Is there a relation between Hamming distance and Euclidean distance?Max Euclidean Distance between two points in a setHilbert norm and Euclidean distanceConverting a distance matrix into Euclidean vectoreuclidean distance between one dimension points-how to?Manhattan distance vs Euclidean distanceProbability function of Euclidean distance between 2 vectors and origin?Equivalence relation between vectors in Euclidean geometryEuclidean distance and turn costEuclidean and Manhattan distance with missing valuesFinding Smaller Euclidean Distance
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Is there a relation between Hamming distance and Euclidean distance?
Max Euclidean Distance between two points in a setHilbert norm and Euclidean distanceConverting a distance matrix into Euclidean vectoreuclidean distance between one dimension points-how to?Manhattan distance vs Euclidean distanceProbability function of Euclidean distance between 2 vectors and origin?Equivalence relation between vectors in Euclidean geometryEuclidean distance and turn costEuclidean and Manhattan distance with missing valuesFinding Smaller Euclidean Distance
$begingroup$
Is there a relation between Hamming distance and Euclidean distance?
If components of vectors are $in 1,2$,for example. For $0,1$ everything is obvious.
euclidean-geometry
edited Mar 17 at 23:29
Max
9211319
asked Mar 17 at 22:18
nnuttertoolsnnuttertools
285
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Is there a relation between Hamming distance and Euclidean distance?
If components of vectors are $in 1,2$,for example. For $0,1$ everything is obvious.
euclidean-geometry
edited Mar 17 at 23:29
Max
9211319
asked Mar 17 at 22:18
nnuttertoolsnnuttertools
285
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I don't think it is obvious The two concepts are different. Euclidean distance appears only when the code words are mapped into some Euclidean space. Then the Euclidean distance between the points corresponding to the given code words will depend highly on the mapping rule. Consider, e.g., coded modulations.
$endgroup$
– Matteo
Mar 21 at 11:43
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Is there a relation between Hamming distance and Euclidean distance?
If components of vectors are $in 1,2$,for example. For $0,1$ everything is obvious.
euclidean-geometry
edited Mar 17 at 23:29
Max
9211319
asked Mar 17 at 22:18
nnuttertoolsnnuttertools
285
$endgroup$
Is there a relation between Hamming distance and Euclidean distance?
If components of vectors are $in 1,2$,for example. For $0,1$ everything is obvious.
euclidean-geometry
euclidean-geometry
edited Mar 17 at 23:29
Max
9211319
asked Mar 17 at 22:18
nnuttertoolsnnuttertools
285
edited Mar 17 at 23:29
Max
9211319
asked Mar 17 at 22:18
nnuttertoolsnnuttertools
285
edited Mar 17 at 23:29
Max
9211319
edited Mar 17 at 23:29
Max
9211319
edited Mar 17 at 23:29
Max
9211319
9211319
asked Mar 17 at 22:18
nnuttertoolsnnuttertools
285
asked Mar 17 at 22:18
nnuttertoolsnnuttertools
285
asked Mar 17 at 22:18
nnuttertoolsnnuttertools
285
285
$begingroup$
I don't think it is obvious The two concepts are different. Euclidean distance appears only when the code words are mapped into some Euclidean space. Then the Euclidean distance between the points corresponding to the given code words will depend highly on the mapping rule. Consider, e.g., coded modulations.
$endgroup$
– Matteo
Mar 21 at 11:43
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I don't think it is obvious The two concepts are different. Euclidean distance appears only when the code words are mapped into some Euclidean space. Then the Euclidean distance between the points corresponding to the given code words will depend highly on the mapping rule. Consider, e.g., coded modulations.
$endgroup$
– Matteo
Mar 21 at 11:43
$begingroup$
I don't think it is obvious The two concepts are different. Euclidean distance appears only when the code words are mapped into some Euclidean space. Then the Euclidean distance between the points corresponding to the given code words will depend highly on the mapping rule. Consider, e.g., coded modulations.
$endgroup$
– Matteo
Mar 21 at 11:43
$begingroup$
I don't think it is obvious The two concepts are different. Euclidean distance appears only when the code words are mapped into some Euclidean space. Then the Euclidean distance between the points corresponding to the given code words will depend highly on the mapping rule. Consider, e.g., coded modulations.
$endgroup$
– Matteo
Mar 21 at 11:43
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
I don't think it is obvious The two concepts are different. Euclidean distance appears only when the code words are mapped into some Euclidean space. Then the Euclidean distance between the points corresponding to the given code words will depend highly on the mapping rule. Consider, e.g., coded modulations.
$endgroup$
– Matteo
Mar 21 at 11:43