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Defining a kind of “projection of a measure” in a precise way


Is there a change of variables formula for a measure theoretic integral that does not use the Lebesgue measureLebesgue measure on $mathbbR/mathbbZ$General questions on measure spacesProof that the class of measurable functions is closed under taking limits.What axioms must a Borel measure satisfy?Defining weak* convergence of measures using compactly supported continuous functionsNormalized partial sums of normal random variables are dense in $mathbbR$Change of measure to make things “easier”?Synthesis of discrete and continous probability definitionsMeasure over intersection of set with another measureNotation for defining a measure in terms of its density?













2












$begingroup$


Suppose we have a probability measure $$mu: mathcalS times mathbbRrightarrow [0,1],$$where $mathcalS$ is some countable set. In some personal, handwritten lecture notes I'm reading it is then stated that we "take $(A,B)$ such that $(A,B) sim mu $ and consider $mathbbE[B]$".



I can't parse this sentence. So far, I've come across the "$sim$" notation only where one side was a random variable and the other a density function. But in this case that does not seem to apply.



So I'm not sure what $B$ is; it seems to be some kind of projection of $mu$ onto $mathbbR$. How can I define $B$ precisely/rigorously?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    The keyword to search for might be "marginal distribution". (I am absolutely not sure about this)
    $endgroup$
    – Giuseppe Negro
    Mar 17 at 12:34










  • $begingroup$
    Note that in my answer, i disregard that your $mu$ has domain $mathcalStimes mathbbR$ and not the product sigma algebra on that space.
    $endgroup$
    – Martin
    Mar 18 at 15:20















2












$begingroup$


Suppose we have a probability measure $$mu: mathcalS times mathbbRrightarrow [0,1],$$where $mathcalS$ is some countable set. In some personal, handwritten lecture notes I'm reading it is then stated that we "take $(A,B)$ such that $(A,B) sim mu $ and consider $mathbbE[B]$".



I can't parse this sentence. So far, I've come across the "$sim$" notation only where one side was a random variable and the other a density function. But in this case that does not seem to apply.



So I'm not sure what $B$ is; it seems to be some kind of projection of $mu$ onto $mathbbR$. How can I define $B$ precisely/rigorously?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    The keyword to search for might be "marginal distribution". (I am absolutely not sure about this)
    $endgroup$
    – Giuseppe Negro
    Mar 17 at 12:34










  • $begingroup$
    Note that in my answer, i disregard that your $mu$ has domain $mathcalStimes mathbbR$ and not the product sigma algebra on that space.
    $endgroup$
    – Martin
    Mar 18 at 15:20













2












2








2





$begingroup$


Suppose we have a probability measure $$mu: mathcalS times mathbbRrightarrow [0,1],$$where $mathcalS$ is some countable set. In some personal, handwritten lecture notes I'm reading it is then stated that we "take $(A,B)$ such that $(A,B) sim mu $ and consider $mathbbE[B]$".



I can't parse this sentence. So far, I've come across the "$sim$" notation only where one side was a random variable and the other a density function. But in this case that does not seem to apply.



So I'm not sure what $B$ is; it seems to be some kind of projection of $mu$ onto $mathbbR$. How can I define $B$ precisely/rigorously?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Suppose we have a probability measure $$mu: mathcalS times mathbbRrightarrow [0,1],$$where $mathcalS$ is some countable set. In some personal, handwritten lecture notes I'm reading it is then stated that we "take $(A,B)$ such that $(A,B) sim mu $ and consider $mathbbE[B]$".



I can't parse this sentence. So far, I've come across the "$sim$" notation only where one side was a random variable and the other a density function. But in this case that does not seem to apply.



So I'm not sure what $B$ is; it seems to be some kind of projection of $mu$ onto $mathbbR$. How can I define $B$ precisely/rigorously?







probability-theory measure-theory products projection






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Mar 17 at 12:29









temotemo

1,8231648




1,8231648











  • $begingroup$
    The keyword to search for might be "marginal distribution". (I am absolutely not sure about this)
    $endgroup$
    – Giuseppe Negro
    Mar 17 at 12:34










  • $begingroup$
    Note that in my answer, i disregard that your $mu$ has domain $mathcalStimes mathbbR$ and not the product sigma algebra on that space.
    $endgroup$
    – Martin
    Mar 18 at 15:20
















  • $begingroup$
    The keyword to search for might be "marginal distribution". (I am absolutely not sure about this)
    $endgroup$
    – Giuseppe Negro
    Mar 17 at 12:34










  • $begingroup$
    Note that in my answer, i disregard that your $mu$ has domain $mathcalStimes mathbbR$ and not the product sigma algebra on that space.
    $endgroup$
    – Martin
    Mar 18 at 15:20















$begingroup$
The keyword to search for might be "marginal distribution". (I am absolutely not sure about this)
$endgroup$
– Giuseppe Negro
Mar 17 at 12:34




$begingroup$
The keyword to search for might be "marginal distribution". (I am absolutely not sure about this)
$endgroup$
– Giuseppe Negro
Mar 17 at 12:34












$begingroup$
Note that in my answer, i disregard that your $mu$ has domain $mathcalStimes mathbbR$ and not the product sigma algebra on that space.
$endgroup$
– Martin
Mar 18 at 15:20




$begingroup$
Note that in my answer, i disregard that your $mu$ has domain $mathcalStimes mathbbR$ and not the product sigma algebra on that space.
$endgroup$
– Martin
Mar 18 at 15:20










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

Normally when you have a probability measure $nu$ on some measure space $(mathcalS,mathcalF,nu)$ and you write "let $X$ be a random variable with $Xsim nu$", then it just means that $X$ is a measurable mapping from some probability space $(Omega,mathcalH,P)$ such that $X(P)=nu$. In other words $nu$ is the distribution of $X$.



In your case you are given a probability measure $mu$ on the product space $mathcalStimes mathbbR$. When we now say that $(A,B) sim mu$, we simply mean that $A,B$ are random variables/elements defined on some common probability space $(Omega,mathcalH,P)$ such that the pushforward measure $(A,B)(P)=mu$, that is $mu$ is the simultaneous distribution of $A$ and $B$. Here $(A,B)(P)$ is the pushforward measure of $P$ with the bundle map $omegamapsto(A(omega),B(omega))inmathcalStimesmathbbR$. Constructing the bundle $(A,B)$ like this, will yield that the marginal distributions are given by $Asim pi_1(mu)$ and $B sim pi_2(mu)$



Similarly we can arrive at the following representation of the expectation of $B$:
beginalign*
E(B) &= int_Omega B(omega) , dP(omega) \
&= int_Omega pi_2(A(omega),B(omega)) , dP(omega)\
&=int_mathcalStimes mathbbR pi_2(a,b) , d(A,B)(P)(a,b)\
&= int_mathcalStimes mathbbR pi_2(a,b) , dmu(a,b) \
&= int_ mathbbR b , d pi_2(mu)(b)
endalign*

where we used the abstract change of variable theorem, and that $pi_2$ is the coordinate projection onto the second coordinate, that is $pi_2 :mathcalStimes mathbbRto mathbbR$ given by $pi_2(s,x) =x$ for any $(s,x)inmathcalStimes mathbbR$.



One way to construct $A$ and $B$ rigorously is to let the common probability space be given by $(mathcalStimes mathbbR, mathcalB(mathcal(S))otimes mathcalB(mathbbR),mu)$ and now define the random variables/elements as $A=pi_1$ and $B=pi_2$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$




















    1












    $begingroup$

    My guess is that $ mu $ is a form of probability mass-distribution function, and "$ (A,B) sim mu $" means that $ A $ and $ B $ are random variables jointly distributed according to $ mu $:
    $$ mathrmProbleft( leftA = sright & lefty<Ble xrightright) = muleft(s,xright) - muleft(s,yright) .$$
    The distribution function $ F_B $ of $ B $ would then be given by $ F_Bleft(xright) = displaystylesum_sinmathcalSmuleft(s,xright) $, and $ mathbbEleft[Bright] $ by the Lebesgue-Stieljes integral
    $$mathbbEleft[Bright] = int_-infty^infty x dF_Bleft(xright) .$$






    share|cite|improve this answer











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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      1












      $begingroup$

      Normally when you have a probability measure $nu$ on some measure space $(mathcalS,mathcalF,nu)$ and you write "let $X$ be a random variable with $Xsim nu$", then it just means that $X$ is a measurable mapping from some probability space $(Omega,mathcalH,P)$ such that $X(P)=nu$. In other words $nu$ is the distribution of $X$.



      In your case you are given a probability measure $mu$ on the product space $mathcalStimes mathbbR$. When we now say that $(A,B) sim mu$, we simply mean that $A,B$ are random variables/elements defined on some common probability space $(Omega,mathcalH,P)$ such that the pushforward measure $(A,B)(P)=mu$, that is $mu$ is the simultaneous distribution of $A$ and $B$. Here $(A,B)(P)$ is the pushforward measure of $P$ with the bundle map $omegamapsto(A(omega),B(omega))inmathcalStimesmathbbR$. Constructing the bundle $(A,B)$ like this, will yield that the marginal distributions are given by $Asim pi_1(mu)$ and $B sim pi_2(mu)$



      Similarly we can arrive at the following representation of the expectation of $B$:
      beginalign*
      E(B) &= int_Omega B(omega) , dP(omega) \
      &= int_Omega pi_2(A(omega),B(omega)) , dP(omega)\
      &=int_mathcalStimes mathbbR pi_2(a,b) , d(A,B)(P)(a,b)\
      &= int_mathcalStimes mathbbR pi_2(a,b) , dmu(a,b) \
      &= int_ mathbbR b , d pi_2(mu)(b)
      endalign*

      where we used the abstract change of variable theorem, and that $pi_2$ is the coordinate projection onto the second coordinate, that is $pi_2 :mathcalStimes mathbbRto mathbbR$ given by $pi_2(s,x) =x$ for any $(s,x)inmathcalStimes mathbbR$.



      One way to construct $A$ and $B$ rigorously is to let the common probability space be given by $(mathcalStimes mathbbR, mathcalB(mathcal(S))otimes mathcalB(mathbbR),mu)$ and now define the random variables/elements as $A=pi_1$ and $B=pi_2$.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$

















        1












        $begingroup$

        Normally when you have a probability measure $nu$ on some measure space $(mathcalS,mathcalF,nu)$ and you write "let $X$ be a random variable with $Xsim nu$", then it just means that $X$ is a measurable mapping from some probability space $(Omega,mathcalH,P)$ such that $X(P)=nu$. In other words $nu$ is the distribution of $X$.



        In your case you are given a probability measure $mu$ on the product space $mathcalStimes mathbbR$. When we now say that $(A,B) sim mu$, we simply mean that $A,B$ are random variables/elements defined on some common probability space $(Omega,mathcalH,P)$ such that the pushforward measure $(A,B)(P)=mu$, that is $mu$ is the simultaneous distribution of $A$ and $B$. Here $(A,B)(P)$ is the pushforward measure of $P$ with the bundle map $omegamapsto(A(omega),B(omega))inmathcalStimesmathbbR$. Constructing the bundle $(A,B)$ like this, will yield that the marginal distributions are given by $Asim pi_1(mu)$ and $B sim pi_2(mu)$



        Similarly we can arrive at the following representation of the expectation of $B$:
        beginalign*
        E(B) &= int_Omega B(omega) , dP(omega) \
        &= int_Omega pi_2(A(omega),B(omega)) , dP(omega)\
        &=int_mathcalStimes mathbbR pi_2(a,b) , d(A,B)(P)(a,b)\
        &= int_mathcalStimes mathbbR pi_2(a,b) , dmu(a,b) \
        &= int_ mathbbR b , d pi_2(mu)(b)
        endalign*

        where we used the abstract change of variable theorem, and that $pi_2$ is the coordinate projection onto the second coordinate, that is $pi_2 :mathcalStimes mathbbRto mathbbR$ given by $pi_2(s,x) =x$ for any $(s,x)inmathcalStimes mathbbR$.



        One way to construct $A$ and $B$ rigorously is to let the common probability space be given by $(mathcalStimes mathbbR, mathcalB(mathcal(S))otimes mathcalB(mathbbR),mu)$ and now define the random variables/elements as $A=pi_1$ and $B=pi_2$.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$















          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          Normally when you have a probability measure $nu$ on some measure space $(mathcalS,mathcalF,nu)$ and you write "let $X$ be a random variable with $Xsim nu$", then it just means that $X$ is a measurable mapping from some probability space $(Omega,mathcalH,P)$ such that $X(P)=nu$. In other words $nu$ is the distribution of $X$.



          In your case you are given a probability measure $mu$ on the product space $mathcalStimes mathbbR$. When we now say that $(A,B) sim mu$, we simply mean that $A,B$ are random variables/elements defined on some common probability space $(Omega,mathcalH,P)$ such that the pushforward measure $(A,B)(P)=mu$, that is $mu$ is the simultaneous distribution of $A$ and $B$. Here $(A,B)(P)$ is the pushforward measure of $P$ with the bundle map $omegamapsto(A(omega),B(omega))inmathcalStimesmathbbR$. Constructing the bundle $(A,B)$ like this, will yield that the marginal distributions are given by $Asim pi_1(mu)$ and $B sim pi_2(mu)$



          Similarly we can arrive at the following representation of the expectation of $B$:
          beginalign*
          E(B) &= int_Omega B(omega) , dP(omega) \
          &= int_Omega pi_2(A(omega),B(omega)) , dP(omega)\
          &=int_mathcalStimes mathbbR pi_2(a,b) , d(A,B)(P)(a,b)\
          &= int_mathcalStimes mathbbR pi_2(a,b) , dmu(a,b) \
          &= int_ mathbbR b , d pi_2(mu)(b)
          endalign*

          where we used the abstract change of variable theorem, and that $pi_2$ is the coordinate projection onto the second coordinate, that is $pi_2 :mathcalStimes mathbbRto mathbbR$ given by $pi_2(s,x) =x$ for any $(s,x)inmathcalStimes mathbbR$.



          One way to construct $A$ and $B$ rigorously is to let the common probability space be given by $(mathcalStimes mathbbR, mathcalB(mathcal(S))otimes mathcalB(mathbbR),mu)$ and now define the random variables/elements as $A=pi_1$ and $B=pi_2$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          Normally when you have a probability measure $nu$ on some measure space $(mathcalS,mathcalF,nu)$ and you write "let $X$ be a random variable with $Xsim nu$", then it just means that $X$ is a measurable mapping from some probability space $(Omega,mathcalH,P)$ such that $X(P)=nu$. In other words $nu$ is the distribution of $X$.



          In your case you are given a probability measure $mu$ on the product space $mathcalStimes mathbbR$. When we now say that $(A,B) sim mu$, we simply mean that $A,B$ are random variables/elements defined on some common probability space $(Omega,mathcalH,P)$ such that the pushforward measure $(A,B)(P)=mu$, that is $mu$ is the simultaneous distribution of $A$ and $B$. Here $(A,B)(P)$ is the pushforward measure of $P$ with the bundle map $omegamapsto(A(omega),B(omega))inmathcalStimesmathbbR$. Constructing the bundle $(A,B)$ like this, will yield that the marginal distributions are given by $Asim pi_1(mu)$ and $B sim pi_2(mu)$



          Similarly we can arrive at the following representation of the expectation of $B$:
          beginalign*
          E(B) &= int_Omega B(omega) , dP(omega) \
          &= int_Omega pi_2(A(omega),B(omega)) , dP(omega)\
          &=int_mathcalStimes mathbbR pi_2(a,b) , d(A,B)(P)(a,b)\
          &= int_mathcalStimes mathbbR pi_2(a,b) , dmu(a,b) \
          &= int_ mathbbR b , d pi_2(mu)(b)
          endalign*

          where we used the abstract change of variable theorem, and that $pi_2$ is the coordinate projection onto the second coordinate, that is $pi_2 :mathcalStimes mathbbRto mathbbR$ given by $pi_2(s,x) =x$ for any $(s,x)inmathcalStimes mathbbR$.



          One way to construct $A$ and $B$ rigorously is to let the common probability space be given by $(mathcalStimes mathbbR, mathcalB(mathcal(S))otimes mathcalB(mathbbR),mu)$ and now define the random variables/elements as $A=pi_1$ and $B=pi_2$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Mar 17 at 13:22

























          answered Mar 17 at 13:15









          MartinMartin

          1,1811019




          1,1811019





















              1












              $begingroup$

              My guess is that $ mu $ is a form of probability mass-distribution function, and "$ (A,B) sim mu $" means that $ A $ and $ B $ are random variables jointly distributed according to $ mu $:
              $$ mathrmProbleft( leftA = sright & lefty<Ble xrightright) = muleft(s,xright) - muleft(s,yright) .$$
              The distribution function $ F_B $ of $ B $ would then be given by $ F_Bleft(xright) = displaystylesum_sinmathcalSmuleft(s,xright) $, and $ mathbbEleft[Bright] $ by the Lebesgue-Stieljes integral
              $$mathbbEleft[Bright] = int_-infty^infty x dF_Bleft(xright) .$$






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$

















                1












                $begingroup$

                My guess is that $ mu $ is a form of probability mass-distribution function, and "$ (A,B) sim mu $" means that $ A $ and $ B $ are random variables jointly distributed according to $ mu $:
                $$ mathrmProbleft( leftA = sright & lefty<Ble xrightright) = muleft(s,xright) - muleft(s,yright) .$$
                The distribution function $ F_B $ of $ B $ would then be given by $ F_Bleft(xright) = displaystylesum_sinmathcalSmuleft(s,xright) $, and $ mathbbEleft[Bright] $ by the Lebesgue-Stieljes integral
                $$mathbbEleft[Bright] = int_-infty^infty x dF_Bleft(xright) .$$






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$















                  1












                  1








                  1





                  $begingroup$

                  My guess is that $ mu $ is a form of probability mass-distribution function, and "$ (A,B) sim mu $" means that $ A $ and $ B $ are random variables jointly distributed according to $ mu $:
                  $$ mathrmProbleft( leftA = sright & lefty<Ble xrightright) = muleft(s,xright) - muleft(s,yright) .$$
                  The distribution function $ F_B $ of $ B $ would then be given by $ F_Bleft(xright) = displaystylesum_sinmathcalSmuleft(s,xright) $, and $ mathbbEleft[Bright] $ by the Lebesgue-Stieljes integral
                  $$mathbbEleft[Bright] = int_-infty^infty x dF_Bleft(xright) .$$






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$



                  My guess is that $ mu $ is a form of probability mass-distribution function, and "$ (A,B) sim mu $" means that $ A $ and $ B $ are random variables jointly distributed according to $ mu $:
                  $$ mathrmProbleft( leftA = sright & lefty<Ble xrightright) = muleft(s,xright) - muleft(s,yright) .$$
                  The distribution function $ F_B $ of $ B $ would then be given by $ F_Bleft(xright) = displaystylesum_sinmathcalSmuleft(s,xright) $, and $ mathbbEleft[Bright] $ by the Lebesgue-Stieljes integral
                  $$mathbbEleft[Bright] = int_-infty^infty x dF_Bleft(xright) .$$







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Mar 17 at 13:34

























                  answered Mar 17 at 13:20









                  lonza leggieralonza leggiera

                  1,20828




                  1,20828



























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                      How should I support this large drywall patch? Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern) Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Unicorn Meta Zoo #1: Why another podcast?How do I cover large gaps in drywall?How do I keep drywall around a patch from crumbling?Can I glue a second layer of drywall?How to patch long strip on drywall?Large drywall patch: how to avoid bulging seams?Drywall Mesh Patch vs. Bulge? To remove or not to remove?How to fix this drywall job?Prep drywall before backsplashWhat's the best way to fix this horrible drywall patch job?Drywall patching using 3M Patch Plus Primer