fact, if T is the linear transformation $Dg(a)$, then $(T^-1circ g)'(a)=I $. I may be applying the chain rule incorrectly, but I do not immediately see why the result should be the identity matrix.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      I was a bit confused about the following statement. On page 69, Spivak says "in fact, if T is the linear transformation $Dg(a)$, then $(T^-1circ g)'(a)=I $. I may be applying the chain rule incorrectly, but I do not immediately see why the result should be the identity matrix.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      I was a bit confused about the following statement. On page 69, Spivak says "in fact, if T is the linear transformation $Dg(a)$, then $(T^-1circ g)'(a)=I $. I may be applying the chain rule incorrectly, but I do not immediately see why the result should be the identity matrix.







      multivariable-calculus linear-transformations frechet-derivative






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      share|cite|improve this question













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      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Mar 27 at 10:26









      José Carlos Santos

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      175k24134243










      asked Mar 27 at 3:46









      user1848065user1848065

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          $begingroup$

          Because $(T^-1circ g)'(a)=(T^-1)'bigl(g(a)bigr)circ g'(a)=T^-1circ Dg(a)=operatornameId$. Note that the equality $(T^-1)'bigl(g(a)bigr)=T^-1$ comes from the fact that $T$ is linear.






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          • $begingroup$
            Thank you so much for making that clear!
            $endgroup$
            – user1848065
            Mar 27 at 12:21











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          $begingroup$

          Because $(T^-1circ g)'(a)=(T^-1)'bigl(g(a)bigr)circ g'(a)=T^-1circ Dg(a)=operatornameId$. Note that the equality $(T^-1)'bigl(g(a)bigr)=T^-1$ comes from the fact that $T$ is linear.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Thank you so much for making that clear!
            $endgroup$
            – user1848065
            Mar 27 at 12:21















          1












          $begingroup$

          Because $(T^-1circ g)'(a)=(T^-1)'bigl(g(a)bigr)circ g'(a)=T^-1circ Dg(a)=operatornameId$. Note that the equality $(T^-1)'bigl(g(a)bigr)=T^-1$ comes from the fact that $T$ is linear.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Thank you so much for making that clear!
            $endgroup$
            – user1848065
            Mar 27 at 12:21













          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          Because $(T^-1circ g)'(a)=(T^-1)'bigl(g(a)bigr)circ g'(a)=T^-1circ Dg(a)=operatornameId$. Note that the equality $(T^-1)'bigl(g(a)bigr)=T^-1$ comes from the fact that $T$ is linear.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Because $(T^-1circ g)'(a)=(T^-1)'bigl(g(a)bigr)circ g'(a)=T^-1circ Dg(a)=operatornameId$. Note that the equality $(T^-1)'bigl(g(a)bigr)=T^-1$ comes from the fact that $T$ is linear.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Mar 27 at 3:50









          José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos

          175k24134243




          175k24134243











          • $begingroup$
            Thank you so much for making that clear!
            $endgroup$
            – user1848065
            Mar 27 at 12:21
















          • $begingroup$
            Thank you so much for making that clear!
            $endgroup$
            – user1848065
            Mar 27 at 12:21















          $begingroup$
          Thank you so much for making that clear!
          $endgroup$
          – user1848065
          Mar 27 at 12:21




          $begingroup$
          Thank you so much for making that clear!
          $endgroup$
          – user1848065
          Mar 27 at 12:21

















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