Let $A$ be a finite set. Prove that there exists an $f:n to A$ that is onto $A$ for some $n in omega$ The Next CEO of Stack OverflowProve that f[X] ≼ X iff X is finite.A one-to-one function from a finite set to itself is onto - how to prove by induction?A set is finite, then there exists a bijective map from the set to some natural number?How do I prove that for any set $A$, $|A| < |mathbbN|$ implies that $A$ is finite?Let $n$ and $m$ be two natural numbers. Show that if there is an injection from $n$ into $m$ then $nleq m$.Prove that the set of all finite subsets of $omega$ is denumerableFor given set $A$, show that there exist a set of 'every finite sequence on $A$'.Let f:$A to B$ and $g:B to A$. Prove that…Prove that $p:omega times omega to omega$ defined by $p(i,j)=2^i(2j+1)-1$ is one-to-one and onto.Let $n in omega$. Suppose $f:n to A$ is onto $A$. Prove that $A$ is finite.

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Let $A$ be a finite set. Prove that there exists an $f:n to A$ that is onto $A$ for some $n in omega$



The Next CEO of Stack OverflowProve that f[X] ≼ X iff X is finite.A one-to-one function from a finite set to itself is onto - how to prove by induction?A set is finite, then there exists a bijective map from the set to some natural number?How do I prove that for any set $A$, $|A| < |mathbbN|$ implies that $A$ is finite?Let $n$ and $m$ be two natural numbers. Show that if there is an injection from $n$ into $m$ then $nleq m$.Prove that the set of all finite subsets of $omega$ is denumerableFor given set $A$, show that there exist a set of 'every finite sequence on $A$'.Let f:$A to B$ and $g:B to A$. Prove that…Prove that $p:omega times omega to omega$ defined by $p(i,j)=2^i(2j+1)-1$ is one-to-one and onto.Let $n in omega$. Suppose $f:n to A$ is onto $A$. Prove that $A$ is finite.










1












$begingroup$


Let $A$ be a finite set. Prove that there exists an $f:n to A$ that is onto $A$ for some $n in omega$.



Here by finite we mean: A set $X$ is finite iff there is a one-to-one function $f:X→n$ for some natural number $n$.



I can see that $A$ being finite implies the existence of some one-to-one function $g:Ato N$ for some $Nin omega$. and thus, its inverse function will be $g^-1:Nto A$, with $g$ onto as needed. But is it this simple? Is it always the case that such an inverse exists, or do we need to prove by induction on $n$?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    When you say "$n$" I think you mean "$1, 2, ...., n$." It may also help to define "$omega$" and "natural number" (does it include 0? Is the empty set finite?)
    $endgroup$
    – Michael
    Mar 18 at 22:23











  • $begingroup$
    @Michael it's rather $0,1, dots, n-1$.
    $endgroup$
    – Berci
    Mar 18 at 22:24










  • $begingroup$
    @Berci :?? Is it the case Berci = George W Kush?
    $endgroup$
    – Michael
    Mar 18 at 22:26






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    With this definition, yes, it's that simple..
    $endgroup$
    – Berci
    Mar 18 at 22:26










  • $begingroup$
    In set theory, natural numbers are inductively encoded as $n=0,1, dots, n-1$, starting with $0:=emptyset, 1:=emptyset$, and so on.
    $endgroup$
    – Berci
    Mar 18 at 22:29















1












$begingroup$


Let $A$ be a finite set. Prove that there exists an $f:n to A$ that is onto $A$ for some $n in omega$.



Here by finite we mean: A set $X$ is finite iff there is a one-to-one function $f:X→n$ for some natural number $n$.



I can see that $A$ being finite implies the existence of some one-to-one function $g:Ato N$ for some $Nin omega$. and thus, its inverse function will be $g^-1:Nto A$, with $g$ onto as needed. But is it this simple? Is it always the case that such an inverse exists, or do we need to prove by induction on $n$?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    When you say "$n$" I think you mean "$1, 2, ...., n$." It may also help to define "$omega$" and "natural number" (does it include 0? Is the empty set finite?)
    $endgroup$
    – Michael
    Mar 18 at 22:23











  • $begingroup$
    @Michael it's rather $0,1, dots, n-1$.
    $endgroup$
    – Berci
    Mar 18 at 22:24










  • $begingroup$
    @Berci :?? Is it the case Berci = George W Kush?
    $endgroup$
    – Michael
    Mar 18 at 22:26






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    With this definition, yes, it's that simple..
    $endgroup$
    – Berci
    Mar 18 at 22:26










  • $begingroup$
    In set theory, natural numbers are inductively encoded as $n=0,1, dots, n-1$, starting with $0:=emptyset, 1:=emptyset$, and so on.
    $endgroup$
    – Berci
    Mar 18 at 22:29













1












1








1





$begingroup$


Let $A$ be a finite set. Prove that there exists an $f:n to A$ that is onto $A$ for some $n in omega$.



Here by finite we mean: A set $X$ is finite iff there is a one-to-one function $f:X→n$ for some natural number $n$.



I can see that $A$ being finite implies the existence of some one-to-one function $g:Ato N$ for some $Nin omega$. and thus, its inverse function will be $g^-1:Nto A$, with $g$ onto as needed. But is it this simple? Is it always the case that such an inverse exists, or do we need to prove by induction on $n$?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Let $A$ be a finite set. Prove that there exists an $f:n to A$ that is onto $A$ for some $n in omega$.



Here by finite we mean: A set $X$ is finite iff there is a one-to-one function $f:X→n$ for some natural number $n$.



I can see that $A$ being finite implies the existence of some one-to-one function $g:Ato N$ for some $Nin omega$. and thus, its inverse function will be $g^-1:Nto A$, with $g$ onto as needed. But is it this simple? Is it always the case that such an inverse exists, or do we need to prove by induction on $n$?







elementary-set-theory






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Mar 18 at 22:13









George W KushGeorge W Kush

256




256











  • $begingroup$
    When you say "$n$" I think you mean "$1, 2, ...., n$." It may also help to define "$omega$" and "natural number" (does it include 0? Is the empty set finite?)
    $endgroup$
    – Michael
    Mar 18 at 22:23











  • $begingroup$
    @Michael it's rather $0,1, dots, n-1$.
    $endgroup$
    – Berci
    Mar 18 at 22:24










  • $begingroup$
    @Berci :?? Is it the case Berci = George W Kush?
    $endgroup$
    – Michael
    Mar 18 at 22:26






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    With this definition, yes, it's that simple..
    $endgroup$
    – Berci
    Mar 18 at 22:26










  • $begingroup$
    In set theory, natural numbers are inductively encoded as $n=0,1, dots, n-1$, starting with $0:=emptyset, 1:=emptyset$, and so on.
    $endgroup$
    – Berci
    Mar 18 at 22:29
















  • $begingroup$
    When you say "$n$" I think you mean "$1, 2, ...., n$." It may also help to define "$omega$" and "natural number" (does it include 0? Is the empty set finite?)
    $endgroup$
    – Michael
    Mar 18 at 22:23











  • $begingroup$
    @Michael it's rather $0,1, dots, n-1$.
    $endgroup$
    – Berci
    Mar 18 at 22:24










  • $begingroup$
    @Berci :?? Is it the case Berci = George W Kush?
    $endgroup$
    – Michael
    Mar 18 at 22:26






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    With this definition, yes, it's that simple..
    $endgroup$
    – Berci
    Mar 18 at 22:26










  • $begingroup$
    In set theory, natural numbers are inductively encoded as $n=0,1, dots, n-1$, starting with $0:=emptyset, 1:=emptyset$, and so on.
    $endgroup$
    – Berci
    Mar 18 at 22:29















$begingroup$
When you say "$n$" I think you mean "$1, 2, ...., n$." It may also help to define "$omega$" and "natural number" (does it include 0? Is the empty set finite?)
$endgroup$
– Michael
Mar 18 at 22:23





$begingroup$
When you say "$n$" I think you mean "$1, 2, ...., n$." It may also help to define "$omega$" and "natural number" (does it include 0? Is the empty set finite?)
$endgroup$
– Michael
Mar 18 at 22:23













$begingroup$
@Michael it's rather $0,1, dots, n-1$.
$endgroup$
– Berci
Mar 18 at 22:24




$begingroup$
@Michael it's rather $0,1, dots, n-1$.
$endgroup$
– Berci
Mar 18 at 22:24












$begingroup$
@Berci :?? Is it the case Berci = George W Kush?
$endgroup$
– Michael
Mar 18 at 22:26




$begingroup$
@Berci :?? Is it the case Berci = George W Kush?
$endgroup$
– Michael
Mar 18 at 22:26




1




1




$begingroup$
With this definition, yes, it's that simple..
$endgroup$
– Berci
Mar 18 at 22:26




$begingroup$
With this definition, yes, it's that simple..
$endgroup$
– Berci
Mar 18 at 22:26












$begingroup$
In set theory, natural numbers are inductively encoded as $n=0,1, dots, n-1$, starting with $0:=emptyset, 1:=emptyset$, and so on.
$endgroup$
– Berci
Mar 18 at 22:29




$begingroup$
In set theory, natural numbers are inductively encoded as $n=0,1, dots, n-1$, starting with $0:=emptyset, 1:=emptyset$, and so on.
$endgroup$
– Berci
Mar 18 at 22:29










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