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Proof of continuity of a vector function


Continuity Property Proof CheckProof: Cauchy sequences and uniform continuityProving continuity of this Dirichlet functionContinuity limit of signam functionContinuity of a function for all pointsFunction maps Cauchy sequences to Cauchy sequences: prove uniform continuityShowing the continuity of a function based on the continuity of another functionMetric Spaces and ContinuityContinuity vs. Uniform Continuity in Layman's TermsReal Analysis: Function Continuity













0












$begingroup$



Let $f: mathbbR^m rightarrow mathbbR$. Show that $f(x) = x_i$ where $x_i$ is the $i^nd$ component of $x$ regarding the standard basis of $mathbbR^m$ is continuous in 0.




The definition says :




Let $A subset mathbbR^m$, $f: A rightarrow mathbbR^p$ and $a in A$. The function is continuous in a when for all $epsilon gt 0$, $exists delta gt 0$ such that for all $x in A$, $||x - a|| le delta$ and $|| f(x) - f(a) || le epsilon$.




I know $f(x) = (e_i|x)$.



By Cauchy-Schwarz inequality, we have : $|(e_i|x)| le ||e_i||.||x||$



We have $||x - 0|| = ||x|| le delta$.



So $||f(x) - f(0)|| le ||e_i||.||x|| - 0 = ||e_i||.||x||$



Now, for every $epsilon gt 0$ we can take $delta = fracepsilone_i$



So $||f(x) - f(0)|| le ||e_i||.||x|| le ||e_i||delta = ||e_i||fracepsilone_i = epsilon$.



I wonder if it's correct ?










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Mathieu Rousseau is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    Welcome to MSE. But this is not a definition of continuity, I'm afraid. It should go as something like: is continuous at $a$ when for each $epsilon>0$ there is $delta>0$ such that for all $xin A$ such that $lVert x-arVert<delta$ there holds $lVert f(x)-f(a)rVert<epsilon$.
    $endgroup$
    – user539887
    yesterday











  • $begingroup$
    Sorry I made a mistake in the definition. I corrected it.
    $endgroup$
    – Mathieu Rousseau
    20 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, it is O.K. When you use the standard Euclidean norm, then $lVert e_irVert=1$. But perhaps by $lVertcdotrVert$ you mean any arbitrary norm, then $lVert e_irVert$ need not be $1$. Incidentally, Cauchy-Schwarz inequality, not inegality.
    $endgroup$
    – user539887
    19 hours ago
















0












$begingroup$



Let $f: mathbbR^m rightarrow mathbbR$. Show that $f(x) = x_i$ where $x_i$ is the $i^nd$ component of $x$ regarding the standard basis of $mathbbR^m$ is continuous in 0.




The definition says :




Let $A subset mathbbR^m$, $f: A rightarrow mathbbR^p$ and $a in A$. The function is continuous in a when for all $epsilon gt 0$, $exists delta gt 0$ such that for all $x in A$, $||x - a|| le delta$ and $|| f(x) - f(a) || le epsilon$.




I know $f(x) = (e_i|x)$.



By Cauchy-Schwarz inequality, we have : $|(e_i|x)| le ||e_i||.||x||$



We have $||x - 0|| = ||x|| le delta$.



So $||f(x) - f(0)|| le ||e_i||.||x|| - 0 = ||e_i||.||x||$



Now, for every $epsilon gt 0$ we can take $delta = fracepsilone_i$



So $||f(x) - f(0)|| le ||e_i||.||x|| le ||e_i||delta = ||e_i||fracepsilone_i = epsilon$.



I wonder if it's correct ?










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Mathieu Rousseau is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    Welcome to MSE. But this is not a definition of continuity, I'm afraid. It should go as something like: is continuous at $a$ when for each $epsilon>0$ there is $delta>0$ such that for all $xin A$ such that $lVert x-arVert<delta$ there holds $lVert f(x)-f(a)rVert<epsilon$.
    $endgroup$
    – user539887
    yesterday











  • $begingroup$
    Sorry I made a mistake in the definition. I corrected it.
    $endgroup$
    – Mathieu Rousseau
    20 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, it is O.K. When you use the standard Euclidean norm, then $lVert e_irVert=1$. But perhaps by $lVertcdotrVert$ you mean any arbitrary norm, then $lVert e_irVert$ need not be $1$. Incidentally, Cauchy-Schwarz inequality, not inegality.
    $endgroup$
    – user539887
    19 hours ago














0












0








0





$begingroup$



Let $f: mathbbR^m rightarrow mathbbR$. Show that $f(x) = x_i$ where $x_i$ is the $i^nd$ component of $x$ regarding the standard basis of $mathbbR^m$ is continuous in 0.




The definition says :




Let $A subset mathbbR^m$, $f: A rightarrow mathbbR^p$ and $a in A$. The function is continuous in a when for all $epsilon gt 0$, $exists delta gt 0$ such that for all $x in A$, $||x - a|| le delta$ and $|| f(x) - f(a) || le epsilon$.




I know $f(x) = (e_i|x)$.



By Cauchy-Schwarz inequality, we have : $|(e_i|x)| le ||e_i||.||x||$



We have $||x - 0|| = ||x|| le delta$.



So $||f(x) - f(0)|| le ||e_i||.||x|| - 0 = ||e_i||.||x||$



Now, for every $epsilon gt 0$ we can take $delta = fracepsilone_i$



So $||f(x) - f(0)|| le ||e_i||.||x|| le ||e_i||delta = ||e_i||fracepsilone_i = epsilon$.



I wonder if it's correct ?










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Mathieu Rousseau is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$





Let $f: mathbbR^m rightarrow mathbbR$. Show that $f(x) = x_i$ where $x_i$ is the $i^nd$ component of $x$ regarding the standard basis of $mathbbR^m$ is continuous in 0.




The definition says :




Let $A subset mathbbR^m$, $f: A rightarrow mathbbR^p$ and $a in A$. The function is continuous in a when for all $epsilon gt 0$, $exists delta gt 0$ such that for all $x in A$, $||x - a|| le delta$ and $|| f(x) - f(a) || le epsilon$.




I know $f(x) = (e_i|x)$.



By Cauchy-Schwarz inequality, we have : $|(e_i|x)| le ||e_i||.||x||$



We have $||x - 0|| = ||x|| le delta$.



So $||f(x) - f(0)|| le ||e_i||.||x|| - 0 = ||e_i||.||x||$



Now, for every $epsilon gt 0$ we can take $delta = fracepsilone_i$



So $||f(x) - f(0)|| le ||e_i||.||x|| le ||e_i||delta = ||e_i||fracepsilone_i = epsilon$.



I wonder if it's correct ?







real-analysis continuity vectors






share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Mathieu Rousseau is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Mathieu Rousseau is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited 16 hours ago







Mathieu Rousseau













New contributor




Mathieu Rousseau is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









asked yesterday









Mathieu RousseauMathieu Rousseau

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62




New contributor




Mathieu Rousseau is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.





New contributor





Mathieu Rousseau is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






Mathieu Rousseau is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











  • $begingroup$
    Welcome to MSE. But this is not a definition of continuity, I'm afraid. It should go as something like: is continuous at $a$ when for each $epsilon>0$ there is $delta>0$ such that for all $xin A$ such that $lVert x-arVert<delta$ there holds $lVert f(x)-f(a)rVert<epsilon$.
    $endgroup$
    – user539887
    yesterday











  • $begingroup$
    Sorry I made a mistake in the definition. I corrected it.
    $endgroup$
    – Mathieu Rousseau
    20 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, it is O.K. When you use the standard Euclidean norm, then $lVert e_irVert=1$. But perhaps by $lVertcdotrVert$ you mean any arbitrary norm, then $lVert e_irVert$ need not be $1$. Incidentally, Cauchy-Schwarz inequality, not inegality.
    $endgroup$
    – user539887
    19 hours ago

















  • $begingroup$
    Welcome to MSE. But this is not a definition of continuity, I'm afraid. It should go as something like: is continuous at $a$ when for each $epsilon>0$ there is $delta>0$ such that for all $xin A$ such that $lVert x-arVert<delta$ there holds $lVert f(x)-f(a)rVert<epsilon$.
    $endgroup$
    – user539887
    yesterday











  • $begingroup$
    Sorry I made a mistake in the definition. I corrected it.
    $endgroup$
    – Mathieu Rousseau
    20 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, it is O.K. When you use the standard Euclidean norm, then $lVert e_irVert=1$. But perhaps by $lVertcdotrVert$ you mean any arbitrary norm, then $lVert e_irVert$ need not be $1$. Incidentally, Cauchy-Schwarz inequality, not inegality.
    $endgroup$
    – user539887
    19 hours ago
















$begingroup$
Welcome to MSE. But this is not a definition of continuity, I'm afraid. It should go as something like: is continuous at $a$ when for each $epsilon>0$ there is $delta>0$ such that for all $xin A$ such that $lVert x-arVert<delta$ there holds $lVert f(x)-f(a)rVert<epsilon$.
$endgroup$
– user539887
yesterday





$begingroup$
Welcome to MSE. But this is not a definition of continuity, I'm afraid. It should go as something like: is continuous at $a$ when for each $epsilon>0$ there is $delta>0$ such that for all $xin A$ such that $lVert x-arVert<delta$ there holds $lVert f(x)-f(a)rVert<epsilon$.
$endgroup$
– user539887
yesterday













$begingroup$
Sorry I made a mistake in the definition. I corrected it.
$endgroup$
– Mathieu Rousseau
20 hours ago




$begingroup$
Sorry I made a mistake in the definition. I corrected it.
$endgroup$
– Mathieu Rousseau
20 hours ago












$begingroup$
Yes, it is O.K. When you use the standard Euclidean norm, then $lVert e_irVert=1$. But perhaps by $lVertcdotrVert$ you mean any arbitrary norm, then $lVert e_irVert$ need not be $1$. Incidentally, Cauchy-Schwarz inequality, not inegality.
$endgroup$
– user539887
19 hours ago





$begingroup$
Yes, it is O.K. When you use the standard Euclidean norm, then $lVert e_irVert=1$. But perhaps by $lVertcdotrVert$ you mean any arbitrary norm, then $lVert e_irVert$ need not be $1$. Incidentally, Cauchy-Schwarz inequality, not inegality.
$endgroup$
– user539887
19 hours ago











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