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$phi in operatornameAut(Bbb Z_50)$ via $phi(11) = 3$ Then $phi(x) = $? For any $x inBbb Z_50$



The Next CEO of Stack OverflowInterpretations of the first cohomology groupIs there a nontrivial semidirect product of two groups isomorphic to their direct product?An exact sequence of unit groupsConstructing a group automorphism making a diagram commuteExistence of an isomorphism $BbbZ_n^times rightarrow BbbZ_phi(n)^+$Question about split short exact sequences of groupsTo complete the proof that $operatornamePSL(2,Bbb F_5)cong A_5$By analyzing the map $G rightarrow$ Aut(G) given by $g rightarrow phi_g$, identify Inn(G) as a quotient of G.How to calculate the generators for the multiplicative group $Bbb Z_4^*$Proving Characteristic Subgroups are Transitive










2












$begingroup$



$phi in operatornameAut(Bbb Z_50)$ via $phi(11) = 3$ Then $phi(x) = $? For any $x in Bbb Z_50$




The answer is $23x$ but I'm not quite sure how to figure that out. Here's what I did:



$phi(11) = 3 Rightarrow$ The function maps $11x rightarrow 3x$

Adding $(11)^-1 = 39$ (mod 50) on both sides gives us
$x rightarrow 42x$



What am I not doing correct?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$
















    2












    $begingroup$



    $phi in operatornameAut(Bbb Z_50)$ via $phi(11) = 3$ Then $phi(x) = $? For any $x in Bbb Z_50$




    The answer is $23x$ but I'm not quite sure how to figure that out. Here's what I did:



    $phi(11) = 3 Rightarrow$ The function maps $11x rightarrow 3x$

    Adding $(11)^-1 = 39$ (mod 50) on both sides gives us
    $x rightarrow 42x$



    What am I not doing correct?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      2












      2








      2


      1



      $begingroup$



      $phi in operatornameAut(Bbb Z_50)$ via $phi(11) = 3$ Then $phi(x) = $? For any $x in Bbb Z_50$




      The answer is $23x$ but I'm not quite sure how to figure that out. Here's what I did:



      $phi(11) = 3 Rightarrow$ The function maps $11x rightarrow 3x$

      Adding $(11)^-1 = 39$ (mod 50) on both sides gives us
      $x rightarrow 42x$



      What am I not doing correct?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$





      $phi in operatornameAut(Bbb Z_50)$ via $phi(11) = 3$ Then $phi(x) = $? For any $x in Bbb Z_50$




      The answer is $23x$ but I'm not quite sure how to figure that out. Here's what I did:



      $phi(11) = 3 Rightarrow$ The function maps $11x rightarrow 3x$

      Adding $(11)^-1 = 39$ (mod 50) on both sides gives us
      $x rightarrow 42x$



      What am I not doing correct?







      group-theory






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Mar 18 at 22:38









      Bernard

      123k741117




      123k741117










      asked Mar 18 at 22:12









      user2965071user2965071

      1887




      1887




















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          1












          $begingroup$

          We have
          $$1equiv -9cdot11pmod50 .$$
          Therefore,
          $$phi(x)equivphi(-9xcdot11)equiv-9xcdotphi(11)equiv-27xequiv23xpmod50 .$$
          In the second equivalence we used that $phi(nx) = phi(x)+cdots+phi(x) = nphi(x)$.




          Adding $30equiv-11pmod50$ to both sides just tells you that
          $$phi(11x)-11equiv3x+39 ,$$
          which is no help at all.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Shouldn't the second equivalence be $-9 phi(x) cdot phi(11)$?
            $endgroup$
            – Robert Shore
            Mar 18 at 22:38






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @RobertShore No, the group structure is given by addition, not multiplication.
            $endgroup$
            – Daniel Robert-Nicoud
            Mar 19 at 6:20


















          1












          $begingroup$

          Any automorphism $phi$ of $Bbb Z / n Bbb Z$ is determined by $phi(1)$ because $phi(n) = n phi(1)$, so it suffices to determine $phi(1)$. As noted by Daniel Robert-Nicoud, $1 equiv -9 cdot 11 pmod50$, so $phi(1) = -9 phi(11) = -9 cdot 3 = -27 ~(mod 50) = 23$ and $phi(n) = n phi(1) = 23n$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













            Your Answer





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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

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            active

            oldest

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            active

            oldest

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            1












            $begingroup$

            We have
            $$1equiv -9cdot11pmod50 .$$
            Therefore,
            $$phi(x)equivphi(-9xcdot11)equiv-9xcdotphi(11)equiv-27xequiv23xpmod50 .$$
            In the second equivalence we used that $phi(nx) = phi(x)+cdots+phi(x) = nphi(x)$.




            Adding $30equiv-11pmod50$ to both sides just tells you that
            $$phi(11x)-11equiv3x+39 ,$$
            which is no help at all.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$












            • $begingroup$
              Shouldn't the second equivalence be $-9 phi(x) cdot phi(11)$?
              $endgroup$
              – Robert Shore
              Mar 18 at 22:38






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @RobertShore No, the group structure is given by addition, not multiplication.
              $endgroup$
              – Daniel Robert-Nicoud
              Mar 19 at 6:20















            1












            $begingroup$

            We have
            $$1equiv -9cdot11pmod50 .$$
            Therefore,
            $$phi(x)equivphi(-9xcdot11)equiv-9xcdotphi(11)equiv-27xequiv23xpmod50 .$$
            In the second equivalence we used that $phi(nx) = phi(x)+cdots+phi(x) = nphi(x)$.




            Adding $30equiv-11pmod50$ to both sides just tells you that
            $$phi(11x)-11equiv3x+39 ,$$
            which is no help at all.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$












            • $begingroup$
              Shouldn't the second equivalence be $-9 phi(x) cdot phi(11)$?
              $endgroup$
              – Robert Shore
              Mar 18 at 22:38






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @RobertShore No, the group structure is given by addition, not multiplication.
              $endgroup$
              – Daniel Robert-Nicoud
              Mar 19 at 6:20













            1












            1








            1





            $begingroup$

            We have
            $$1equiv -9cdot11pmod50 .$$
            Therefore,
            $$phi(x)equivphi(-9xcdot11)equiv-9xcdotphi(11)equiv-27xequiv23xpmod50 .$$
            In the second equivalence we used that $phi(nx) = phi(x)+cdots+phi(x) = nphi(x)$.




            Adding $30equiv-11pmod50$ to both sides just tells you that
            $$phi(11x)-11equiv3x+39 ,$$
            which is no help at all.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            We have
            $$1equiv -9cdot11pmod50 .$$
            Therefore,
            $$phi(x)equivphi(-9xcdot11)equiv-9xcdotphi(11)equiv-27xequiv23xpmod50 .$$
            In the second equivalence we used that $phi(nx) = phi(x)+cdots+phi(x) = nphi(x)$.




            Adding $30equiv-11pmod50$ to both sides just tells you that
            $$phi(11x)-11equiv3x+39 ,$$
            which is no help at all.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Mar 18 at 22:17









            Daniel Robert-NicoudDaniel Robert-Nicoud

            20.5k33797




            20.5k33797











            • $begingroup$
              Shouldn't the second equivalence be $-9 phi(x) cdot phi(11)$?
              $endgroup$
              – Robert Shore
              Mar 18 at 22:38






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @RobertShore No, the group structure is given by addition, not multiplication.
              $endgroup$
              – Daniel Robert-Nicoud
              Mar 19 at 6:20
















            • $begingroup$
              Shouldn't the second equivalence be $-9 phi(x) cdot phi(11)$?
              $endgroup$
              – Robert Shore
              Mar 18 at 22:38






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @RobertShore No, the group structure is given by addition, not multiplication.
              $endgroup$
              – Daniel Robert-Nicoud
              Mar 19 at 6:20















            $begingroup$
            Shouldn't the second equivalence be $-9 phi(x) cdot phi(11)$?
            $endgroup$
            – Robert Shore
            Mar 18 at 22:38




            $begingroup$
            Shouldn't the second equivalence be $-9 phi(x) cdot phi(11)$?
            $endgroup$
            – Robert Shore
            Mar 18 at 22:38




            1




            1




            $begingroup$
            @RobertShore No, the group structure is given by addition, not multiplication.
            $endgroup$
            – Daniel Robert-Nicoud
            Mar 19 at 6:20




            $begingroup$
            @RobertShore No, the group structure is given by addition, not multiplication.
            $endgroup$
            – Daniel Robert-Nicoud
            Mar 19 at 6:20











            1












            $begingroup$

            Any automorphism $phi$ of $Bbb Z / n Bbb Z$ is determined by $phi(1)$ because $phi(n) = n phi(1)$, so it suffices to determine $phi(1)$. As noted by Daniel Robert-Nicoud, $1 equiv -9 cdot 11 pmod50$, so $phi(1) = -9 phi(11) = -9 cdot 3 = -27 ~(mod 50) = 23$ and $phi(n) = n phi(1) = 23n$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$

















              1












              $begingroup$

              Any automorphism $phi$ of $Bbb Z / n Bbb Z$ is determined by $phi(1)$ because $phi(n) = n phi(1)$, so it suffices to determine $phi(1)$. As noted by Daniel Robert-Nicoud, $1 equiv -9 cdot 11 pmod50$, so $phi(1) = -9 phi(11) = -9 cdot 3 = -27 ~(mod 50) = 23$ and $phi(n) = n phi(1) = 23n$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$















                1












                1








                1





                $begingroup$

                Any automorphism $phi$ of $Bbb Z / n Bbb Z$ is determined by $phi(1)$ because $phi(n) = n phi(1)$, so it suffices to determine $phi(1)$. As noted by Daniel Robert-Nicoud, $1 equiv -9 cdot 11 pmod50$, so $phi(1) = -9 phi(11) = -9 cdot 3 = -27 ~(mod 50) = 23$ and $phi(n) = n phi(1) = 23n$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                Any automorphism $phi$ of $Bbb Z / n Bbb Z$ is determined by $phi(1)$ because $phi(n) = n phi(1)$, so it suffices to determine $phi(1)$. As noted by Daniel Robert-Nicoud, $1 equiv -9 cdot 11 pmod50$, so $phi(1) = -9 phi(11) = -9 cdot 3 = -27 ~(mod 50) = 23$ and $phi(n) = n phi(1) = 23n$.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Mar 18 at 22:45









                Robert ShoreRobert Shore

                3,603324




                3,603324



























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