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Isometric Immersions: equivalent condition for $R^perp=0$


Totally geodesic immersionsDoes every smooth manifold admits non-isometric riemannian metrics?Two successive isometric immersions: relation between mean curvature vectors?Does harmonic decomposition preserve immersions?Eigenvalues of shape operator and of curvature on second exterior powerIsometric immersions between manifolds with boundary are locally distance preserving?Equivalent condition for $f:Mto N$ to be an embeddingNon equivalent isometric embeddings of the planeName of the relation between LC connections in isometric immersionsConfused about Isometric Immersions













0












$begingroup$


In Dajczer's Submanifolds and Isometric Immersions, a couple paragraphs before presenting the Fundamental Theorem for Submanifolds, the author presents Ricci's equation:
$$(widetildeR(X,Y)xi)^perp=R^perp(X,Y)xi+alpha(A_xi X,Y)-alpha(X,A_xi Y)text, forall X,Yin T_xM, xiin T_xM^perp$$



(where $alpha$ is second fundamental form and $A$ is the shape operator)



He points out that if $widetildeM$ has constant sectional curvature, Ricci's formula becomes:
$$R^perp(X,Y)xi=alpha(X,A_xi Y)-alpha(A_xi X, Y)$$



Then he says: "notice that $R^perp_x=0$ if and only if there exists an orthogonal basis for $T_xM$ that diagonalizes simultaneously all $A_xi, xiin T_xM^perp$"



If I understand correctly, he means there is a basis $v_1,...,v_n$ of $T_xM$ with $langle v_i,v_jrangle=delta_ij$ and such that $A_xi v_i=lambda_iv_i$ for all $i$ and for all $xiin T_xM^perp$.



The way he mentions it makes it look like something obvious, but I really can't see how this relates to $R_x^perp=0$. Am I missing something?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$
















    0












    $begingroup$


    In Dajczer's Submanifolds and Isometric Immersions, a couple paragraphs before presenting the Fundamental Theorem for Submanifolds, the author presents Ricci's equation:
    $$(widetildeR(X,Y)xi)^perp=R^perp(X,Y)xi+alpha(A_xi X,Y)-alpha(X,A_xi Y)text, forall X,Yin T_xM, xiin T_xM^perp$$



    (where $alpha$ is second fundamental form and $A$ is the shape operator)



    He points out that if $widetildeM$ has constant sectional curvature, Ricci's formula becomes:
    $$R^perp(X,Y)xi=alpha(X,A_xi Y)-alpha(A_xi X, Y)$$



    Then he says: "notice that $R^perp_x=0$ if and only if there exists an orthogonal basis for $T_xM$ that diagonalizes simultaneously all $A_xi, xiin T_xM^perp$"



    If I understand correctly, he means there is a basis $v_1,...,v_n$ of $T_xM$ with $langle v_i,v_jrangle=delta_ij$ and such that $A_xi v_i=lambda_iv_i$ for all $i$ and for all $xiin T_xM^perp$.



    The way he mentions it makes it look like something obvious, but I really can't see how this relates to $R_x^perp=0$. Am I missing something?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$














      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      In Dajczer's Submanifolds and Isometric Immersions, a couple paragraphs before presenting the Fundamental Theorem for Submanifolds, the author presents Ricci's equation:
      $$(widetildeR(X,Y)xi)^perp=R^perp(X,Y)xi+alpha(A_xi X,Y)-alpha(X,A_xi Y)text, forall X,Yin T_xM, xiin T_xM^perp$$



      (where $alpha$ is second fundamental form and $A$ is the shape operator)



      He points out that if $widetildeM$ has constant sectional curvature, Ricci's formula becomes:
      $$R^perp(X,Y)xi=alpha(X,A_xi Y)-alpha(A_xi X, Y)$$



      Then he says: "notice that $R^perp_x=0$ if and only if there exists an orthogonal basis for $T_xM$ that diagonalizes simultaneously all $A_xi, xiin T_xM^perp$"



      If I understand correctly, he means there is a basis $v_1,...,v_n$ of $T_xM$ with $langle v_i,v_jrangle=delta_ij$ and such that $A_xi v_i=lambda_iv_i$ for all $i$ and for all $xiin T_xM^perp$.



      The way he mentions it makes it look like something obvious, but I really can't see how this relates to $R_x^perp=0$. Am I missing something?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      In Dajczer's Submanifolds and Isometric Immersions, a couple paragraphs before presenting the Fundamental Theorem for Submanifolds, the author presents Ricci's equation:
      $$(widetildeR(X,Y)xi)^perp=R^perp(X,Y)xi+alpha(A_xi X,Y)-alpha(X,A_xi Y)text, forall X,Yin T_xM, xiin T_xM^perp$$



      (where $alpha$ is second fundamental form and $A$ is the shape operator)



      He points out that if $widetildeM$ has constant sectional curvature, Ricci's formula becomes:
      $$R^perp(X,Y)xi=alpha(X,A_xi Y)-alpha(A_xi X, Y)$$



      Then he says: "notice that $R^perp_x=0$ if and only if there exists an orthogonal basis for $T_xM$ that diagonalizes simultaneously all $A_xi, xiin T_xM^perp$"



      If I understand correctly, he means there is a basis $v_1,...,v_n$ of $T_xM$ with $langle v_i,v_jrangle=delta_ij$ and such that $A_xi v_i=lambda_iv_i$ for all $i$ and for all $xiin T_xM^perp$.



      The way he mentions it makes it look like something obvious, but I really can't see how this relates to $R_x^perp=0$. Am I missing something?







      riemannian-geometry smooth-manifolds connections






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











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      asked Mar 17 at 23:17









      rmdmc89rmdmc89

      2,2651923




      2,2651923




















          1 Answer
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          $begingroup$

          Take the inner product of the Ricci formula with another normal vector $etain T_x M^perp$. You get
          $$
          beginalign*
          langle R^perp(X,Y)xi,etarangle &= langle alpha(X,A_xi Y),eta rangle
          - langle alpha(A_xi X,Y),eta rangle \
          &= langle A_eta X, A_xi Y rangle
          - langle A_eta A_xi X, Y rangle \
          &= langle A_xi A_eta X, Y rangle
          - langle A_eta A_xi X, Y rangle \
          &= langle [A_xi, A_eta]X, Yrangle.
          endalign*
          $$

          Now you see that $R^perp_x$ vanishes iff the commutators $[A_xi, A_eta]$ of the shape operators vanish for all $xi, eta in T_x^perp M$. Recall that the shape operators are diagonalisable, since they are symmetric. It is a well-known fact that diagonalisable linear maps can be diagonalised simultaneously if and only if they commute. This shows the statement.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












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            $begingroup$

            Take the inner product of the Ricci formula with another normal vector $etain T_x M^perp$. You get
            $$
            beginalign*
            langle R^perp(X,Y)xi,etarangle &= langle alpha(X,A_xi Y),eta rangle
            - langle alpha(A_xi X,Y),eta rangle \
            &= langle A_eta X, A_xi Y rangle
            - langle A_eta A_xi X, Y rangle \
            &= langle A_xi A_eta X, Y rangle
            - langle A_eta A_xi X, Y rangle \
            &= langle [A_xi, A_eta]X, Yrangle.
            endalign*
            $$

            Now you see that $R^perp_x$ vanishes iff the commutators $[A_xi, A_eta]$ of the shape operators vanish for all $xi, eta in T_x^perp M$. Recall that the shape operators are diagonalisable, since they are symmetric. It is a well-known fact that diagonalisable linear maps can be diagonalised simultaneously if and only if they commute. This shows the statement.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$

















              1












              $begingroup$

              Take the inner product of the Ricci formula with another normal vector $etain T_x M^perp$. You get
              $$
              beginalign*
              langle R^perp(X,Y)xi,etarangle &= langle alpha(X,A_xi Y),eta rangle
              - langle alpha(A_xi X,Y),eta rangle \
              &= langle A_eta X, A_xi Y rangle
              - langle A_eta A_xi X, Y rangle \
              &= langle A_xi A_eta X, Y rangle
              - langle A_eta A_xi X, Y rangle \
              &= langle [A_xi, A_eta]X, Yrangle.
              endalign*
              $$

              Now you see that $R^perp_x$ vanishes iff the commutators $[A_xi, A_eta]$ of the shape operators vanish for all $xi, eta in T_x^perp M$. Recall that the shape operators are diagonalisable, since they are symmetric. It is a well-known fact that diagonalisable linear maps can be diagonalised simultaneously if and only if they commute. This shows the statement.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$















                1












                1








                1





                $begingroup$

                Take the inner product of the Ricci formula with another normal vector $etain T_x M^perp$. You get
                $$
                beginalign*
                langle R^perp(X,Y)xi,etarangle &= langle alpha(X,A_xi Y),eta rangle
                - langle alpha(A_xi X,Y),eta rangle \
                &= langle A_eta X, A_xi Y rangle
                - langle A_eta A_xi X, Y rangle \
                &= langle A_xi A_eta X, Y rangle
                - langle A_eta A_xi X, Y rangle \
                &= langle [A_xi, A_eta]X, Yrangle.
                endalign*
                $$

                Now you see that $R^perp_x$ vanishes iff the commutators $[A_xi, A_eta]$ of the shape operators vanish for all $xi, eta in T_x^perp M$. Recall that the shape operators are diagonalisable, since they are symmetric. It is a well-known fact that diagonalisable linear maps can be diagonalised simultaneously if and only if they commute. This shows the statement.






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$



                Take the inner product of the Ricci formula with another normal vector $etain T_x M^perp$. You get
                $$
                beginalign*
                langle R^perp(X,Y)xi,etarangle &= langle alpha(X,A_xi Y),eta rangle
                - langle alpha(A_xi X,Y),eta rangle \
                &= langle A_eta X, A_xi Y rangle
                - langle A_eta A_xi X, Y rangle \
                &= langle A_xi A_eta X, Y rangle
                - langle A_eta A_xi X, Y rangle \
                &= langle [A_xi, A_eta]X, Yrangle.
                endalign*
                $$

                Now you see that $R^perp_x$ vanishes iff the commutators $[A_xi, A_eta]$ of the shape operators vanish for all $xi, eta in T_x^perp M$. Recall that the shape operators are diagonalisable, since they are symmetric. It is a well-known fact that diagonalisable linear maps can be diagonalised simultaneously if and only if they commute. This shows the statement.







                share|cite|improve this answer














                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer








                edited Mar 18 at 9:36

























                answered Mar 17 at 23:30









                Ernie060Ernie060

                2,795619




                2,795619



























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