Constructing a Universal Cover--Proving InjectivityHigher homotopy groups: Basepoint independence.Alternate construction of the universal cover of a spaceDeck transformations of universal cover are isomorphic to the fundamental group - explicitlyHow to prove that $phi:Grightarrow pi_1(X/G,p(x_0))$ is a homomorphism of groups?What does this action of $pi_1$ on the universal cover of $X$ induces a deck transformation?Inclusion of path connected component induces isomorphism between fundamental groups.Is the converse of this is true?Fundamental group of the union of subspacesWhat is the fundamental group action on universal covering?Homomorphism Induced by Inclusion is Trivial

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Constructing a Universal Cover--Proving Injectivity


Higher homotopy groups: Basepoint independence.Alternate construction of the universal cover of a spaceDeck transformations of universal cover are isomorphic to the fundamental group - explicitlyHow to prove that $phi:Grightarrow pi_1(X/G,p(x_0))$ is a homomorphism of groups?What does this action of $pi_1$ on the universal cover of $X$ induces a deck transformation?Inclusion of path connected component induces isomorphism between fundamental groups.Is the converse of this is true?Fundamental group of the union of subspacesWhat is the fundamental group action on universal covering?Homomorphism Induced by Inclusion is Trivial













0












$begingroup$


Here is a quote from Hatcher's Algebraic Topology:




Given a set $U in mathcalU$ and a path $gamma$ in $X$ from $x_0$ to a point in $U$, let $$U_[gamma] = [ gamma cdot eta ] mid eta text is a path in U text with eta (0) = gamma (1) $$ As the notation indicates, $U_[gamma]$ depends only on the homotopy class $[gamma ]$. Observe that $p : U_[gamma] to U$ is surjective since $U$ is path-connected and injective since different choices of $eta$ joining $gamma (1)$ to a fixed $x in U$ are all homotopic in $X$, the mapping $pi_1(U) to pi_1(X)$ being trivial.




See page 64 for more context. Note that $p : widetildeX to X$ is defined as $p([gamma]) = gamma (1)$, where $gamma$ is a path in $X$ starting at $x_0$. I can see that the map is surjective. However, I am having a little troubling working out the injectivity of the map.



If $iota : U to X$ denotes the canonical embedding, then the above quote says that $iota_* : pi_1 (U) to pi_1(X)$ is trivial (in fact, it is trivial for any base point). Suppose that $eta_1$ and $eta_2$ are paths in $U$ with the same starting and ending point such that $p([gamma cdot eta_1]) = p([gamma cdot eta_2])$. This implies $eta_1 (1) =eta_2 (1)$. Then $[eta_1 cdot overlineeta_2] in pi_1(U)$, so $iota_*([eta_1 cdot overlineeta_2]) = [iota circ (eta_1 cdot overlineeta_2]$ is trivial in $pi_1(X)$, which implies $iota circ eta_1 simeq iota circ eta_2$. Hatcher seems to be claiming that this implies $eta_1 simeq eta_2$. If this is what he is asserting, I don't see how to deduce that conclusion.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    No that's not what he was asserting at all, he did say "homotopic in $X$". So $iotacirc eta_1 simeq iotacirc eta_2 implies [gammaeta_1]=[gammaeta_2]$, where in this second equality everything is in $X$
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Mar 17 at 21:14











  • $begingroup$
    @Max Oh, okay. It was a slight abuse in notation that was confusing me.
    $endgroup$
    – user193319
    Mar 18 at 0:21















0












$begingroup$


Here is a quote from Hatcher's Algebraic Topology:




Given a set $U in mathcalU$ and a path $gamma$ in $X$ from $x_0$ to a point in $U$, let $$U_[gamma] = [ gamma cdot eta ] mid eta text is a path in U text with eta (0) = gamma (1) $$ As the notation indicates, $U_[gamma]$ depends only on the homotopy class $[gamma ]$. Observe that $p : U_[gamma] to U$ is surjective since $U$ is path-connected and injective since different choices of $eta$ joining $gamma (1)$ to a fixed $x in U$ are all homotopic in $X$, the mapping $pi_1(U) to pi_1(X)$ being trivial.




See page 64 for more context. Note that $p : widetildeX to X$ is defined as $p([gamma]) = gamma (1)$, where $gamma$ is a path in $X$ starting at $x_0$. I can see that the map is surjective. However, I am having a little troubling working out the injectivity of the map.



If $iota : U to X$ denotes the canonical embedding, then the above quote says that $iota_* : pi_1 (U) to pi_1(X)$ is trivial (in fact, it is trivial for any base point). Suppose that $eta_1$ and $eta_2$ are paths in $U$ with the same starting and ending point such that $p([gamma cdot eta_1]) = p([gamma cdot eta_2])$. This implies $eta_1 (1) =eta_2 (1)$. Then $[eta_1 cdot overlineeta_2] in pi_1(U)$, so $iota_*([eta_1 cdot overlineeta_2]) = [iota circ (eta_1 cdot overlineeta_2]$ is trivial in $pi_1(X)$, which implies $iota circ eta_1 simeq iota circ eta_2$. Hatcher seems to be claiming that this implies $eta_1 simeq eta_2$. If this is what he is asserting, I don't see how to deduce that conclusion.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    No that's not what he was asserting at all, he did say "homotopic in $X$". So $iotacirc eta_1 simeq iotacirc eta_2 implies [gammaeta_1]=[gammaeta_2]$, where in this second equality everything is in $X$
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Mar 17 at 21:14











  • $begingroup$
    @Max Oh, okay. It was a slight abuse in notation that was confusing me.
    $endgroup$
    – user193319
    Mar 18 at 0:21













0












0








0





$begingroup$


Here is a quote from Hatcher's Algebraic Topology:




Given a set $U in mathcalU$ and a path $gamma$ in $X$ from $x_0$ to a point in $U$, let $$U_[gamma] = [ gamma cdot eta ] mid eta text is a path in U text with eta (0) = gamma (1) $$ As the notation indicates, $U_[gamma]$ depends only on the homotopy class $[gamma ]$. Observe that $p : U_[gamma] to U$ is surjective since $U$ is path-connected and injective since different choices of $eta$ joining $gamma (1)$ to a fixed $x in U$ are all homotopic in $X$, the mapping $pi_1(U) to pi_1(X)$ being trivial.




See page 64 for more context. Note that $p : widetildeX to X$ is defined as $p([gamma]) = gamma (1)$, where $gamma$ is a path in $X$ starting at $x_0$. I can see that the map is surjective. However, I am having a little troubling working out the injectivity of the map.



If $iota : U to X$ denotes the canonical embedding, then the above quote says that $iota_* : pi_1 (U) to pi_1(X)$ is trivial (in fact, it is trivial for any base point). Suppose that $eta_1$ and $eta_2$ are paths in $U$ with the same starting and ending point such that $p([gamma cdot eta_1]) = p([gamma cdot eta_2])$. This implies $eta_1 (1) =eta_2 (1)$. Then $[eta_1 cdot overlineeta_2] in pi_1(U)$, so $iota_*([eta_1 cdot overlineeta_2]) = [iota circ (eta_1 cdot overlineeta_2]$ is trivial in $pi_1(X)$, which implies $iota circ eta_1 simeq iota circ eta_2$. Hatcher seems to be claiming that this implies $eta_1 simeq eta_2$. If this is what he is asserting, I don't see how to deduce that conclusion.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Here is a quote from Hatcher's Algebraic Topology:




Given a set $U in mathcalU$ and a path $gamma$ in $X$ from $x_0$ to a point in $U$, let $$U_[gamma] = [ gamma cdot eta ] mid eta text is a path in U text with eta (0) = gamma (1) $$ As the notation indicates, $U_[gamma]$ depends only on the homotopy class $[gamma ]$. Observe that $p : U_[gamma] to U$ is surjective since $U$ is path-connected and injective since different choices of $eta$ joining $gamma (1)$ to a fixed $x in U$ are all homotopic in $X$, the mapping $pi_1(U) to pi_1(X)$ being trivial.




See page 64 for more context. Note that $p : widetildeX to X$ is defined as $p([gamma]) = gamma (1)$, where $gamma$ is a path in $X$ starting at $x_0$. I can see that the map is surjective. However, I am having a little troubling working out the injectivity of the map.



If $iota : U to X$ denotes the canonical embedding, then the above quote says that $iota_* : pi_1 (U) to pi_1(X)$ is trivial (in fact, it is trivial for any base point). Suppose that $eta_1$ and $eta_2$ are paths in $U$ with the same starting and ending point such that $p([gamma cdot eta_1]) = p([gamma cdot eta_2])$. This implies $eta_1 (1) =eta_2 (1)$. Then $[eta_1 cdot overlineeta_2] in pi_1(U)$, so $iota_*([eta_1 cdot overlineeta_2]) = [iota circ (eta_1 cdot overlineeta_2]$ is trivial in $pi_1(X)$, which implies $iota circ eta_1 simeq iota circ eta_2$. Hatcher seems to be claiming that this implies $eta_1 simeq eta_2$. If this is what he is asserting, I don't see how to deduce that conclusion.







algebraic-topology homotopy-theory fundamental-groups






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Mar 17 at 21:02









user193319user193319

2,4532927




2,4532927







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    No that's not what he was asserting at all, he did say "homotopic in $X$". So $iotacirc eta_1 simeq iotacirc eta_2 implies [gammaeta_1]=[gammaeta_2]$, where in this second equality everything is in $X$
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Mar 17 at 21:14











  • $begingroup$
    @Max Oh, okay. It was a slight abuse in notation that was confusing me.
    $endgroup$
    – user193319
    Mar 18 at 0:21












  • 1




    $begingroup$
    No that's not what he was asserting at all, he did say "homotopic in $X$". So $iotacirc eta_1 simeq iotacirc eta_2 implies [gammaeta_1]=[gammaeta_2]$, where in this second equality everything is in $X$
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Mar 17 at 21:14











  • $begingroup$
    @Max Oh, okay. It was a slight abuse in notation that was confusing me.
    $endgroup$
    – user193319
    Mar 18 at 0:21







1




1




$begingroup$
No that's not what he was asserting at all, he did say "homotopic in $X$". So $iotacirc eta_1 simeq iotacirc eta_2 implies [gammaeta_1]=[gammaeta_2]$, where in this second equality everything is in $X$
$endgroup$
– Max
Mar 17 at 21:14





$begingroup$
No that's not what he was asserting at all, he did say "homotopic in $X$". So $iotacirc eta_1 simeq iotacirc eta_2 implies [gammaeta_1]=[gammaeta_2]$, where in this second equality everything is in $X$
$endgroup$
– Max
Mar 17 at 21:14













$begingroup$
@Max Oh, okay. It was a slight abuse in notation that was confusing me.
$endgroup$
– user193319
Mar 18 at 0:21




$begingroup$
@Max Oh, okay. It was a slight abuse in notation that was confusing me.
$endgroup$
– user193319
Mar 18 at 0:21










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