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$a,b in mathbb Z$ we have that $a+ bphi in mathbb Z[phi]^* iff a^2 +ab-b^2 = pm 1$



The Next CEO of Stack OverflowShow that for $forall ainmathbbH, exists b inmathbbH: ab =ba = 1$.Describe all ring homomorphisms from $mathbb Ztimesmathbb Z$ to $mathbb Ztimesmathbb Z$Fibonacci numbers and golden ratio: $Phi = lim sqrt[n]F_n$Literature to the ring $mathbbZ[phi]$ where $phi=frac1+sqrt52$ is the golden ratioCan I use the equality $phi^2=phi+1$ without proving it?Connection with golden ratio?There exists an injective ring homomorphism $barphi : Q to F $ such that $ j circ phi = barphi circ j$.Evaluating $int_0^logphi}frac{u^2(e^2u+1)e^2u-1du$, when $phi$ is the golden ratioGolden-Ratio Distribution - analogous to Normal distributionOn $3+sqrt11+sqrt11+sqrt11+sqrt11+dots=phi^4$ and friends










4












$begingroup$


I am thinking about the following question:




Let $phi= frac1+ sqrt 52$ be the golden ratio, and define:
$$ mathbb Z [phi]=a+ bphi : quad a, b in mathbb Z $$
We wish to prove that for $a,b in mathbb Z$ we have that $a+ bphi in mathbb Z[phi]^* iff a^2 +ab-b^2 = pm 1$.
Note: the star indicates the multiplicative group of our ring.




This exercise comes with a hint: let $barphi=frac1-sqrt 52$, You may use without proof that
$(a + b phi)(c + dphi) = 1$ if and only if $(a + bbarphi)(c + dbarphi) = 1$.



I have trouble interpreting how the hint plays out.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$







  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Use the norm map $N(z)=zoverlinez=a^2+ab-b^2$.
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Mar 18 at 20:02






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The hint is used to prove that the norm of a unit is a unit.
    $endgroup$
    – jgon
    Mar 18 at 20:04






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The hint is actually a quite interesting equation.
    $endgroup$
    – Leaning
    Mar 18 at 20:08










  • $begingroup$
    What is the source and background of the problem?
    $endgroup$
    – Carl Mummert
    Mar 19 at 12:32










  • $begingroup$
    Algebra Interactive! - by Arjeh Cohen.
    $endgroup$
    – Wesley Strik
    Mar 19 at 13:37















4












$begingroup$


I am thinking about the following question:




Let $phi= frac1+ sqrt 52$ be the golden ratio, and define:
$$ mathbb Z [phi]=a+ bphi : quad a, b in mathbb Z $$
We wish to prove that for $a,b in mathbb Z$ we have that $a+ bphi in mathbb Z[phi]^* iff a^2 +ab-b^2 = pm 1$.
Note: the star indicates the multiplicative group of our ring.




This exercise comes with a hint: let $barphi=frac1-sqrt 52$, You may use without proof that
$(a + b phi)(c + dphi) = 1$ if and only if $(a + bbarphi)(c + dbarphi) = 1$.



I have trouble interpreting how the hint plays out.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$







  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Use the norm map $N(z)=zoverlinez=a^2+ab-b^2$.
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Mar 18 at 20:02






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The hint is used to prove that the norm of a unit is a unit.
    $endgroup$
    – jgon
    Mar 18 at 20:04






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The hint is actually a quite interesting equation.
    $endgroup$
    – Leaning
    Mar 18 at 20:08










  • $begingroup$
    What is the source and background of the problem?
    $endgroup$
    – Carl Mummert
    Mar 19 at 12:32










  • $begingroup$
    Algebra Interactive! - by Arjeh Cohen.
    $endgroup$
    – Wesley Strik
    Mar 19 at 13:37













4












4








4


1



$begingroup$


I am thinking about the following question:




Let $phi= frac1+ sqrt 52$ be the golden ratio, and define:
$$ mathbb Z [phi]=a+ bphi : quad a, b in mathbb Z $$
We wish to prove that for $a,b in mathbb Z$ we have that $a+ bphi in mathbb Z[phi]^* iff a^2 +ab-b^2 = pm 1$.
Note: the star indicates the multiplicative group of our ring.




This exercise comes with a hint: let $barphi=frac1-sqrt 52$, You may use without proof that
$(a + b phi)(c + dphi) = 1$ if and only if $(a + bbarphi)(c + dbarphi) = 1$.



I have trouble interpreting how the hint plays out.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I am thinking about the following question:




Let $phi= frac1+ sqrt 52$ be the golden ratio, and define:
$$ mathbb Z [phi]=a+ bphi : quad a, b in mathbb Z $$
We wish to prove that for $a,b in mathbb Z$ we have that $a+ bphi in mathbb Z[phi]^* iff a^2 +ab-b^2 = pm 1$.
Note: the star indicates the multiplicative group of our ring.




This exercise comes with a hint: let $barphi=frac1-sqrt 52$, You may use without proof that
$(a + b phi)(c + dphi) = 1$ if and only if $(a + bbarphi)(c + dbarphi) = 1$.



I have trouble interpreting how the hint plays out.







abstract-algebra group-theory ring-theory golden-ratio






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Mar 18 at 19:59









Wesley StrikWesley Strik

2,194424




2,194424







  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Use the norm map $N(z)=zoverlinez=a^2+ab-b^2$.
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Mar 18 at 20:02






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The hint is used to prove that the norm of a unit is a unit.
    $endgroup$
    – jgon
    Mar 18 at 20:04






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The hint is actually a quite interesting equation.
    $endgroup$
    – Leaning
    Mar 18 at 20:08










  • $begingroup$
    What is the source and background of the problem?
    $endgroup$
    – Carl Mummert
    Mar 19 at 12:32










  • $begingroup$
    Algebra Interactive! - by Arjeh Cohen.
    $endgroup$
    – Wesley Strik
    Mar 19 at 13:37












  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Use the norm map $N(z)=zoverlinez=a^2+ab-b^2$.
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Mar 18 at 20:02






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The hint is used to prove that the norm of a unit is a unit.
    $endgroup$
    – jgon
    Mar 18 at 20:04






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The hint is actually a quite interesting equation.
    $endgroup$
    – Leaning
    Mar 18 at 20:08










  • $begingroup$
    What is the source and background of the problem?
    $endgroup$
    – Carl Mummert
    Mar 19 at 12:32










  • $begingroup$
    Algebra Interactive! - by Arjeh Cohen.
    $endgroup$
    – Wesley Strik
    Mar 19 at 13:37







3




3




$begingroup$
Use the norm map $N(z)=zoverlinez=a^2+ab-b^2$.
$endgroup$
– Dietrich Burde
Mar 18 at 20:02




$begingroup$
Use the norm map $N(z)=zoverlinez=a^2+ab-b^2$.
$endgroup$
– Dietrich Burde
Mar 18 at 20:02




1




1




$begingroup$
The hint is used to prove that the norm of a unit is a unit.
$endgroup$
– jgon
Mar 18 at 20:04




$begingroup$
The hint is used to prove that the norm of a unit is a unit.
$endgroup$
– jgon
Mar 18 at 20:04




1




1




$begingroup$
The hint is actually a quite interesting equation.
$endgroup$
– Leaning
Mar 18 at 20:08




$begingroup$
The hint is actually a quite interesting equation.
$endgroup$
– Leaning
Mar 18 at 20:08












$begingroup$
What is the source and background of the problem?
$endgroup$
– Carl Mummert
Mar 19 at 12:32




$begingroup$
What is the source and background of the problem?
$endgroup$
– Carl Mummert
Mar 19 at 12:32












$begingroup$
Algebra Interactive! - by Arjeh Cohen.
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Mar 19 at 13:37




$begingroup$
Algebra Interactive! - by Arjeh Cohen.
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Mar 19 at 13:37










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

For $z = a + b phi$, we write $overlinez = a + b overlinephi$.



Define the function $N: mathbbZ[phi] rightarrow mathbbZ$ by $N(z)=z overlinez$. It's easy to check that $N(a+b phi) = a^2 +ab -b^2 in mathbbZ.$



Proposition: $z in mathbbZ[phi]$ is a unit if, and only if, $N(z) in mathbbZ$ is a unit.



Proof:



($Rightarrow$) Suppose $(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=1$. By the hint we have $(a+boverlinephi)(c+doverlinephi)=1$, and so $$N(a+bphi)N(c+dphi) = (a+bphi)(a+boverlinephi)(c+dphi)(c+doverlinephi) = 1.$$ Since $N(a+bphi)$, $N(c+dphi) in mathbbZ$, we must have either $$N(a+bphi) = N(c+dphi) = 1 textor N(a+bphi) = N(c+dphi) = -1.$$



($Leftarrow$) Suppose that $N(a+bphi) = (a+bphi)(a+boverlinephi) = (-1)^k, kin 0,1 $.



We want to find $c,d in mathbbZ$ such that $c+dphi = a+boverlinephi$. So write $$ c+dphi = c+ frac12 d + fracsqrt52 equiv a + frac12b -fracsqrt52 = a+boverlinephi,$$ and equate coefficients in $mathbbZ + sqrt5mathbbZ$ to get $c = a+b$ and $d=-b$. That is, we have $$(a+bphi)((-1)^k (a+b) + (-1)^k+1 bphi) = 1.$$



$hspace18cm square$



Therefore, given $a+bphi in mathbbZ[phi]$, $$a+bphi in mathbbZ[phi]^* Leftrightarrow a^2 +ab -b^2 = N(a+bphi ) = pm 1.$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    This is a good answer, I still worry about uniqueness of the proposed inverse for $(a +b phi)$, it's dependent on $(-1)^k$, so there are two possible inverses, why isn't this problematic?
    $endgroup$
    – Wesley Strik
    Mar 19 at 13:38










  • $begingroup$
    I mean $(-1)^k (a+b) + (-1)^k+1 bphi $
    $endgroup$
    – Wesley Strik
    Mar 19 at 13:39







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    You give me some $a + bphi in mathbbZ[phi]$ and tell me that $N(a+bphi) in 1, -1 $, which is the same thing as saying that $(a +bphi)(a+ boverlinephi) in 1, -1 $. I know that $a +boverlinephi in mathbbZ[phi]$ and to find the inverse of $a +bphi$ I just need to work out what $N(a+bphi)$ is. If $N(a+ bphi) = 1$, then the unique inverse of $a+ bphi$ is $a +boverlinephi = (a+b) - bphi$, and if $N(a+ bphi) = -1$, then the unique inverse of $a+ bphi$ is $-a -boverlinephi = -(a+b) + bphi$.
    $endgroup$
    – Joseph Martin
    Mar 19 at 14:02











  • $begingroup$
    thanks, that was bothering me :)
    $endgroup$
    – Wesley Strik
    Mar 20 at 5:49


















1












$begingroup$

I do not see how the hint is of any use in answering the question. There are many different approaches, depending how much theory you are familiar with. I'll give a very basic approach, assuming very little theory.



Note that for $a,b,c,dinBbbZ$ we have $a+bphi=c+dphi$ if and only if $a=c$ and $b=d$. Also note that $phi+barphi=1$ and $phibarphi=-1$, meaning that both are roots of $X^2-X-1$. This shows that
$$BbbZ[phi] longrightarrow BbbZ[phi]: a+bphi longmapsto a+bbarphi,$$
is a ring automorphism of $BbbZ[phi]$, from which the hint follows. I do not see how the hint is relevant though.



We also see that for every $xinBbbZ[phi]$ there exist unique $a,b,a',b'inBbbZ$ such that
$$x=a+bphi=a'+b'barphi.$$
Now if $a,binBbbZ$ are such that $a^2+ab-b^2=pm1$ then
$$(a+bphi)(a+bbarphi)=a^2+ab(phi+barphi)+b^2phibarphi=a^2+ab-b^2=pm1,$$
which shows that $a+bphiinBbbZ[phi]^times$ with $(a+bphi)^-1=pm(a+bbarphi)$.



Conversely, if $a,binBbbZ$ are such that $a+bphiinBbbZ[phi]^times$ then there exist unique $c,dinBbbZ[phi]$ such that
$$(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=1.$$
Then $gcd(a,b)=1$, and there exist unique $c',d'inBbbZ$ such that
begineqnarray*
1&=&(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=(a+bphi)(c'+d'barphi)
=ac'+ad'barphi+bc'phi+bdphibarphi.
endeqnarray*

Because $phibarphi=-1$ and $phi+barphi=1$ it follows that
$$1=ac'+ad'barphi+bc'phi+bd'phibarphi=(ac'+ad'-bd')+(bc'-ad')phi,$$
which implies that $bc'=ad'$. Because $gcd(a,b)=1$ this shows that $c'=pm a$ and $d'=pm b$, where the two signs agree. Hence
$$1=(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=pm(a+bphi)(a+bbarphi)=pm(a^2+ab-b^2).$$
This proves that for all $a,binBbbZ$ we have
$$a+bphiinBbbZ[phi]^timesqquadiffqquad a^2+ab-b^2=pm1.$$






share|cite|improve this answer









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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    2












    $begingroup$

    For $z = a + b phi$, we write $overlinez = a + b overlinephi$.



    Define the function $N: mathbbZ[phi] rightarrow mathbbZ$ by $N(z)=z overlinez$. It's easy to check that $N(a+b phi) = a^2 +ab -b^2 in mathbbZ.$



    Proposition: $z in mathbbZ[phi]$ is a unit if, and only if, $N(z) in mathbbZ$ is a unit.



    Proof:



    ($Rightarrow$) Suppose $(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=1$. By the hint we have $(a+boverlinephi)(c+doverlinephi)=1$, and so $$N(a+bphi)N(c+dphi) = (a+bphi)(a+boverlinephi)(c+dphi)(c+doverlinephi) = 1.$$ Since $N(a+bphi)$, $N(c+dphi) in mathbbZ$, we must have either $$N(a+bphi) = N(c+dphi) = 1 textor N(a+bphi) = N(c+dphi) = -1.$$



    ($Leftarrow$) Suppose that $N(a+bphi) = (a+bphi)(a+boverlinephi) = (-1)^k, kin 0,1 $.



    We want to find $c,d in mathbbZ$ such that $c+dphi = a+boverlinephi$. So write $$ c+dphi = c+ frac12 d + fracsqrt52 equiv a + frac12b -fracsqrt52 = a+boverlinephi,$$ and equate coefficients in $mathbbZ + sqrt5mathbbZ$ to get $c = a+b$ and $d=-b$. That is, we have $$(a+bphi)((-1)^k (a+b) + (-1)^k+1 bphi) = 1.$$



    $hspace18cm square$



    Therefore, given $a+bphi in mathbbZ[phi]$, $$a+bphi in mathbbZ[phi]^* Leftrightarrow a^2 +ab -b^2 = N(a+bphi ) = pm 1.$$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      This is a good answer, I still worry about uniqueness of the proposed inverse for $(a +b phi)$, it's dependent on $(-1)^k$, so there are two possible inverses, why isn't this problematic?
      $endgroup$
      – Wesley Strik
      Mar 19 at 13:38










    • $begingroup$
      I mean $(-1)^k (a+b) + (-1)^k+1 bphi $
      $endgroup$
      – Wesley Strik
      Mar 19 at 13:39







    • 1




      $begingroup$
      You give me some $a + bphi in mathbbZ[phi]$ and tell me that $N(a+bphi) in 1, -1 $, which is the same thing as saying that $(a +bphi)(a+ boverlinephi) in 1, -1 $. I know that $a +boverlinephi in mathbbZ[phi]$ and to find the inverse of $a +bphi$ I just need to work out what $N(a+bphi)$ is. If $N(a+ bphi) = 1$, then the unique inverse of $a+ bphi$ is $a +boverlinephi = (a+b) - bphi$, and if $N(a+ bphi) = -1$, then the unique inverse of $a+ bphi$ is $-a -boverlinephi = -(a+b) + bphi$.
      $endgroup$
      – Joseph Martin
      Mar 19 at 14:02











    • $begingroup$
      thanks, that was bothering me :)
      $endgroup$
      – Wesley Strik
      Mar 20 at 5:49















    2












    $begingroup$

    For $z = a + b phi$, we write $overlinez = a + b overlinephi$.



    Define the function $N: mathbbZ[phi] rightarrow mathbbZ$ by $N(z)=z overlinez$. It's easy to check that $N(a+b phi) = a^2 +ab -b^2 in mathbbZ.$



    Proposition: $z in mathbbZ[phi]$ is a unit if, and only if, $N(z) in mathbbZ$ is a unit.



    Proof:



    ($Rightarrow$) Suppose $(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=1$. By the hint we have $(a+boverlinephi)(c+doverlinephi)=1$, and so $$N(a+bphi)N(c+dphi) = (a+bphi)(a+boverlinephi)(c+dphi)(c+doverlinephi) = 1.$$ Since $N(a+bphi)$, $N(c+dphi) in mathbbZ$, we must have either $$N(a+bphi) = N(c+dphi) = 1 textor N(a+bphi) = N(c+dphi) = -1.$$



    ($Leftarrow$) Suppose that $N(a+bphi) = (a+bphi)(a+boverlinephi) = (-1)^k, kin 0,1 $.



    We want to find $c,d in mathbbZ$ such that $c+dphi = a+boverlinephi$. So write $$ c+dphi = c+ frac12 d + fracsqrt52 equiv a + frac12b -fracsqrt52 = a+boverlinephi,$$ and equate coefficients in $mathbbZ + sqrt5mathbbZ$ to get $c = a+b$ and $d=-b$. That is, we have $$(a+bphi)((-1)^k (a+b) + (-1)^k+1 bphi) = 1.$$



    $hspace18cm square$



    Therefore, given $a+bphi in mathbbZ[phi]$, $$a+bphi in mathbbZ[phi]^* Leftrightarrow a^2 +ab -b^2 = N(a+bphi ) = pm 1.$$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      This is a good answer, I still worry about uniqueness of the proposed inverse for $(a +b phi)$, it's dependent on $(-1)^k$, so there are two possible inverses, why isn't this problematic?
      $endgroup$
      – Wesley Strik
      Mar 19 at 13:38










    • $begingroup$
      I mean $(-1)^k (a+b) + (-1)^k+1 bphi $
      $endgroup$
      – Wesley Strik
      Mar 19 at 13:39







    • 1




      $begingroup$
      You give me some $a + bphi in mathbbZ[phi]$ and tell me that $N(a+bphi) in 1, -1 $, which is the same thing as saying that $(a +bphi)(a+ boverlinephi) in 1, -1 $. I know that $a +boverlinephi in mathbbZ[phi]$ and to find the inverse of $a +bphi$ I just need to work out what $N(a+bphi)$ is. If $N(a+ bphi) = 1$, then the unique inverse of $a+ bphi$ is $a +boverlinephi = (a+b) - bphi$, and if $N(a+ bphi) = -1$, then the unique inverse of $a+ bphi$ is $-a -boverlinephi = -(a+b) + bphi$.
      $endgroup$
      – Joseph Martin
      Mar 19 at 14:02











    • $begingroup$
      thanks, that was bothering me :)
      $endgroup$
      – Wesley Strik
      Mar 20 at 5:49













    2












    2








    2





    $begingroup$

    For $z = a + b phi$, we write $overlinez = a + b overlinephi$.



    Define the function $N: mathbbZ[phi] rightarrow mathbbZ$ by $N(z)=z overlinez$. It's easy to check that $N(a+b phi) = a^2 +ab -b^2 in mathbbZ.$



    Proposition: $z in mathbbZ[phi]$ is a unit if, and only if, $N(z) in mathbbZ$ is a unit.



    Proof:



    ($Rightarrow$) Suppose $(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=1$. By the hint we have $(a+boverlinephi)(c+doverlinephi)=1$, and so $$N(a+bphi)N(c+dphi) = (a+bphi)(a+boverlinephi)(c+dphi)(c+doverlinephi) = 1.$$ Since $N(a+bphi)$, $N(c+dphi) in mathbbZ$, we must have either $$N(a+bphi) = N(c+dphi) = 1 textor N(a+bphi) = N(c+dphi) = -1.$$



    ($Leftarrow$) Suppose that $N(a+bphi) = (a+bphi)(a+boverlinephi) = (-1)^k, kin 0,1 $.



    We want to find $c,d in mathbbZ$ such that $c+dphi = a+boverlinephi$. So write $$ c+dphi = c+ frac12 d + fracsqrt52 equiv a + frac12b -fracsqrt52 = a+boverlinephi,$$ and equate coefficients in $mathbbZ + sqrt5mathbbZ$ to get $c = a+b$ and $d=-b$. That is, we have $$(a+bphi)((-1)^k (a+b) + (-1)^k+1 bphi) = 1.$$



    $hspace18cm square$



    Therefore, given $a+bphi in mathbbZ[phi]$, $$a+bphi in mathbbZ[phi]^* Leftrightarrow a^2 +ab -b^2 = N(a+bphi ) = pm 1.$$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$



    For $z = a + b phi$, we write $overlinez = a + b overlinephi$.



    Define the function $N: mathbbZ[phi] rightarrow mathbbZ$ by $N(z)=z overlinez$. It's easy to check that $N(a+b phi) = a^2 +ab -b^2 in mathbbZ.$



    Proposition: $z in mathbbZ[phi]$ is a unit if, and only if, $N(z) in mathbbZ$ is a unit.



    Proof:



    ($Rightarrow$) Suppose $(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=1$. By the hint we have $(a+boverlinephi)(c+doverlinephi)=1$, and so $$N(a+bphi)N(c+dphi) = (a+bphi)(a+boverlinephi)(c+dphi)(c+doverlinephi) = 1.$$ Since $N(a+bphi)$, $N(c+dphi) in mathbbZ$, we must have either $$N(a+bphi) = N(c+dphi) = 1 textor N(a+bphi) = N(c+dphi) = -1.$$



    ($Leftarrow$) Suppose that $N(a+bphi) = (a+bphi)(a+boverlinephi) = (-1)^k, kin 0,1 $.



    We want to find $c,d in mathbbZ$ such that $c+dphi = a+boverlinephi$. So write $$ c+dphi = c+ frac12 d + fracsqrt52 equiv a + frac12b -fracsqrt52 = a+boverlinephi,$$ and equate coefficients in $mathbbZ + sqrt5mathbbZ$ to get $c = a+b$ and $d=-b$. That is, we have $$(a+bphi)((-1)^k (a+b) + (-1)^k+1 bphi) = 1.$$



    $hspace18cm square$



    Therefore, given $a+bphi in mathbbZ[phi]$, $$a+bphi in mathbbZ[phi]^* Leftrightarrow a^2 +ab -b^2 = N(a+bphi ) = pm 1.$$







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Mar 19 at 13:47

























    answered Mar 18 at 21:59









    Joseph MartinJoseph Martin

    692317




    692317











    • $begingroup$
      This is a good answer, I still worry about uniqueness of the proposed inverse for $(a +b phi)$, it's dependent on $(-1)^k$, so there are two possible inverses, why isn't this problematic?
      $endgroup$
      – Wesley Strik
      Mar 19 at 13:38










    • $begingroup$
      I mean $(-1)^k (a+b) + (-1)^k+1 bphi $
      $endgroup$
      – Wesley Strik
      Mar 19 at 13:39







    • 1




      $begingroup$
      You give me some $a + bphi in mathbbZ[phi]$ and tell me that $N(a+bphi) in 1, -1 $, which is the same thing as saying that $(a +bphi)(a+ boverlinephi) in 1, -1 $. I know that $a +boverlinephi in mathbbZ[phi]$ and to find the inverse of $a +bphi$ I just need to work out what $N(a+bphi)$ is. If $N(a+ bphi) = 1$, then the unique inverse of $a+ bphi$ is $a +boverlinephi = (a+b) - bphi$, and if $N(a+ bphi) = -1$, then the unique inverse of $a+ bphi$ is $-a -boverlinephi = -(a+b) + bphi$.
      $endgroup$
      – Joseph Martin
      Mar 19 at 14:02











    • $begingroup$
      thanks, that was bothering me :)
      $endgroup$
      – Wesley Strik
      Mar 20 at 5:49
















    • $begingroup$
      This is a good answer, I still worry about uniqueness of the proposed inverse for $(a +b phi)$, it's dependent on $(-1)^k$, so there are two possible inverses, why isn't this problematic?
      $endgroup$
      – Wesley Strik
      Mar 19 at 13:38










    • $begingroup$
      I mean $(-1)^k (a+b) + (-1)^k+1 bphi $
      $endgroup$
      – Wesley Strik
      Mar 19 at 13:39







    • 1




      $begingroup$
      You give me some $a + bphi in mathbbZ[phi]$ and tell me that $N(a+bphi) in 1, -1 $, which is the same thing as saying that $(a +bphi)(a+ boverlinephi) in 1, -1 $. I know that $a +boverlinephi in mathbbZ[phi]$ and to find the inverse of $a +bphi$ I just need to work out what $N(a+bphi)$ is. If $N(a+ bphi) = 1$, then the unique inverse of $a+ bphi$ is $a +boverlinephi = (a+b) - bphi$, and if $N(a+ bphi) = -1$, then the unique inverse of $a+ bphi$ is $-a -boverlinephi = -(a+b) + bphi$.
      $endgroup$
      – Joseph Martin
      Mar 19 at 14:02











    • $begingroup$
      thanks, that was bothering me :)
      $endgroup$
      – Wesley Strik
      Mar 20 at 5:49















    $begingroup$
    This is a good answer, I still worry about uniqueness of the proposed inverse for $(a +b phi)$, it's dependent on $(-1)^k$, so there are two possible inverses, why isn't this problematic?
    $endgroup$
    – Wesley Strik
    Mar 19 at 13:38




    $begingroup$
    This is a good answer, I still worry about uniqueness of the proposed inverse for $(a +b phi)$, it's dependent on $(-1)^k$, so there are two possible inverses, why isn't this problematic?
    $endgroup$
    – Wesley Strik
    Mar 19 at 13:38












    $begingroup$
    I mean $(-1)^k (a+b) + (-1)^k+1 bphi $
    $endgroup$
    – Wesley Strik
    Mar 19 at 13:39





    $begingroup$
    I mean $(-1)^k (a+b) + (-1)^k+1 bphi $
    $endgroup$
    – Wesley Strik
    Mar 19 at 13:39





    1




    1




    $begingroup$
    You give me some $a + bphi in mathbbZ[phi]$ and tell me that $N(a+bphi) in 1, -1 $, which is the same thing as saying that $(a +bphi)(a+ boverlinephi) in 1, -1 $. I know that $a +boverlinephi in mathbbZ[phi]$ and to find the inverse of $a +bphi$ I just need to work out what $N(a+bphi)$ is. If $N(a+ bphi) = 1$, then the unique inverse of $a+ bphi$ is $a +boverlinephi = (a+b) - bphi$, and if $N(a+ bphi) = -1$, then the unique inverse of $a+ bphi$ is $-a -boverlinephi = -(a+b) + bphi$.
    $endgroup$
    – Joseph Martin
    Mar 19 at 14:02





    $begingroup$
    You give me some $a + bphi in mathbbZ[phi]$ and tell me that $N(a+bphi) in 1, -1 $, which is the same thing as saying that $(a +bphi)(a+ boverlinephi) in 1, -1 $. I know that $a +boverlinephi in mathbbZ[phi]$ and to find the inverse of $a +bphi$ I just need to work out what $N(a+bphi)$ is. If $N(a+ bphi) = 1$, then the unique inverse of $a+ bphi$ is $a +boverlinephi = (a+b) - bphi$, and if $N(a+ bphi) = -1$, then the unique inverse of $a+ bphi$ is $-a -boverlinephi = -(a+b) + bphi$.
    $endgroup$
    – Joseph Martin
    Mar 19 at 14:02













    $begingroup$
    thanks, that was bothering me :)
    $endgroup$
    – Wesley Strik
    Mar 20 at 5:49




    $begingroup$
    thanks, that was bothering me :)
    $endgroup$
    – Wesley Strik
    Mar 20 at 5:49











    1












    $begingroup$

    I do not see how the hint is of any use in answering the question. There are many different approaches, depending how much theory you are familiar with. I'll give a very basic approach, assuming very little theory.



    Note that for $a,b,c,dinBbbZ$ we have $a+bphi=c+dphi$ if and only if $a=c$ and $b=d$. Also note that $phi+barphi=1$ and $phibarphi=-1$, meaning that both are roots of $X^2-X-1$. This shows that
    $$BbbZ[phi] longrightarrow BbbZ[phi]: a+bphi longmapsto a+bbarphi,$$
    is a ring automorphism of $BbbZ[phi]$, from which the hint follows. I do not see how the hint is relevant though.



    We also see that for every $xinBbbZ[phi]$ there exist unique $a,b,a',b'inBbbZ$ such that
    $$x=a+bphi=a'+b'barphi.$$
    Now if $a,binBbbZ$ are such that $a^2+ab-b^2=pm1$ then
    $$(a+bphi)(a+bbarphi)=a^2+ab(phi+barphi)+b^2phibarphi=a^2+ab-b^2=pm1,$$
    which shows that $a+bphiinBbbZ[phi]^times$ with $(a+bphi)^-1=pm(a+bbarphi)$.



    Conversely, if $a,binBbbZ$ are such that $a+bphiinBbbZ[phi]^times$ then there exist unique $c,dinBbbZ[phi]$ such that
    $$(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=1.$$
    Then $gcd(a,b)=1$, and there exist unique $c',d'inBbbZ$ such that
    begineqnarray*
    1&=&(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=(a+bphi)(c'+d'barphi)
    =ac'+ad'barphi+bc'phi+bdphibarphi.
    endeqnarray*

    Because $phibarphi=-1$ and $phi+barphi=1$ it follows that
    $$1=ac'+ad'barphi+bc'phi+bd'phibarphi=(ac'+ad'-bd')+(bc'-ad')phi,$$
    which implies that $bc'=ad'$. Because $gcd(a,b)=1$ this shows that $c'=pm a$ and $d'=pm b$, where the two signs agree. Hence
    $$1=(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=pm(a+bphi)(a+bbarphi)=pm(a^2+ab-b^2).$$
    This proves that for all $a,binBbbZ$ we have
    $$a+bphiinBbbZ[phi]^timesqquadiffqquad a^2+ab-b^2=pm1.$$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$

















      1












      $begingroup$

      I do not see how the hint is of any use in answering the question. There are many different approaches, depending how much theory you are familiar with. I'll give a very basic approach, assuming very little theory.



      Note that for $a,b,c,dinBbbZ$ we have $a+bphi=c+dphi$ if and only if $a=c$ and $b=d$. Also note that $phi+barphi=1$ and $phibarphi=-1$, meaning that both are roots of $X^2-X-1$. This shows that
      $$BbbZ[phi] longrightarrow BbbZ[phi]: a+bphi longmapsto a+bbarphi,$$
      is a ring automorphism of $BbbZ[phi]$, from which the hint follows. I do not see how the hint is relevant though.



      We also see that for every $xinBbbZ[phi]$ there exist unique $a,b,a',b'inBbbZ$ such that
      $$x=a+bphi=a'+b'barphi.$$
      Now if $a,binBbbZ$ are such that $a^2+ab-b^2=pm1$ then
      $$(a+bphi)(a+bbarphi)=a^2+ab(phi+barphi)+b^2phibarphi=a^2+ab-b^2=pm1,$$
      which shows that $a+bphiinBbbZ[phi]^times$ with $(a+bphi)^-1=pm(a+bbarphi)$.



      Conversely, if $a,binBbbZ$ are such that $a+bphiinBbbZ[phi]^times$ then there exist unique $c,dinBbbZ[phi]$ such that
      $$(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=1.$$
      Then $gcd(a,b)=1$, and there exist unique $c',d'inBbbZ$ such that
      begineqnarray*
      1&=&(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=(a+bphi)(c'+d'barphi)
      =ac'+ad'barphi+bc'phi+bdphibarphi.
      endeqnarray*

      Because $phibarphi=-1$ and $phi+barphi=1$ it follows that
      $$1=ac'+ad'barphi+bc'phi+bd'phibarphi=(ac'+ad'-bd')+(bc'-ad')phi,$$
      which implies that $bc'=ad'$. Because $gcd(a,b)=1$ this shows that $c'=pm a$ and $d'=pm b$, where the two signs agree. Hence
      $$1=(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=pm(a+bphi)(a+bbarphi)=pm(a^2+ab-b^2).$$
      This proves that for all $a,binBbbZ$ we have
      $$a+bphiinBbbZ[phi]^timesqquadiffqquad a^2+ab-b^2=pm1.$$






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        I do not see how the hint is of any use in answering the question. There are many different approaches, depending how much theory you are familiar with. I'll give a very basic approach, assuming very little theory.



        Note that for $a,b,c,dinBbbZ$ we have $a+bphi=c+dphi$ if and only if $a=c$ and $b=d$. Also note that $phi+barphi=1$ and $phibarphi=-1$, meaning that both are roots of $X^2-X-1$. This shows that
        $$BbbZ[phi] longrightarrow BbbZ[phi]: a+bphi longmapsto a+bbarphi,$$
        is a ring automorphism of $BbbZ[phi]$, from which the hint follows. I do not see how the hint is relevant though.



        We also see that for every $xinBbbZ[phi]$ there exist unique $a,b,a',b'inBbbZ$ such that
        $$x=a+bphi=a'+b'barphi.$$
        Now if $a,binBbbZ$ are such that $a^2+ab-b^2=pm1$ then
        $$(a+bphi)(a+bbarphi)=a^2+ab(phi+barphi)+b^2phibarphi=a^2+ab-b^2=pm1,$$
        which shows that $a+bphiinBbbZ[phi]^times$ with $(a+bphi)^-1=pm(a+bbarphi)$.



        Conversely, if $a,binBbbZ$ are such that $a+bphiinBbbZ[phi]^times$ then there exist unique $c,dinBbbZ[phi]$ such that
        $$(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=1.$$
        Then $gcd(a,b)=1$, and there exist unique $c',d'inBbbZ$ such that
        begineqnarray*
        1&=&(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=(a+bphi)(c'+d'barphi)
        =ac'+ad'barphi+bc'phi+bdphibarphi.
        endeqnarray*

        Because $phibarphi=-1$ and $phi+barphi=1$ it follows that
        $$1=ac'+ad'barphi+bc'phi+bd'phibarphi=(ac'+ad'-bd')+(bc'-ad')phi,$$
        which implies that $bc'=ad'$. Because $gcd(a,b)=1$ this shows that $c'=pm a$ and $d'=pm b$, where the two signs agree. Hence
        $$1=(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=pm(a+bphi)(a+bbarphi)=pm(a^2+ab-b^2).$$
        This proves that for all $a,binBbbZ$ we have
        $$a+bphiinBbbZ[phi]^timesqquadiffqquad a^2+ab-b^2=pm1.$$






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        I do not see how the hint is of any use in answering the question. There are many different approaches, depending how much theory you are familiar with. I'll give a very basic approach, assuming very little theory.



        Note that for $a,b,c,dinBbbZ$ we have $a+bphi=c+dphi$ if and only if $a=c$ and $b=d$. Also note that $phi+barphi=1$ and $phibarphi=-1$, meaning that both are roots of $X^2-X-1$. This shows that
        $$BbbZ[phi] longrightarrow BbbZ[phi]: a+bphi longmapsto a+bbarphi,$$
        is a ring automorphism of $BbbZ[phi]$, from which the hint follows. I do not see how the hint is relevant though.



        We also see that for every $xinBbbZ[phi]$ there exist unique $a,b,a',b'inBbbZ$ such that
        $$x=a+bphi=a'+b'barphi.$$
        Now if $a,binBbbZ$ are such that $a^2+ab-b^2=pm1$ then
        $$(a+bphi)(a+bbarphi)=a^2+ab(phi+barphi)+b^2phibarphi=a^2+ab-b^2=pm1,$$
        which shows that $a+bphiinBbbZ[phi]^times$ with $(a+bphi)^-1=pm(a+bbarphi)$.



        Conversely, if $a,binBbbZ$ are such that $a+bphiinBbbZ[phi]^times$ then there exist unique $c,dinBbbZ[phi]$ such that
        $$(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=1.$$
        Then $gcd(a,b)=1$, and there exist unique $c',d'inBbbZ$ such that
        begineqnarray*
        1&=&(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=(a+bphi)(c'+d'barphi)
        =ac'+ad'barphi+bc'phi+bdphibarphi.
        endeqnarray*

        Because $phibarphi=-1$ and $phi+barphi=1$ it follows that
        $$1=ac'+ad'barphi+bc'phi+bd'phibarphi=(ac'+ad'-bd')+(bc'-ad')phi,$$
        which implies that $bc'=ad'$. Because $gcd(a,b)=1$ this shows that $c'=pm a$ and $d'=pm b$, where the two signs agree. Hence
        $$1=(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=pm(a+bphi)(a+bbarphi)=pm(a^2+ab-b^2).$$
        This proves that for all $a,binBbbZ$ we have
        $$a+bphiinBbbZ[phi]^timesqquadiffqquad a^2+ab-b^2=pm1.$$







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Mar 18 at 21:33









        ServaesServaes

        28.6k341101




        28.6k341101



























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