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If a sequence $s_n$ of real numbers converges to $s>a$ then $s_n>a$


Prove that the convergence of the sequence ($s_n$) implies the convergence of ($s_n^3$)If a sequence $s_n$ converges, does $f(s_n)$ converge?Simple sequence convergence question…Conclude that if all but finitely many $s_n$ belong to $[a, b]$, lim $s_n$ belongs to $[a,b]$Simple proof that this sequence converges [verification]Show that if $(sum x_n)$ converges absolutely and $(y_n)$ is bounded then $(sum x_n y_n)$ convergesShow that if all convergent sub-sequences of a sequence $s_n$ converge to 0 and $s_n$ is bounded, then $s_n$ converges to $0$Sequence of divisions such that its upper and lower function limits are equalIf sequence $s_n$ converges, then sequence $$ converges as well(check the logic)Show directly that if $s_n$ is a Cauchy sequence then so is $$. Conclude that $$ converges whenever $s_n$ converges.













1












$begingroup$


Let $s_n$ be a sequence of real numbers that converges to $s>a$. Then there exists an $N>0$ such that $n>Nimplies s_n>a$.



PROOF:
By definition of convergence in sequences we have that for all $varepsilon>0$, there exists $N>0$ such that $n>N$ implies $|s_n-s|<varepsilon$.



Choose $varepsilon=s-a$. Then $|s_n-s|<s-a$. By properties of absolute values and inequalities we have $-s+a<s_n-s<s-a$ which implies $s_n>a$.



Is my proof rigorous, correct? I'd appreciate any comments for improvement.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    Looks okay to me, do you know where you used the condition $s>a$ or did you even use it?
    $endgroup$
    – kingW3
    yesterday











  • $begingroup$
    @kingW3 I think implicitly I assumed that $s-a>0$ since $varepsilon>0$. Is that okay to do?
    $endgroup$
    – johnny09
    yesterday






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It is, you're able to use $epsilon = s-a$ because $s-a>0iff s>a$. You could mention it explicitly like "Choose $epsilon=s-a>0$" but you don't really need to. I just wanted to check whether you understood that.
    $endgroup$
    – kingW3
    yesterday















1












$begingroup$


Let $s_n$ be a sequence of real numbers that converges to $s>a$. Then there exists an $N>0$ such that $n>Nimplies s_n>a$.



PROOF:
By definition of convergence in sequences we have that for all $varepsilon>0$, there exists $N>0$ such that $n>N$ implies $|s_n-s|<varepsilon$.



Choose $varepsilon=s-a$. Then $|s_n-s|<s-a$. By properties of absolute values and inequalities we have $-s+a<s_n-s<s-a$ which implies $s_n>a$.



Is my proof rigorous, correct? I'd appreciate any comments for improvement.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    Looks okay to me, do you know where you used the condition $s>a$ or did you even use it?
    $endgroup$
    – kingW3
    yesterday











  • $begingroup$
    @kingW3 I think implicitly I assumed that $s-a>0$ since $varepsilon>0$. Is that okay to do?
    $endgroup$
    – johnny09
    yesterday






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It is, you're able to use $epsilon = s-a$ because $s-a>0iff s>a$. You could mention it explicitly like "Choose $epsilon=s-a>0$" but you don't really need to. I just wanted to check whether you understood that.
    $endgroup$
    – kingW3
    yesterday













1












1








1





$begingroup$


Let $s_n$ be a sequence of real numbers that converges to $s>a$. Then there exists an $N>0$ such that $n>Nimplies s_n>a$.



PROOF:
By definition of convergence in sequences we have that for all $varepsilon>0$, there exists $N>0$ such that $n>N$ implies $|s_n-s|<varepsilon$.



Choose $varepsilon=s-a$. Then $|s_n-s|<s-a$. By properties of absolute values and inequalities we have $-s+a<s_n-s<s-a$ which implies $s_n>a$.



Is my proof rigorous, correct? I'd appreciate any comments for improvement.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Let $s_n$ be a sequence of real numbers that converges to $s>a$. Then there exists an $N>0$ such that $n>Nimplies s_n>a$.



PROOF:
By definition of convergence in sequences we have that for all $varepsilon>0$, there exists $N>0$ such that $n>N$ implies $|s_n-s|<varepsilon$.



Choose $varepsilon=s-a$. Then $|s_n-s|<s-a$. By properties of absolute values and inequalities we have $-s+a<s_n-s<s-a$ which implies $s_n>a$.



Is my proof rigorous, correct? I'd appreciate any comments for improvement.







real-analysis proof-verification convergence






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited yesterday









Shaun

9,334113684




9,334113684










asked yesterday









johnny09johnny09

673624




673624











  • $begingroup$
    Looks okay to me, do you know where you used the condition $s>a$ or did you even use it?
    $endgroup$
    – kingW3
    yesterday











  • $begingroup$
    @kingW3 I think implicitly I assumed that $s-a>0$ since $varepsilon>0$. Is that okay to do?
    $endgroup$
    – johnny09
    yesterday






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It is, you're able to use $epsilon = s-a$ because $s-a>0iff s>a$. You could mention it explicitly like "Choose $epsilon=s-a>0$" but you don't really need to. I just wanted to check whether you understood that.
    $endgroup$
    – kingW3
    yesterday
















  • $begingroup$
    Looks okay to me, do you know where you used the condition $s>a$ or did you even use it?
    $endgroup$
    – kingW3
    yesterday











  • $begingroup$
    @kingW3 I think implicitly I assumed that $s-a>0$ since $varepsilon>0$. Is that okay to do?
    $endgroup$
    – johnny09
    yesterday






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It is, you're able to use $epsilon = s-a$ because $s-a>0iff s>a$. You could mention it explicitly like "Choose $epsilon=s-a>0$" but you don't really need to. I just wanted to check whether you understood that.
    $endgroup$
    – kingW3
    yesterday















$begingroup$
Looks okay to me, do you know where you used the condition $s>a$ or did you even use it?
$endgroup$
– kingW3
yesterday





$begingroup$
Looks okay to me, do you know where you used the condition $s>a$ or did you even use it?
$endgroup$
– kingW3
yesterday













$begingroup$
@kingW3 I think implicitly I assumed that $s-a>0$ since $varepsilon>0$. Is that okay to do?
$endgroup$
– johnny09
yesterday




$begingroup$
@kingW3 I think implicitly I assumed that $s-a>0$ since $varepsilon>0$. Is that okay to do?
$endgroup$
– johnny09
yesterday




1




1




$begingroup$
It is, you're able to use $epsilon = s-a$ because $s-a>0iff s>a$. You could mention it explicitly like "Choose $epsilon=s-a>0$" but you don't really need to. I just wanted to check whether you understood that.
$endgroup$
– kingW3
yesterday




$begingroup$
It is, you're able to use $epsilon = s-a$ because $s-a>0iff s>a$. You could mention it explicitly like "Choose $epsilon=s-a>0$" but you don't really need to. I just wanted to check whether you understood that.
$endgroup$
– kingW3
yesterday










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

I would just add, after “Choose $varepsilon=s-a$”, that there is a $Ninmathbb N$ such that $n>Nimplieslvert s_n-srvert<varepsilon$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Something like: "Let $varepsilon=s-a>0$. Then, by definition of limit of sequence, there exists $N in mathbbN$ such that $|s_n-s|<varepsilon=s-a$ whenever $n>N$. By properties of absolute values and inequalities we have $-s+a<s_n-s$ which implies $s_n>a$ for $n>N$."
    $endgroup$
    – md2perpe
    yesterday











  • $begingroup$
    That would be just fine!
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    yesterday










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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









2












$begingroup$

I would just add, after “Choose $varepsilon=s-a$”, that there is a $Ninmathbb N$ such that $n>Nimplieslvert s_n-srvert<varepsilon$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Something like: "Let $varepsilon=s-a>0$. Then, by definition of limit of sequence, there exists $N in mathbbN$ such that $|s_n-s|<varepsilon=s-a$ whenever $n>N$. By properties of absolute values and inequalities we have $-s+a<s_n-s$ which implies $s_n>a$ for $n>N$."
    $endgroup$
    – md2perpe
    yesterday











  • $begingroup$
    That would be just fine!
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    yesterday















2












$begingroup$

I would just add, after “Choose $varepsilon=s-a$”, that there is a $Ninmathbb N$ such that $n>Nimplieslvert s_n-srvert<varepsilon$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Something like: "Let $varepsilon=s-a>0$. Then, by definition of limit of sequence, there exists $N in mathbbN$ such that $|s_n-s|<varepsilon=s-a$ whenever $n>N$. By properties of absolute values and inequalities we have $-s+a<s_n-s$ which implies $s_n>a$ for $n>N$."
    $endgroup$
    – md2perpe
    yesterday











  • $begingroup$
    That would be just fine!
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    yesterday













2












2








2





$begingroup$

I would just add, after “Choose $varepsilon=s-a$”, that there is a $Ninmathbb N$ such that $n>Nimplieslvert s_n-srvert<varepsilon$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



I would just add, after “Choose $varepsilon=s-a$”, that there is a $Ninmathbb N$ such that $n>Nimplieslvert s_n-srvert<varepsilon$.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered yesterday









José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos

166k22132235




166k22132235











  • $begingroup$
    Something like: "Let $varepsilon=s-a>0$. Then, by definition of limit of sequence, there exists $N in mathbbN$ such that $|s_n-s|<varepsilon=s-a$ whenever $n>N$. By properties of absolute values and inequalities we have $-s+a<s_n-s$ which implies $s_n>a$ for $n>N$."
    $endgroup$
    – md2perpe
    yesterday











  • $begingroup$
    That would be just fine!
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    yesterday
















  • $begingroup$
    Something like: "Let $varepsilon=s-a>0$. Then, by definition of limit of sequence, there exists $N in mathbbN$ such that $|s_n-s|<varepsilon=s-a$ whenever $n>N$. By properties of absolute values and inequalities we have $-s+a<s_n-s$ which implies $s_n>a$ for $n>N$."
    $endgroup$
    – md2perpe
    yesterday











  • $begingroup$
    That would be just fine!
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    yesterday















$begingroup$
Something like: "Let $varepsilon=s-a>0$. Then, by definition of limit of sequence, there exists $N in mathbbN$ such that $|s_n-s|<varepsilon=s-a$ whenever $n>N$. By properties of absolute values and inequalities we have $-s+a<s_n-s$ which implies $s_n>a$ for $n>N$."
$endgroup$
– md2perpe
yesterday





$begingroup$
Something like: "Let $varepsilon=s-a>0$. Then, by definition of limit of sequence, there exists $N in mathbbN$ such that $|s_n-s|<varepsilon=s-a$ whenever $n>N$. By properties of absolute values and inequalities we have $-s+a<s_n-s$ which implies $s_n>a$ for $n>N$."
$endgroup$
– md2perpe
yesterday













$begingroup$
That would be just fine!
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
yesterday




$begingroup$
That would be just fine!
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
yesterday

















draft saved

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