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$a,b in mathbb Z$ we have that $a+ bphi in mathbb Z[phi]^* iff a^2 +ab-b^2 = pm 1$
The Next CEO of Stack OverflowShow that for $forall ainmathbbH, exists b inmathbbH: ab =ba = 1$.Describe all ring homomorphisms from $mathbb Ztimesmathbb Z$ to $mathbb Ztimesmathbb Z$Fibonacci numbers and golden ratio: $Phi = lim sqrt[n]F_n$Literature to the ring $mathbbZ[phi]$ where $phi=frac1+sqrt52$ is the golden ratioCan I use the equality $phi^2=phi+1$ without proving it?Connection with golden ratio?There exists an injective ring homomorphism $barphi : Q to F $ such that $ j circ phi = barphi circ j$.Evaluating $int_0^logphi}frac{u^2(e^2u+1)e^2u-1du$, when $phi$ is the golden ratioGolden-Ratio Distribution - analogous to Normal distributionOn $3+sqrt11+sqrt11+sqrt11+sqrt11+dots=phi^4$ and friends
$begingroup$
I am thinking about the following question:
Let $phi= frac1+ sqrt 52$ be the golden ratio, and define:
$$ mathbb Z [phi]=a+ bphi : quad a, b in mathbb Z $$
We wish to prove that for $a,b in mathbb Z$ we have that $a+ bphi in mathbb Z[phi]^* iff a^2 +ab-b^2 = pm 1$.
Note: the star indicates the multiplicative group of our ring.
This exercise comes with a hint: let $barphi=frac1-sqrt 52$, You may use without proof that
$(a + b phi)(c + dphi) = 1$ if and only if $(a + bbarphi)(c + dbarphi) = 1$.
I have trouble interpreting how the hint plays out.
abstract-algebra group-theory ring-theory golden-ratio
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I am thinking about the following question:
Let $phi= frac1+ sqrt 52$ be the golden ratio, and define:
$$ mathbb Z [phi]=a+ bphi : quad a, b in mathbb Z $$
We wish to prove that for $a,b in mathbb Z$ we have that $a+ bphi in mathbb Z[phi]^* iff a^2 +ab-b^2 = pm 1$.
Note: the star indicates the multiplicative group of our ring.
This exercise comes with a hint: let $barphi=frac1-sqrt 52$, You may use without proof that
$(a + b phi)(c + dphi) = 1$ if and only if $(a + bbarphi)(c + dbarphi) = 1$.
I have trouble interpreting how the hint plays out.
abstract-algebra group-theory ring-theory golden-ratio
$endgroup$
3
$begingroup$
Use the norm map $N(z)=zoverlinez=a^2+ab-b^2$.
$endgroup$
– Dietrich Burde
Mar 18 at 20:02
1
$begingroup$
The hint is used to prove that the norm of a unit is a unit.
$endgroup$
– jgon
Mar 18 at 20:04
1
$begingroup$
The hint is actually a quite interesting equation.
$endgroup$
– Leaning
Mar 18 at 20:08
$begingroup$
What is the source and background of the problem?
$endgroup$
– Carl Mummert
Mar 19 at 12:32
$begingroup$
Algebra Interactive! - by Arjeh Cohen.
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Mar 19 at 13:37
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I am thinking about the following question:
Let $phi= frac1+ sqrt 52$ be the golden ratio, and define:
$$ mathbb Z [phi]=a+ bphi : quad a, b in mathbb Z $$
We wish to prove that for $a,b in mathbb Z$ we have that $a+ bphi in mathbb Z[phi]^* iff a^2 +ab-b^2 = pm 1$.
Note: the star indicates the multiplicative group of our ring.
This exercise comes with a hint: let $barphi=frac1-sqrt 52$, You may use without proof that
$(a + b phi)(c + dphi) = 1$ if and only if $(a + bbarphi)(c + dbarphi) = 1$.
I have trouble interpreting how the hint plays out.
abstract-algebra group-theory ring-theory golden-ratio
$endgroup$
I am thinking about the following question:
Let $phi= frac1+ sqrt 52$ be the golden ratio, and define:
$$ mathbb Z [phi]=a+ bphi : quad a, b in mathbb Z $$
We wish to prove that for $a,b in mathbb Z$ we have that $a+ bphi in mathbb Z[phi]^* iff a^2 +ab-b^2 = pm 1$.
Note: the star indicates the multiplicative group of our ring.
This exercise comes with a hint: let $barphi=frac1-sqrt 52$, You may use without proof that
$(a + b phi)(c + dphi) = 1$ if and only if $(a + bbarphi)(c + dbarphi) = 1$.
I have trouble interpreting how the hint plays out.
abstract-algebra group-theory ring-theory golden-ratio
abstract-algebra group-theory ring-theory golden-ratio
asked Mar 18 at 19:59
Wesley StrikWesley Strik
2,194424
2,194424
3
$begingroup$
Use the norm map $N(z)=zoverlinez=a^2+ab-b^2$.
$endgroup$
– Dietrich Burde
Mar 18 at 20:02
1
$begingroup$
The hint is used to prove that the norm of a unit is a unit.
$endgroup$
– jgon
Mar 18 at 20:04
1
$begingroup$
The hint is actually a quite interesting equation.
$endgroup$
– Leaning
Mar 18 at 20:08
$begingroup$
What is the source and background of the problem?
$endgroup$
– Carl Mummert
Mar 19 at 12:32
$begingroup$
Algebra Interactive! - by Arjeh Cohen.
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Mar 19 at 13:37
add a comment |
3
$begingroup$
Use the norm map $N(z)=zoverlinez=a^2+ab-b^2$.
$endgroup$
– Dietrich Burde
Mar 18 at 20:02
1
$begingroup$
The hint is used to prove that the norm of a unit is a unit.
$endgroup$
– jgon
Mar 18 at 20:04
1
$begingroup$
The hint is actually a quite interesting equation.
$endgroup$
– Leaning
Mar 18 at 20:08
$begingroup$
What is the source and background of the problem?
$endgroup$
– Carl Mummert
Mar 19 at 12:32
$begingroup$
Algebra Interactive! - by Arjeh Cohen.
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Mar 19 at 13:37
3
3
$begingroup$
Use the norm map $N(z)=zoverlinez=a^2+ab-b^2$.
$endgroup$
– Dietrich Burde
Mar 18 at 20:02
$begingroup$
Use the norm map $N(z)=zoverlinez=a^2+ab-b^2$.
$endgroup$
– Dietrich Burde
Mar 18 at 20:02
1
1
$begingroup$
The hint is used to prove that the norm of a unit is a unit.
$endgroup$
– jgon
Mar 18 at 20:04
$begingroup$
The hint is used to prove that the norm of a unit is a unit.
$endgroup$
– jgon
Mar 18 at 20:04
1
1
$begingroup$
The hint is actually a quite interesting equation.
$endgroup$
– Leaning
Mar 18 at 20:08
$begingroup$
The hint is actually a quite interesting equation.
$endgroup$
– Leaning
Mar 18 at 20:08
$begingroup$
What is the source and background of the problem?
$endgroup$
– Carl Mummert
Mar 19 at 12:32
$begingroup$
What is the source and background of the problem?
$endgroup$
– Carl Mummert
Mar 19 at 12:32
$begingroup$
Algebra Interactive! - by Arjeh Cohen.
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Mar 19 at 13:37
$begingroup$
Algebra Interactive! - by Arjeh Cohen.
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Mar 19 at 13:37
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
For $z = a + b phi$, we write $overlinez = a + b overlinephi$.
Define the function $N: mathbbZ[phi] rightarrow mathbbZ$ by $N(z)=z overlinez$. It's easy to check that $N(a+b phi) = a^2 +ab -b^2 in mathbbZ.$
Proposition: $z in mathbbZ[phi]$ is a unit if, and only if, $N(z) in mathbbZ$ is a unit.
Proof:
($Rightarrow$) Suppose $(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=1$. By the hint we have $(a+boverlinephi)(c+doverlinephi)=1$, and so $$N(a+bphi)N(c+dphi) = (a+bphi)(a+boverlinephi)(c+dphi)(c+doverlinephi) = 1.$$ Since $N(a+bphi)$, $N(c+dphi) in mathbbZ$, we must have either $$N(a+bphi) = N(c+dphi) = 1 textor N(a+bphi) = N(c+dphi) = -1.$$
($Leftarrow$) Suppose that $N(a+bphi) = (a+bphi)(a+boverlinephi) = (-1)^k, kin 0,1 $.
We want to find $c,d in mathbbZ$ such that $c+dphi = a+boverlinephi$. So write $$ c+dphi = c+ frac12 d + fracsqrt52 equiv a + frac12b -fracsqrt52 = a+boverlinephi,$$ and equate coefficients in $mathbbZ + sqrt5mathbbZ$ to get $c = a+b$ and $d=-b$. That is, we have $$(a+bphi)((-1)^k (a+b) + (-1)^k+1 bphi) = 1.$$
$hspace18cm square$
Therefore, given $a+bphi in mathbbZ[phi]$, $$a+bphi in mathbbZ[phi]^* Leftrightarrow a^2 +ab -b^2 = N(a+bphi ) = pm 1.$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
This is a good answer, I still worry about uniqueness of the proposed inverse for $(a +b phi)$, it's dependent on $(-1)^k$, so there are two possible inverses, why isn't this problematic?
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Mar 19 at 13:38
$begingroup$
I mean $(-1)^k (a+b) + (-1)^k+1 bphi $
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Mar 19 at 13:39
1
$begingroup$
You give me some $a + bphi in mathbbZ[phi]$ and tell me that $N(a+bphi) in 1, -1 $, which is the same thing as saying that $(a +bphi)(a+ boverlinephi) in 1, -1 $. I know that $a +boverlinephi in mathbbZ[phi]$ and to find the inverse of $a +bphi$ I just need to work out what $N(a+bphi)$ is. If $N(a+ bphi) = 1$, then the unique inverse of $a+ bphi$ is $a +boverlinephi = (a+b) - bphi$, and if $N(a+ bphi) = -1$, then the unique inverse of $a+ bphi$ is $-a -boverlinephi = -(a+b) + bphi$.
$endgroup$
– Joseph Martin
Mar 19 at 14:02
$begingroup$
thanks, that was bothering me :)
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Mar 20 at 5:49
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I do not see how the hint is of any use in answering the question. There are many different approaches, depending how much theory you are familiar with. I'll give a very basic approach, assuming very little theory.
Note that for $a,b,c,dinBbbZ$ we have $a+bphi=c+dphi$ if and only if $a=c$ and $b=d$. Also note that $phi+barphi=1$ and $phibarphi=-1$, meaning that both are roots of $X^2-X-1$. This shows that
$$BbbZ[phi] longrightarrow BbbZ[phi]: a+bphi longmapsto a+bbarphi,$$
is a ring automorphism of $BbbZ[phi]$, from which the hint follows. I do not see how the hint is relevant though.
We also see that for every $xinBbbZ[phi]$ there exist unique $a,b,a',b'inBbbZ$ such that
$$x=a+bphi=a'+b'barphi.$$
Now if $a,binBbbZ$ are such that $a^2+ab-b^2=pm1$ then
$$(a+bphi)(a+bbarphi)=a^2+ab(phi+barphi)+b^2phibarphi=a^2+ab-b^2=pm1,$$
which shows that $a+bphiinBbbZ[phi]^times$ with $(a+bphi)^-1=pm(a+bbarphi)$.
Conversely, if $a,binBbbZ$ are such that $a+bphiinBbbZ[phi]^times$ then there exist unique $c,dinBbbZ[phi]$ such that
$$(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=1.$$
Then $gcd(a,b)=1$, and there exist unique $c',d'inBbbZ$ such that
begineqnarray*
1&=&(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=(a+bphi)(c'+d'barphi)
=ac'+ad'barphi+bc'phi+bdphibarphi.
endeqnarray*
Because $phibarphi=-1$ and $phi+barphi=1$ it follows that
$$1=ac'+ad'barphi+bc'phi+bd'phibarphi=(ac'+ad'-bd')+(bc'-ad')phi,$$
which implies that $bc'=ad'$. Because $gcd(a,b)=1$ this shows that $c'=pm a$ and $d'=pm b$, where the two signs agree. Hence
$$1=(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=pm(a+bphi)(a+bbarphi)=pm(a^2+ab-b^2).$$
This proves that for all $a,binBbbZ$ we have
$$a+bphiinBbbZ[phi]^timesqquadiffqquad a^2+ab-b^2=pm1.$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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active
oldest
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
For $z = a + b phi$, we write $overlinez = a + b overlinephi$.
Define the function $N: mathbbZ[phi] rightarrow mathbbZ$ by $N(z)=z overlinez$. It's easy to check that $N(a+b phi) = a^2 +ab -b^2 in mathbbZ.$
Proposition: $z in mathbbZ[phi]$ is a unit if, and only if, $N(z) in mathbbZ$ is a unit.
Proof:
($Rightarrow$) Suppose $(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=1$. By the hint we have $(a+boverlinephi)(c+doverlinephi)=1$, and so $$N(a+bphi)N(c+dphi) = (a+bphi)(a+boverlinephi)(c+dphi)(c+doverlinephi) = 1.$$ Since $N(a+bphi)$, $N(c+dphi) in mathbbZ$, we must have either $$N(a+bphi) = N(c+dphi) = 1 textor N(a+bphi) = N(c+dphi) = -1.$$
($Leftarrow$) Suppose that $N(a+bphi) = (a+bphi)(a+boverlinephi) = (-1)^k, kin 0,1 $.
We want to find $c,d in mathbbZ$ such that $c+dphi = a+boverlinephi$. So write $$ c+dphi = c+ frac12 d + fracsqrt52 equiv a + frac12b -fracsqrt52 = a+boverlinephi,$$ and equate coefficients in $mathbbZ + sqrt5mathbbZ$ to get $c = a+b$ and $d=-b$. That is, we have $$(a+bphi)((-1)^k (a+b) + (-1)^k+1 bphi) = 1.$$
$hspace18cm square$
Therefore, given $a+bphi in mathbbZ[phi]$, $$a+bphi in mathbbZ[phi]^* Leftrightarrow a^2 +ab -b^2 = N(a+bphi ) = pm 1.$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
This is a good answer, I still worry about uniqueness of the proposed inverse for $(a +b phi)$, it's dependent on $(-1)^k$, so there are two possible inverses, why isn't this problematic?
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Mar 19 at 13:38
$begingroup$
I mean $(-1)^k (a+b) + (-1)^k+1 bphi $
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Mar 19 at 13:39
1
$begingroup$
You give me some $a + bphi in mathbbZ[phi]$ and tell me that $N(a+bphi) in 1, -1 $, which is the same thing as saying that $(a +bphi)(a+ boverlinephi) in 1, -1 $. I know that $a +boverlinephi in mathbbZ[phi]$ and to find the inverse of $a +bphi$ I just need to work out what $N(a+bphi)$ is. If $N(a+ bphi) = 1$, then the unique inverse of $a+ bphi$ is $a +boverlinephi = (a+b) - bphi$, and if $N(a+ bphi) = -1$, then the unique inverse of $a+ bphi$ is $-a -boverlinephi = -(a+b) + bphi$.
$endgroup$
– Joseph Martin
Mar 19 at 14:02
$begingroup$
thanks, that was bothering me :)
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Mar 20 at 5:49
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For $z = a + b phi$, we write $overlinez = a + b overlinephi$.
Define the function $N: mathbbZ[phi] rightarrow mathbbZ$ by $N(z)=z overlinez$. It's easy to check that $N(a+b phi) = a^2 +ab -b^2 in mathbbZ.$
Proposition: $z in mathbbZ[phi]$ is a unit if, and only if, $N(z) in mathbbZ$ is a unit.
Proof:
($Rightarrow$) Suppose $(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=1$. By the hint we have $(a+boverlinephi)(c+doverlinephi)=1$, and so $$N(a+bphi)N(c+dphi) = (a+bphi)(a+boverlinephi)(c+dphi)(c+doverlinephi) = 1.$$ Since $N(a+bphi)$, $N(c+dphi) in mathbbZ$, we must have either $$N(a+bphi) = N(c+dphi) = 1 textor N(a+bphi) = N(c+dphi) = -1.$$
($Leftarrow$) Suppose that $N(a+bphi) = (a+bphi)(a+boverlinephi) = (-1)^k, kin 0,1 $.
We want to find $c,d in mathbbZ$ such that $c+dphi = a+boverlinephi$. So write $$ c+dphi = c+ frac12 d + fracsqrt52 equiv a + frac12b -fracsqrt52 = a+boverlinephi,$$ and equate coefficients in $mathbbZ + sqrt5mathbbZ$ to get $c = a+b$ and $d=-b$. That is, we have $$(a+bphi)((-1)^k (a+b) + (-1)^k+1 bphi) = 1.$$
$hspace18cm square$
Therefore, given $a+bphi in mathbbZ[phi]$, $$a+bphi in mathbbZ[phi]^* Leftrightarrow a^2 +ab -b^2 = N(a+bphi ) = pm 1.$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
This is a good answer, I still worry about uniqueness of the proposed inverse for $(a +b phi)$, it's dependent on $(-1)^k$, so there are two possible inverses, why isn't this problematic?
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Mar 19 at 13:38
$begingroup$
I mean $(-1)^k (a+b) + (-1)^k+1 bphi $
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Mar 19 at 13:39
1
$begingroup$
You give me some $a + bphi in mathbbZ[phi]$ and tell me that $N(a+bphi) in 1, -1 $, which is the same thing as saying that $(a +bphi)(a+ boverlinephi) in 1, -1 $. I know that $a +boverlinephi in mathbbZ[phi]$ and to find the inverse of $a +bphi$ I just need to work out what $N(a+bphi)$ is. If $N(a+ bphi) = 1$, then the unique inverse of $a+ bphi$ is $a +boverlinephi = (a+b) - bphi$, and if $N(a+ bphi) = -1$, then the unique inverse of $a+ bphi$ is $-a -boverlinephi = -(a+b) + bphi$.
$endgroup$
– Joseph Martin
Mar 19 at 14:02
$begingroup$
thanks, that was bothering me :)
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Mar 20 at 5:49
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For $z = a + b phi$, we write $overlinez = a + b overlinephi$.
Define the function $N: mathbbZ[phi] rightarrow mathbbZ$ by $N(z)=z overlinez$. It's easy to check that $N(a+b phi) = a^2 +ab -b^2 in mathbbZ.$
Proposition: $z in mathbbZ[phi]$ is a unit if, and only if, $N(z) in mathbbZ$ is a unit.
Proof:
($Rightarrow$) Suppose $(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=1$. By the hint we have $(a+boverlinephi)(c+doverlinephi)=1$, and so $$N(a+bphi)N(c+dphi) = (a+bphi)(a+boverlinephi)(c+dphi)(c+doverlinephi) = 1.$$ Since $N(a+bphi)$, $N(c+dphi) in mathbbZ$, we must have either $$N(a+bphi) = N(c+dphi) = 1 textor N(a+bphi) = N(c+dphi) = -1.$$
($Leftarrow$) Suppose that $N(a+bphi) = (a+bphi)(a+boverlinephi) = (-1)^k, kin 0,1 $.
We want to find $c,d in mathbbZ$ such that $c+dphi = a+boverlinephi$. So write $$ c+dphi = c+ frac12 d + fracsqrt52 equiv a + frac12b -fracsqrt52 = a+boverlinephi,$$ and equate coefficients in $mathbbZ + sqrt5mathbbZ$ to get $c = a+b$ and $d=-b$. That is, we have $$(a+bphi)((-1)^k (a+b) + (-1)^k+1 bphi) = 1.$$
$hspace18cm square$
Therefore, given $a+bphi in mathbbZ[phi]$, $$a+bphi in mathbbZ[phi]^* Leftrightarrow a^2 +ab -b^2 = N(a+bphi ) = pm 1.$$
$endgroup$
For $z = a + b phi$, we write $overlinez = a + b overlinephi$.
Define the function $N: mathbbZ[phi] rightarrow mathbbZ$ by $N(z)=z overlinez$. It's easy to check that $N(a+b phi) = a^2 +ab -b^2 in mathbbZ.$
Proposition: $z in mathbbZ[phi]$ is a unit if, and only if, $N(z) in mathbbZ$ is a unit.
Proof:
($Rightarrow$) Suppose $(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=1$. By the hint we have $(a+boverlinephi)(c+doverlinephi)=1$, and so $$N(a+bphi)N(c+dphi) = (a+bphi)(a+boverlinephi)(c+dphi)(c+doverlinephi) = 1.$$ Since $N(a+bphi)$, $N(c+dphi) in mathbbZ$, we must have either $$N(a+bphi) = N(c+dphi) = 1 textor N(a+bphi) = N(c+dphi) = -1.$$
($Leftarrow$) Suppose that $N(a+bphi) = (a+bphi)(a+boverlinephi) = (-1)^k, kin 0,1 $.
We want to find $c,d in mathbbZ$ such that $c+dphi = a+boverlinephi$. So write $$ c+dphi = c+ frac12 d + fracsqrt52 equiv a + frac12b -fracsqrt52 = a+boverlinephi,$$ and equate coefficients in $mathbbZ + sqrt5mathbbZ$ to get $c = a+b$ and $d=-b$. That is, we have $$(a+bphi)((-1)^k (a+b) + (-1)^k+1 bphi) = 1.$$
$hspace18cm square$
Therefore, given $a+bphi in mathbbZ[phi]$, $$a+bphi in mathbbZ[phi]^* Leftrightarrow a^2 +ab -b^2 = N(a+bphi ) = pm 1.$$
edited Mar 19 at 13:47
answered Mar 18 at 21:59
Joseph MartinJoseph Martin
692317
692317
$begingroup$
This is a good answer, I still worry about uniqueness of the proposed inverse for $(a +b phi)$, it's dependent on $(-1)^k$, so there are two possible inverses, why isn't this problematic?
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– Wesley Strik
Mar 19 at 13:38
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I mean $(-1)^k (a+b) + (-1)^k+1 bphi $
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– Wesley Strik
Mar 19 at 13:39
1
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You give me some $a + bphi in mathbbZ[phi]$ and tell me that $N(a+bphi) in 1, -1 $, which is the same thing as saying that $(a +bphi)(a+ boverlinephi) in 1, -1 $. I know that $a +boverlinephi in mathbbZ[phi]$ and to find the inverse of $a +bphi$ I just need to work out what $N(a+bphi)$ is. If $N(a+ bphi) = 1$, then the unique inverse of $a+ bphi$ is $a +boverlinephi = (a+b) - bphi$, and if $N(a+ bphi) = -1$, then the unique inverse of $a+ bphi$ is $-a -boverlinephi = -(a+b) + bphi$.
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– Joseph Martin
Mar 19 at 14:02
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thanks, that was bothering me :)
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– Wesley Strik
Mar 20 at 5:49
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This is a good answer, I still worry about uniqueness of the proposed inverse for $(a +b phi)$, it's dependent on $(-1)^k$, so there are two possible inverses, why isn't this problematic?
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Mar 19 at 13:38
$begingroup$
I mean $(-1)^k (a+b) + (-1)^k+1 bphi $
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Mar 19 at 13:39
1
$begingroup$
You give me some $a + bphi in mathbbZ[phi]$ and tell me that $N(a+bphi) in 1, -1 $, which is the same thing as saying that $(a +bphi)(a+ boverlinephi) in 1, -1 $. I know that $a +boverlinephi in mathbbZ[phi]$ and to find the inverse of $a +bphi$ I just need to work out what $N(a+bphi)$ is. If $N(a+ bphi) = 1$, then the unique inverse of $a+ bphi$ is $a +boverlinephi = (a+b) - bphi$, and if $N(a+ bphi) = -1$, then the unique inverse of $a+ bphi$ is $-a -boverlinephi = -(a+b) + bphi$.
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– Joseph Martin
Mar 19 at 14:02
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thanks, that was bothering me :)
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– Wesley Strik
Mar 20 at 5:49
$begingroup$
This is a good answer, I still worry about uniqueness of the proposed inverse for $(a +b phi)$, it's dependent on $(-1)^k$, so there are two possible inverses, why isn't this problematic?
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Mar 19 at 13:38
$begingroup$
This is a good answer, I still worry about uniqueness of the proposed inverse for $(a +b phi)$, it's dependent on $(-1)^k$, so there are two possible inverses, why isn't this problematic?
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Mar 19 at 13:38
$begingroup$
I mean $(-1)^k (a+b) + (-1)^k+1 bphi $
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Mar 19 at 13:39
$begingroup$
I mean $(-1)^k (a+b) + (-1)^k+1 bphi $
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Mar 19 at 13:39
1
1
$begingroup$
You give me some $a + bphi in mathbbZ[phi]$ and tell me that $N(a+bphi) in 1, -1 $, which is the same thing as saying that $(a +bphi)(a+ boverlinephi) in 1, -1 $. I know that $a +boverlinephi in mathbbZ[phi]$ and to find the inverse of $a +bphi$ I just need to work out what $N(a+bphi)$ is. If $N(a+ bphi) = 1$, then the unique inverse of $a+ bphi$ is $a +boverlinephi = (a+b) - bphi$, and if $N(a+ bphi) = -1$, then the unique inverse of $a+ bphi$ is $-a -boverlinephi = -(a+b) + bphi$.
$endgroup$
– Joseph Martin
Mar 19 at 14:02
$begingroup$
You give me some $a + bphi in mathbbZ[phi]$ and tell me that $N(a+bphi) in 1, -1 $, which is the same thing as saying that $(a +bphi)(a+ boverlinephi) in 1, -1 $. I know that $a +boverlinephi in mathbbZ[phi]$ and to find the inverse of $a +bphi$ I just need to work out what $N(a+bphi)$ is. If $N(a+ bphi) = 1$, then the unique inverse of $a+ bphi$ is $a +boverlinephi = (a+b) - bphi$, and if $N(a+ bphi) = -1$, then the unique inverse of $a+ bphi$ is $-a -boverlinephi = -(a+b) + bphi$.
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– Joseph Martin
Mar 19 at 14:02
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thanks, that was bothering me :)
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– Wesley Strik
Mar 20 at 5:49
$begingroup$
thanks, that was bothering me :)
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Mar 20 at 5:49
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I do not see how the hint is of any use in answering the question. There are many different approaches, depending how much theory you are familiar with. I'll give a very basic approach, assuming very little theory.
Note that for $a,b,c,dinBbbZ$ we have $a+bphi=c+dphi$ if and only if $a=c$ and $b=d$. Also note that $phi+barphi=1$ and $phibarphi=-1$, meaning that both are roots of $X^2-X-1$. This shows that
$$BbbZ[phi] longrightarrow BbbZ[phi]: a+bphi longmapsto a+bbarphi,$$
is a ring automorphism of $BbbZ[phi]$, from which the hint follows. I do not see how the hint is relevant though.
We also see that for every $xinBbbZ[phi]$ there exist unique $a,b,a',b'inBbbZ$ such that
$$x=a+bphi=a'+b'barphi.$$
Now if $a,binBbbZ$ are such that $a^2+ab-b^2=pm1$ then
$$(a+bphi)(a+bbarphi)=a^2+ab(phi+barphi)+b^2phibarphi=a^2+ab-b^2=pm1,$$
which shows that $a+bphiinBbbZ[phi]^times$ with $(a+bphi)^-1=pm(a+bbarphi)$.
Conversely, if $a,binBbbZ$ are such that $a+bphiinBbbZ[phi]^times$ then there exist unique $c,dinBbbZ[phi]$ such that
$$(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=1.$$
Then $gcd(a,b)=1$, and there exist unique $c',d'inBbbZ$ such that
begineqnarray*
1&=&(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=(a+bphi)(c'+d'barphi)
=ac'+ad'barphi+bc'phi+bdphibarphi.
endeqnarray*
Because $phibarphi=-1$ and $phi+barphi=1$ it follows that
$$1=ac'+ad'barphi+bc'phi+bd'phibarphi=(ac'+ad'-bd')+(bc'-ad')phi,$$
which implies that $bc'=ad'$. Because $gcd(a,b)=1$ this shows that $c'=pm a$ and $d'=pm b$, where the two signs agree. Hence
$$1=(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=pm(a+bphi)(a+bbarphi)=pm(a^2+ab-b^2).$$
This proves that for all $a,binBbbZ$ we have
$$a+bphiinBbbZ[phi]^timesqquadiffqquad a^2+ab-b^2=pm1.$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I do not see how the hint is of any use in answering the question. There are many different approaches, depending how much theory you are familiar with. I'll give a very basic approach, assuming very little theory.
Note that for $a,b,c,dinBbbZ$ we have $a+bphi=c+dphi$ if and only if $a=c$ and $b=d$. Also note that $phi+barphi=1$ and $phibarphi=-1$, meaning that both are roots of $X^2-X-1$. This shows that
$$BbbZ[phi] longrightarrow BbbZ[phi]: a+bphi longmapsto a+bbarphi,$$
is a ring automorphism of $BbbZ[phi]$, from which the hint follows. I do not see how the hint is relevant though.
We also see that for every $xinBbbZ[phi]$ there exist unique $a,b,a',b'inBbbZ$ such that
$$x=a+bphi=a'+b'barphi.$$
Now if $a,binBbbZ$ are such that $a^2+ab-b^2=pm1$ then
$$(a+bphi)(a+bbarphi)=a^2+ab(phi+barphi)+b^2phibarphi=a^2+ab-b^2=pm1,$$
which shows that $a+bphiinBbbZ[phi]^times$ with $(a+bphi)^-1=pm(a+bbarphi)$.
Conversely, if $a,binBbbZ$ are such that $a+bphiinBbbZ[phi]^times$ then there exist unique $c,dinBbbZ[phi]$ such that
$$(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=1.$$
Then $gcd(a,b)=1$, and there exist unique $c',d'inBbbZ$ such that
begineqnarray*
1&=&(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=(a+bphi)(c'+d'barphi)
=ac'+ad'barphi+bc'phi+bdphibarphi.
endeqnarray*
Because $phibarphi=-1$ and $phi+barphi=1$ it follows that
$$1=ac'+ad'barphi+bc'phi+bd'phibarphi=(ac'+ad'-bd')+(bc'-ad')phi,$$
which implies that $bc'=ad'$. Because $gcd(a,b)=1$ this shows that $c'=pm a$ and $d'=pm b$, where the two signs agree. Hence
$$1=(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=pm(a+bphi)(a+bbarphi)=pm(a^2+ab-b^2).$$
This proves that for all $a,binBbbZ$ we have
$$a+bphiinBbbZ[phi]^timesqquadiffqquad a^2+ab-b^2=pm1.$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I do not see how the hint is of any use in answering the question. There are many different approaches, depending how much theory you are familiar with. I'll give a very basic approach, assuming very little theory.
Note that for $a,b,c,dinBbbZ$ we have $a+bphi=c+dphi$ if and only if $a=c$ and $b=d$. Also note that $phi+barphi=1$ and $phibarphi=-1$, meaning that both are roots of $X^2-X-1$. This shows that
$$BbbZ[phi] longrightarrow BbbZ[phi]: a+bphi longmapsto a+bbarphi,$$
is a ring automorphism of $BbbZ[phi]$, from which the hint follows. I do not see how the hint is relevant though.
We also see that for every $xinBbbZ[phi]$ there exist unique $a,b,a',b'inBbbZ$ such that
$$x=a+bphi=a'+b'barphi.$$
Now if $a,binBbbZ$ are such that $a^2+ab-b^2=pm1$ then
$$(a+bphi)(a+bbarphi)=a^2+ab(phi+barphi)+b^2phibarphi=a^2+ab-b^2=pm1,$$
which shows that $a+bphiinBbbZ[phi]^times$ with $(a+bphi)^-1=pm(a+bbarphi)$.
Conversely, if $a,binBbbZ$ are such that $a+bphiinBbbZ[phi]^times$ then there exist unique $c,dinBbbZ[phi]$ such that
$$(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=1.$$
Then $gcd(a,b)=1$, and there exist unique $c',d'inBbbZ$ such that
begineqnarray*
1&=&(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=(a+bphi)(c'+d'barphi)
=ac'+ad'barphi+bc'phi+bdphibarphi.
endeqnarray*
Because $phibarphi=-1$ and $phi+barphi=1$ it follows that
$$1=ac'+ad'barphi+bc'phi+bd'phibarphi=(ac'+ad'-bd')+(bc'-ad')phi,$$
which implies that $bc'=ad'$. Because $gcd(a,b)=1$ this shows that $c'=pm a$ and $d'=pm b$, where the two signs agree. Hence
$$1=(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=pm(a+bphi)(a+bbarphi)=pm(a^2+ab-b^2).$$
This proves that for all $a,binBbbZ$ we have
$$a+bphiinBbbZ[phi]^timesqquadiffqquad a^2+ab-b^2=pm1.$$
$endgroup$
I do not see how the hint is of any use in answering the question. There are many different approaches, depending how much theory you are familiar with. I'll give a very basic approach, assuming very little theory.
Note that for $a,b,c,dinBbbZ$ we have $a+bphi=c+dphi$ if and only if $a=c$ and $b=d$. Also note that $phi+barphi=1$ and $phibarphi=-1$, meaning that both are roots of $X^2-X-1$. This shows that
$$BbbZ[phi] longrightarrow BbbZ[phi]: a+bphi longmapsto a+bbarphi,$$
is a ring automorphism of $BbbZ[phi]$, from which the hint follows. I do not see how the hint is relevant though.
We also see that for every $xinBbbZ[phi]$ there exist unique $a,b,a',b'inBbbZ$ such that
$$x=a+bphi=a'+b'barphi.$$
Now if $a,binBbbZ$ are such that $a^2+ab-b^2=pm1$ then
$$(a+bphi)(a+bbarphi)=a^2+ab(phi+barphi)+b^2phibarphi=a^2+ab-b^2=pm1,$$
which shows that $a+bphiinBbbZ[phi]^times$ with $(a+bphi)^-1=pm(a+bbarphi)$.
Conversely, if $a,binBbbZ$ are such that $a+bphiinBbbZ[phi]^times$ then there exist unique $c,dinBbbZ[phi]$ such that
$$(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=1.$$
Then $gcd(a,b)=1$, and there exist unique $c',d'inBbbZ$ such that
begineqnarray*
1&=&(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=(a+bphi)(c'+d'barphi)
=ac'+ad'barphi+bc'phi+bdphibarphi.
endeqnarray*
Because $phibarphi=-1$ and $phi+barphi=1$ it follows that
$$1=ac'+ad'barphi+bc'phi+bd'phibarphi=(ac'+ad'-bd')+(bc'-ad')phi,$$
which implies that $bc'=ad'$. Because $gcd(a,b)=1$ this shows that $c'=pm a$ and $d'=pm b$, where the two signs agree. Hence
$$1=(a+bphi)(c+dphi)=pm(a+bphi)(a+bbarphi)=pm(a^2+ab-b^2).$$
This proves that for all $a,binBbbZ$ we have
$$a+bphiinBbbZ[phi]^timesqquadiffqquad a^2+ab-b^2=pm1.$$
answered Mar 18 at 21:33
ServaesServaes
28.6k341101
28.6k341101
add a comment |
add a comment |
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3
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Use the norm map $N(z)=zoverlinez=a^2+ab-b^2$.
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– Dietrich Burde
Mar 18 at 20:02
1
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The hint is used to prove that the norm of a unit is a unit.
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– jgon
Mar 18 at 20:04
1
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The hint is actually a quite interesting equation.
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– Leaning
Mar 18 at 20:08
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What is the source and background of the problem?
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– Carl Mummert
Mar 19 at 12:32
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Algebra Interactive! - by Arjeh Cohen.
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– Wesley Strik
Mar 19 at 13:37