Why a normally distributed random variable and an exponential distributed r.v. exist on the same space? Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Random variable and probability space notionsRandom variable exponentially distributed?Domain of a random variable - sample space or probability space?Prove that the increments of the Brownian motion are normally distributedProbability space induced by a random variableProve that the limit in probability of normally distributed random variables is normally distributed, tooFinding a probability measure such that the given random variable admits the given distrubution functionThere must exist a random variable with certain given law?Random variable on product space as product of random variablesExplicitly representing a random variable such as $ X(omega):=frac1lambda ln frac11-omega$, which is exponential

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Why a normally distributed random variable and an exponential distributed r.v. exist on the same space?



Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Random variable and probability space notionsRandom variable exponentially distributed?Domain of a random variable - sample space or probability space?Prove that the increments of the Brownian motion are normally distributedProbability space induced by a random variableProve that the limit in probability of normally distributed random variables is normally distributed, tooFinding a probability measure such that the given random variable admits the given distrubution functionThere must exist a random variable with certain given law?Random variable on product space as product of random variablesExplicitly representing a random variable such as $ X(omega):=frac1lambda ln frac11-omega$, which is exponential










0












$begingroup$


Let $F:mathbb Rto [0,1]$ a function s.t. $F$ is right continuous, $lim_xto -infty F(x)=0$, $lim_xto infty F(x)=1$ and non decreasing.



I have a theorem in my lecture that says :




A function that the above properties is the distribution of some random variable.




I'm a bit confused by this theorem. Does it mean that



A) There exist a probability space $(Omega ,mathcal F,mathbb P)$ and a random variable $X:Omega to mathbb R$ s.t. $$F(x)=mathbb P(Xleq x),$$



B) Or, in the previous theorem a probability space is already fixed ? I.e the theorem is :




Let $(Omega ,mathcal F,mathbb P)$ a probability space. If a function $F$ has the properties above, then there is a r.v. $X:Omega to mathbb R$ s.t. $F(x)=mathbb P(Xleq x)$.





Why such a question ? My previous question could look a bit weird, but when in an exercise we say : Let $(Omega ,mathcal P,mathbb P)$ a probability space and let $X,Y$ two random variable s.t. $X$ is normally distributed and $Y$ is exponentially distributed.



The question arise is : why two such r.v. exist on the same space ? If B) is not true, even if $X$ is normally distributed on $(Omega ,mathcal F,mathbb P)$ (take $F(x)=int_-infty ^x e^-x^2/2/sqrt2pidx$) and $Y$ is normally distributed on $(tilde Omega ,tilde mathcal F,tilde mathcal P)$, ((take $F(x)=int0^infty lambda e^-lambda xdx$) there is no reason that such two r.v. exist on the same space.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$
















    0












    $begingroup$


    Let $F:mathbb Rto [0,1]$ a function s.t. $F$ is right continuous, $lim_xto -infty F(x)=0$, $lim_xto infty F(x)=1$ and non decreasing.



    I have a theorem in my lecture that says :




    A function that the above properties is the distribution of some random variable.




    I'm a bit confused by this theorem. Does it mean that



    A) There exist a probability space $(Omega ,mathcal F,mathbb P)$ and a random variable $X:Omega to mathbb R$ s.t. $$F(x)=mathbb P(Xleq x),$$



    B) Or, in the previous theorem a probability space is already fixed ? I.e the theorem is :




    Let $(Omega ,mathcal F,mathbb P)$ a probability space. If a function $F$ has the properties above, then there is a r.v. $X:Omega to mathbb R$ s.t. $F(x)=mathbb P(Xleq x)$.





    Why such a question ? My previous question could look a bit weird, but when in an exercise we say : Let $(Omega ,mathcal P,mathbb P)$ a probability space and let $X,Y$ two random variable s.t. $X$ is normally distributed and $Y$ is exponentially distributed.



    The question arise is : why two such r.v. exist on the same space ? If B) is not true, even if $X$ is normally distributed on $(Omega ,mathcal F,mathbb P)$ (take $F(x)=int_-infty ^x e^-x^2/2/sqrt2pidx$) and $Y$ is normally distributed on $(tilde Omega ,tilde mathcal F,tilde mathcal P)$, ((take $F(x)=int0^infty lambda e^-lambda xdx$) there is no reason that such two r.v. exist on the same space.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$














      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      Let $F:mathbb Rto [0,1]$ a function s.t. $F$ is right continuous, $lim_xto -infty F(x)=0$, $lim_xto infty F(x)=1$ and non decreasing.



      I have a theorem in my lecture that says :




      A function that the above properties is the distribution of some random variable.




      I'm a bit confused by this theorem. Does it mean that



      A) There exist a probability space $(Omega ,mathcal F,mathbb P)$ and a random variable $X:Omega to mathbb R$ s.t. $$F(x)=mathbb P(Xleq x),$$



      B) Or, in the previous theorem a probability space is already fixed ? I.e the theorem is :




      Let $(Omega ,mathcal F,mathbb P)$ a probability space. If a function $F$ has the properties above, then there is a r.v. $X:Omega to mathbb R$ s.t. $F(x)=mathbb P(Xleq x)$.





      Why such a question ? My previous question could look a bit weird, but when in an exercise we say : Let $(Omega ,mathcal P,mathbb P)$ a probability space and let $X,Y$ two random variable s.t. $X$ is normally distributed and $Y$ is exponentially distributed.



      The question arise is : why two such r.v. exist on the same space ? If B) is not true, even if $X$ is normally distributed on $(Omega ,mathcal F,mathbb P)$ (take $F(x)=int_-infty ^x e^-x^2/2/sqrt2pidx$) and $Y$ is normally distributed on $(tilde Omega ,tilde mathcal F,tilde mathcal P)$, ((take $F(x)=int0^infty lambda e^-lambda xdx$) there is no reason that such two r.v. exist on the same space.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Let $F:mathbb Rto [0,1]$ a function s.t. $F$ is right continuous, $lim_xto -infty F(x)=0$, $lim_xto infty F(x)=1$ and non decreasing.



      I have a theorem in my lecture that says :




      A function that the above properties is the distribution of some random variable.




      I'm a bit confused by this theorem. Does it mean that



      A) There exist a probability space $(Omega ,mathcal F,mathbb P)$ and a random variable $X:Omega to mathbb R$ s.t. $$F(x)=mathbb P(Xleq x),$$



      B) Or, in the previous theorem a probability space is already fixed ? I.e the theorem is :




      Let $(Omega ,mathcal F,mathbb P)$ a probability space. If a function $F$ has the properties above, then there is a r.v. $X:Omega to mathbb R$ s.t. $F(x)=mathbb P(Xleq x)$.





      Why such a question ? My previous question could look a bit weird, but when in an exercise we say : Let $(Omega ,mathcal P,mathbb P)$ a probability space and let $X,Y$ two random variable s.t. $X$ is normally distributed and $Y$ is exponentially distributed.



      The question arise is : why two such r.v. exist on the same space ? If B) is not true, even if $X$ is normally distributed on $(Omega ,mathcal F,mathbb P)$ (take $F(x)=int_-infty ^x e^-x^2/2/sqrt2pidx$) and $Y$ is normally distributed on $(tilde Omega ,tilde mathcal F,tilde mathcal P)$, ((take $F(x)=int0^infty lambda e^-lambda xdx$) there is no reason that such two r.v. exist on the same space.







      probability-theory






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Mar 27 at 5:54









      user657607user657607

      245




      245




















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          2












          $begingroup$

          Given $F$ there exists some probability space on which there is a random variable with distribution $F$. You cannot always do this on an arbitrary space. For example if the probability space consists of a finite set we cannot construct $X$ with normal distribution on it. [However, it can be shown that we can always find $X$ on $(0,1)$]. To construct $X$ and $Y$ with given distributions on the same space we can use product spaces. Kolomogorov's Existence Theorem (also known as Kolomogorov's Consistency Theorem) guarantees existence any number of random variables with given distributions on a single space.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for your answer :)
            $endgroup$
            – user657607
            Mar 27 at 6:21










          • $begingroup$
            At the end, if on $((0,1),mathcal B(0,1),mathbb P)$ where $mathbb P$ the Lebesgue measure, we can construct for all $F$ a random variable, this guarantee the existence of any number of random variable with any distribution, no need Kolmogorov, do we ?
            $endgroup$
            – user657607
            Mar 27 at 6:25











          • $begingroup$
            Kolmogorov's Theorem achieves much more than just constructing random variables with given distributions. We often want additional properties like independence, for example. Kolmogorov's Theorem is a basic result on which the entire theory of stochastic processes rests.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Mar 27 at 6:30











          • $begingroup$
            @KaviRamaMurthy: Why $((0,1),mathcal B(0,1),mathbb P)$ and not $([0,1], mathcal B([0,1],mathbb P)$ whith Lebesgue measure ? Such a probability space doesn't work in the construction ?
            $endgroup$
            – user657324
            Mar 27 at 14:51










          • $begingroup$
            @user657324 If you are asking why I am taking open interval and not closed interval the answer is you can take either. Since single points have Lebesgue measure $0$ it makes no difference.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Mar 27 at 23:04











          Your Answer








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          1 Answer
          1






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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          2












          $begingroup$

          Given $F$ there exists some probability space on which there is a random variable with distribution $F$. You cannot always do this on an arbitrary space. For example if the probability space consists of a finite set we cannot construct $X$ with normal distribution on it. [However, it can be shown that we can always find $X$ on $(0,1)$]. To construct $X$ and $Y$ with given distributions on the same space we can use product spaces. Kolomogorov's Existence Theorem (also known as Kolomogorov's Consistency Theorem) guarantees existence any number of random variables with given distributions on a single space.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for your answer :)
            $endgroup$
            – user657607
            Mar 27 at 6:21










          • $begingroup$
            At the end, if on $((0,1),mathcal B(0,1),mathbb P)$ where $mathbb P$ the Lebesgue measure, we can construct for all $F$ a random variable, this guarantee the existence of any number of random variable with any distribution, no need Kolmogorov, do we ?
            $endgroup$
            – user657607
            Mar 27 at 6:25











          • $begingroup$
            Kolmogorov's Theorem achieves much more than just constructing random variables with given distributions. We often want additional properties like independence, for example. Kolmogorov's Theorem is a basic result on which the entire theory of stochastic processes rests.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Mar 27 at 6:30











          • $begingroup$
            @KaviRamaMurthy: Why $((0,1),mathcal B(0,1),mathbb P)$ and not $([0,1], mathcal B([0,1],mathbb P)$ whith Lebesgue measure ? Such a probability space doesn't work in the construction ?
            $endgroup$
            – user657324
            Mar 27 at 14:51










          • $begingroup$
            @user657324 If you are asking why I am taking open interval and not closed interval the answer is you can take either. Since single points have Lebesgue measure $0$ it makes no difference.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Mar 27 at 23:04















          2












          $begingroup$

          Given $F$ there exists some probability space on which there is a random variable with distribution $F$. You cannot always do this on an arbitrary space. For example if the probability space consists of a finite set we cannot construct $X$ with normal distribution on it. [However, it can be shown that we can always find $X$ on $(0,1)$]. To construct $X$ and $Y$ with given distributions on the same space we can use product spaces. Kolomogorov's Existence Theorem (also known as Kolomogorov's Consistency Theorem) guarantees existence any number of random variables with given distributions on a single space.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for your answer :)
            $endgroup$
            – user657607
            Mar 27 at 6:21










          • $begingroup$
            At the end, if on $((0,1),mathcal B(0,1),mathbb P)$ where $mathbb P$ the Lebesgue measure, we can construct for all $F$ a random variable, this guarantee the existence of any number of random variable with any distribution, no need Kolmogorov, do we ?
            $endgroup$
            – user657607
            Mar 27 at 6:25











          • $begingroup$
            Kolmogorov's Theorem achieves much more than just constructing random variables with given distributions. We often want additional properties like independence, for example. Kolmogorov's Theorem is a basic result on which the entire theory of stochastic processes rests.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Mar 27 at 6:30











          • $begingroup$
            @KaviRamaMurthy: Why $((0,1),mathcal B(0,1),mathbb P)$ and not $([0,1], mathcal B([0,1],mathbb P)$ whith Lebesgue measure ? Such a probability space doesn't work in the construction ?
            $endgroup$
            – user657324
            Mar 27 at 14:51










          • $begingroup$
            @user657324 If you are asking why I am taking open interval and not closed interval the answer is you can take either. Since single points have Lebesgue measure $0$ it makes no difference.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Mar 27 at 23:04













          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          Given $F$ there exists some probability space on which there is a random variable with distribution $F$. You cannot always do this on an arbitrary space. For example if the probability space consists of a finite set we cannot construct $X$ with normal distribution on it. [However, it can be shown that we can always find $X$ on $(0,1)$]. To construct $X$ and $Y$ with given distributions on the same space we can use product spaces. Kolomogorov's Existence Theorem (also known as Kolomogorov's Consistency Theorem) guarantees existence any number of random variables with given distributions on a single space.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          Given $F$ there exists some probability space on which there is a random variable with distribution $F$. You cannot always do this on an arbitrary space. For example if the probability space consists of a finite set we cannot construct $X$ with normal distribution on it. [However, it can be shown that we can always find $X$ on $(0,1)$]. To construct $X$ and $Y$ with given distributions on the same space we can use product spaces. Kolomogorov's Existence Theorem (also known as Kolomogorov's Consistency Theorem) guarantees existence any number of random variables with given distributions on a single space.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Mar 27 at 6:31

























          answered Mar 27 at 6:06









          Kavi Rama MurthyKavi Rama Murthy

          75.5k53270




          75.5k53270











          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for your answer :)
            $endgroup$
            – user657607
            Mar 27 at 6:21










          • $begingroup$
            At the end, if on $((0,1),mathcal B(0,1),mathbb P)$ where $mathbb P$ the Lebesgue measure, we can construct for all $F$ a random variable, this guarantee the existence of any number of random variable with any distribution, no need Kolmogorov, do we ?
            $endgroup$
            – user657607
            Mar 27 at 6:25











          • $begingroup$
            Kolmogorov's Theorem achieves much more than just constructing random variables with given distributions. We often want additional properties like independence, for example. Kolmogorov's Theorem is a basic result on which the entire theory of stochastic processes rests.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Mar 27 at 6:30











          • $begingroup$
            @KaviRamaMurthy: Why $((0,1),mathcal B(0,1),mathbb P)$ and not $([0,1], mathcal B([0,1],mathbb P)$ whith Lebesgue measure ? Such a probability space doesn't work in the construction ?
            $endgroup$
            – user657324
            Mar 27 at 14:51










          • $begingroup$
            @user657324 If you are asking why I am taking open interval and not closed interval the answer is you can take either. Since single points have Lebesgue measure $0$ it makes no difference.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Mar 27 at 23:04
















          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for your answer :)
            $endgroup$
            – user657607
            Mar 27 at 6:21










          • $begingroup$
            At the end, if on $((0,1),mathcal B(0,1),mathbb P)$ where $mathbb P$ the Lebesgue measure, we can construct for all $F$ a random variable, this guarantee the existence of any number of random variable with any distribution, no need Kolmogorov, do we ?
            $endgroup$
            – user657607
            Mar 27 at 6:25











          • $begingroup$
            Kolmogorov's Theorem achieves much more than just constructing random variables with given distributions. We often want additional properties like independence, for example. Kolmogorov's Theorem is a basic result on which the entire theory of stochastic processes rests.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Mar 27 at 6:30











          • $begingroup$
            @KaviRamaMurthy: Why $((0,1),mathcal B(0,1),mathbb P)$ and not $([0,1], mathcal B([0,1],mathbb P)$ whith Lebesgue measure ? Such a probability space doesn't work in the construction ?
            $endgroup$
            – user657324
            Mar 27 at 14:51










          • $begingroup$
            @user657324 If you are asking why I am taking open interval and not closed interval the answer is you can take either. Since single points have Lebesgue measure $0$ it makes no difference.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Mar 27 at 23:04















          $begingroup$
          Thank you for your answer :)
          $endgroup$
          – user657607
          Mar 27 at 6:21




          $begingroup$
          Thank you for your answer :)
          $endgroup$
          – user657607
          Mar 27 at 6:21












          $begingroup$
          At the end, if on $((0,1),mathcal B(0,1),mathbb P)$ where $mathbb P$ the Lebesgue measure, we can construct for all $F$ a random variable, this guarantee the existence of any number of random variable with any distribution, no need Kolmogorov, do we ?
          $endgroup$
          – user657607
          Mar 27 at 6:25





          $begingroup$
          At the end, if on $((0,1),mathcal B(0,1),mathbb P)$ where $mathbb P$ the Lebesgue measure, we can construct for all $F$ a random variable, this guarantee the existence of any number of random variable with any distribution, no need Kolmogorov, do we ?
          $endgroup$
          – user657607
          Mar 27 at 6:25













          $begingroup$
          Kolmogorov's Theorem achieves much more than just constructing random variables with given distributions. We often want additional properties like independence, for example. Kolmogorov's Theorem is a basic result on which the entire theory of stochastic processes rests.
          $endgroup$
          – Kavi Rama Murthy
          Mar 27 at 6:30





          $begingroup$
          Kolmogorov's Theorem achieves much more than just constructing random variables with given distributions. We often want additional properties like independence, for example. Kolmogorov's Theorem is a basic result on which the entire theory of stochastic processes rests.
          $endgroup$
          – Kavi Rama Murthy
          Mar 27 at 6:30













          $begingroup$
          @KaviRamaMurthy: Why $((0,1),mathcal B(0,1),mathbb P)$ and not $([0,1], mathcal B([0,1],mathbb P)$ whith Lebesgue measure ? Such a probability space doesn't work in the construction ?
          $endgroup$
          – user657324
          Mar 27 at 14:51




          $begingroup$
          @KaviRamaMurthy: Why $((0,1),mathcal B(0,1),mathbb P)$ and not $([0,1], mathcal B([0,1],mathbb P)$ whith Lebesgue measure ? Such a probability space doesn't work in the construction ?
          $endgroup$
          – user657324
          Mar 27 at 14:51












          $begingroup$
          @user657324 If you are asking why I am taking open interval and not closed interval the answer is you can take either. Since single points have Lebesgue measure $0$ it makes no difference.
          $endgroup$
          – Kavi Rama Murthy
          Mar 27 at 23:04




          $begingroup$
          @user657324 If you are asking why I am taking open interval and not closed interval the answer is you can take either. Since single points have Lebesgue measure $0$ it makes no difference.
          $endgroup$
          – Kavi Rama Murthy
          Mar 27 at 23:04

















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