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Defining a kind of “projection of a measure” in a precise way


Is there a change of variables formula for a measure theoretic integral that does not use the Lebesgue measureLebesgue measure on $mathbbR/mathbbZ$General questions on measure spacesProof that the class of measurable functions is closed under taking limits.What axioms must a Borel measure satisfy?Defining weak* convergence of measures using compactly supported continuous functionsNormalized partial sums of normal random variables are dense in $mathbbR$Change of measure to make things “easier”?Synthesis of discrete and continous probability definitionsMeasure over intersection of set with another measureNotation for defining a measure in terms of its density?













2












$begingroup$


Suppose we have a probability measure $$mu: mathcalS times mathbbRrightarrow [0,1],$$where $mathcalS$ is some countable set. In some personal, handwritten lecture notes I'm reading it is then stated that we "take $(A,B)$ such that $(A,B) sim mu $ and consider $mathbbE[B]$".



I can't parse this sentence. So far, I've come across the "$sim$" notation only where one side was a random variable and the other a density function. But in this case that does not seem to apply.



So I'm not sure what $B$ is; it seems to be some kind of projection of $mu$ onto $mathbbR$. How can I define $B$ precisely/rigorously?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    The keyword to search for might be "marginal distribution". (I am absolutely not sure about this)
    $endgroup$
    – Giuseppe Negro
    Mar 17 at 12:34










  • $begingroup$
    Note that in my answer, i disregard that your $mu$ has domain $mathcalStimes mathbbR$ and not the product sigma algebra on that space.
    $endgroup$
    – Martin
    Mar 18 at 15:20















2












$begingroup$


Suppose we have a probability measure $$mu: mathcalS times mathbbRrightarrow [0,1],$$where $mathcalS$ is some countable set. In some personal, handwritten lecture notes I'm reading it is then stated that we "take $(A,B)$ such that $(A,B) sim mu $ and consider $mathbbE[B]$".



I can't parse this sentence. So far, I've come across the "$sim$" notation only where one side was a random variable and the other a density function. But in this case that does not seem to apply.



So I'm not sure what $B$ is; it seems to be some kind of projection of $mu$ onto $mathbbR$. How can I define $B$ precisely/rigorously?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    The keyword to search for might be "marginal distribution". (I am absolutely not sure about this)
    $endgroup$
    – Giuseppe Negro
    Mar 17 at 12:34










  • $begingroup$
    Note that in my answer, i disregard that your $mu$ has domain $mathcalStimes mathbbR$ and not the product sigma algebra on that space.
    $endgroup$
    – Martin
    Mar 18 at 15:20













2












2








2





$begingroup$


Suppose we have a probability measure $$mu: mathcalS times mathbbRrightarrow [0,1],$$where $mathcalS$ is some countable set. In some personal, handwritten lecture notes I'm reading it is then stated that we "take $(A,B)$ such that $(A,B) sim mu $ and consider $mathbbE[B]$".



I can't parse this sentence. So far, I've come across the "$sim$" notation only where one side was a random variable and the other a density function. But in this case that does not seem to apply.



So I'm not sure what $B$ is; it seems to be some kind of projection of $mu$ onto $mathbbR$. How can I define $B$ precisely/rigorously?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Suppose we have a probability measure $$mu: mathcalS times mathbbRrightarrow [0,1],$$where $mathcalS$ is some countable set. In some personal, handwritten lecture notes I'm reading it is then stated that we "take $(A,B)$ such that $(A,B) sim mu $ and consider $mathbbE[B]$".



I can't parse this sentence. So far, I've come across the "$sim$" notation only where one side was a random variable and the other a density function. But in this case that does not seem to apply.



So I'm not sure what $B$ is; it seems to be some kind of projection of $mu$ onto $mathbbR$. How can I define $B$ precisely/rigorously?







probability-theory measure-theory products projection






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Mar 17 at 12:29









temotemo

1,8231648




1,8231648











  • $begingroup$
    The keyword to search for might be "marginal distribution". (I am absolutely not sure about this)
    $endgroup$
    – Giuseppe Negro
    Mar 17 at 12:34










  • $begingroup$
    Note that in my answer, i disregard that your $mu$ has domain $mathcalStimes mathbbR$ and not the product sigma algebra on that space.
    $endgroup$
    – Martin
    Mar 18 at 15:20
















  • $begingroup$
    The keyword to search for might be "marginal distribution". (I am absolutely not sure about this)
    $endgroup$
    – Giuseppe Negro
    Mar 17 at 12:34










  • $begingroup$
    Note that in my answer, i disregard that your $mu$ has domain $mathcalStimes mathbbR$ and not the product sigma algebra on that space.
    $endgroup$
    – Martin
    Mar 18 at 15:20















$begingroup$
The keyword to search for might be "marginal distribution". (I am absolutely not sure about this)
$endgroup$
– Giuseppe Negro
Mar 17 at 12:34




$begingroup$
The keyword to search for might be "marginal distribution". (I am absolutely not sure about this)
$endgroup$
– Giuseppe Negro
Mar 17 at 12:34












$begingroup$
Note that in my answer, i disregard that your $mu$ has domain $mathcalStimes mathbbR$ and not the product sigma algebra on that space.
$endgroup$
– Martin
Mar 18 at 15:20




$begingroup$
Note that in my answer, i disregard that your $mu$ has domain $mathcalStimes mathbbR$ and not the product sigma algebra on that space.
$endgroup$
– Martin
Mar 18 at 15:20










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

Normally when you have a probability measure $nu$ on some measure space $(mathcalS,mathcalF,nu)$ and you write "let $X$ be a random variable with $Xsim nu$", then it just means that $X$ is a measurable mapping from some probability space $(Omega,mathcalH,P)$ such that $X(P)=nu$. In other words $nu$ is the distribution of $X$.



In your case you are given a probability measure $mu$ on the product space $mathcalStimes mathbbR$. When we now say that $(A,B) sim mu$, we simply mean that $A,B$ are random variables/elements defined on some common probability space $(Omega,mathcalH,P)$ such that the pushforward measure $(A,B)(P)=mu$, that is $mu$ is the simultaneous distribution of $A$ and $B$. Here $(A,B)(P)$ is the pushforward measure of $P$ with the bundle map $omegamapsto(A(omega),B(omega))inmathcalStimesmathbbR$. Constructing the bundle $(A,B)$ like this, will yield that the marginal distributions are given by $Asim pi_1(mu)$ and $B sim pi_2(mu)$



Similarly we can arrive at the following representation of the expectation of $B$:
beginalign*
E(B) &= int_Omega B(omega) , dP(omega) \
&= int_Omega pi_2(A(omega),B(omega)) , dP(omega)\
&=int_mathcalStimes mathbbR pi_2(a,b) , d(A,B)(P)(a,b)\
&= int_mathcalStimes mathbbR pi_2(a,b) , dmu(a,b) \
&= int_ mathbbR b , d pi_2(mu)(b)
endalign*

where we used the abstract change of variable theorem, and that $pi_2$ is the coordinate projection onto the second coordinate, that is $pi_2 :mathcalStimes mathbbRto mathbbR$ given by $pi_2(s,x) =x$ for any $(s,x)inmathcalStimes mathbbR$.



One way to construct $A$ and $B$ rigorously is to let the common probability space be given by $(mathcalStimes mathbbR, mathcalB(mathcal(S))otimes mathcalB(mathbbR),mu)$ and now define the random variables/elements as $A=pi_1$ and $B=pi_2$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$




















    1












    $begingroup$

    My guess is that $ mu $ is a form of probability mass-distribution function, and "$ (A,B) sim mu $" means that $ A $ and $ B $ are random variables jointly distributed according to $ mu $:
    $$ mathrmProbleft( leftA = sright & lefty<Ble xrightright) = muleft(s,xright) - muleft(s,yright) .$$
    The distribution function $ F_B $ of $ B $ would then be given by $ F_Bleft(xright) = displaystylesum_sinmathcalSmuleft(s,xright) $, and $ mathbbEleft[Bright] $ by the Lebesgue-Stieljes integral
    $$mathbbEleft[Bright] = int_-infty^infty x dF_Bleft(xright) .$$






    share|cite|improve this answer











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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes








      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      1












      $begingroup$

      Normally when you have a probability measure $nu$ on some measure space $(mathcalS,mathcalF,nu)$ and you write "let $X$ be a random variable with $Xsim nu$", then it just means that $X$ is a measurable mapping from some probability space $(Omega,mathcalH,P)$ such that $X(P)=nu$. In other words $nu$ is the distribution of $X$.



      In your case you are given a probability measure $mu$ on the product space $mathcalStimes mathbbR$. When we now say that $(A,B) sim mu$, we simply mean that $A,B$ are random variables/elements defined on some common probability space $(Omega,mathcalH,P)$ such that the pushforward measure $(A,B)(P)=mu$, that is $mu$ is the simultaneous distribution of $A$ and $B$. Here $(A,B)(P)$ is the pushforward measure of $P$ with the bundle map $omegamapsto(A(omega),B(omega))inmathcalStimesmathbbR$. Constructing the bundle $(A,B)$ like this, will yield that the marginal distributions are given by $Asim pi_1(mu)$ and $B sim pi_2(mu)$



      Similarly we can arrive at the following representation of the expectation of $B$:
      beginalign*
      E(B) &= int_Omega B(omega) , dP(omega) \
      &= int_Omega pi_2(A(omega),B(omega)) , dP(omega)\
      &=int_mathcalStimes mathbbR pi_2(a,b) , d(A,B)(P)(a,b)\
      &= int_mathcalStimes mathbbR pi_2(a,b) , dmu(a,b) \
      &= int_ mathbbR b , d pi_2(mu)(b)
      endalign*

      where we used the abstract change of variable theorem, and that $pi_2$ is the coordinate projection onto the second coordinate, that is $pi_2 :mathcalStimes mathbbRto mathbbR$ given by $pi_2(s,x) =x$ for any $(s,x)inmathcalStimes mathbbR$.



      One way to construct $A$ and $B$ rigorously is to let the common probability space be given by $(mathcalStimes mathbbR, mathcalB(mathcal(S))otimes mathcalB(mathbbR),mu)$ and now define the random variables/elements as $A=pi_1$ and $B=pi_2$.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$

















        1












        $begingroup$

        Normally when you have a probability measure $nu$ on some measure space $(mathcalS,mathcalF,nu)$ and you write "let $X$ be a random variable with $Xsim nu$", then it just means that $X$ is a measurable mapping from some probability space $(Omega,mathcalH,P)$ such that $X(P)=nu$. In other words $nu$ is the distribution of $X$.



        In your case you are given a probability measure $mu$ on the product space $mathcalStimes mathbbR$. When we now say that $(A,B) sim mu$, we simply mean that $A,B$ are random variables/elements defined on some common probability space $(Omega,mathcalH,P)$ such that the pushforward measure $(A,B)(P)=mu$, that is $mu$ is the simultaneous distribution of $A$ and $B$. Here $(A,B)(P)$ is the pushforward measure of $P$ with the bundle map $omegamapsto(A(omega),B(omega))inmathcalStimesmathbbR$. Constructing the bundle $(A,B)$ like this, will yield that the marginal distributions are given by $Asim pi_1(mu)$ and $B sim pi_2(mu)$



        Similarly we can arrive at the following representation of the expectation of $B$:
        beginalign*
        E(B) &= int_Omega B(omega) , dP(omega) \
        &= int_Omega pi_2(A(omega),B(omega)) , dP(omega)\
        &=int_mathcalStimes mathbbR pi_2(a,b) , d(A,B)(P)(a,b)\
        &= int_mathcalStimes mathbbR pi_2(a,b) , dmu(a,b) \
        &= int_ mathbbR b , d pi_2(mu)(b)
        endalign*

        where we used the abstract change of variable theorem, and that $pi_2$ is the coordinate projection onto the second coordinate, that is $pi_2 :mathcalStimes mathbbRto mathbbR$ given by $pi_2(s,x) =x$ for any $(s,x)inmathcalStimes mathbbR$.



        One way to construct $A$ and $B$ rigorously is to let the common probability space be given by $(mathcalStimes mathbbR, mathcalB(mathcal(S))otimes mathcalB(mathbbR),mu)$ and now define the random variables/elements as $A=pi_1$ and $B=pi_2$.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$















          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          Normally when you have a probability measure $nu$ on some measure space $(mathcalS,mathcalF,nu)$ and you write "let $X$ be a random variable with $Xsim nu$", then it just means that $X$ is a measurable mapping from some probability space $(Omega,mathcalH,P)$ such that $X(P)=nu$. In other words $nu$ is the distribution of $X$.



          In your case you are given a probability measure $mu$ on the product space $mathcalStimes mathbbR$. When we now say that $(A,B) sim mu$, we simply mean that $A,B$ are random variables/elements defined on some common probability space $(Omega,mathcalH,P)$ such that the pushforward measure $(A,B)(P)=mu$, that is $mu$ is the simultaneous distribution of $A$ and $B$. Here $(A,B)(P)$ is the pushforward measure of $P$ with the bundle map $omegamapsto(A(omega),B(omega))inmathcalStimesmathbbR$. Constructing the bundle $(A,B)$ like this, will yield that the marginal distributions are given by $Asim pi_1(mu)$ and $B sim pi_2(mu)$



          Similarly we can arrive at the following representation of the expectation of $B$:
          beginalign*
          E(B) &= int_Omega B(omega) , dP(omega) \
          &= int_Omega pi_2(A(omega),B(omega)) , dP(omega)\
          &=int_mathcalStimes mathbbR pi_2(a,b) , d(A,B)(P)(a,b)\
          &= int_mathcalStimes mathbbR pi_2(a,b) , dmu(a,b) \
          &= int_ mathbbR b , d pi_2(mu)(b)
          endalign*

          where we used the abstract change of variable theorem, and that $pi_2$ is the coordinate projection onto the second coordinate, that is $pi_2 :mathcalStimes mathbbRto mathbbR$ given by $pi_2(s,x) =x$ for any $(s,x)inmathcalStimes mathbbR$.



          One way to construct $A$ and $B$ rigorously is to let the common probability space be given by $(mathcalStimes mathbbR, mathcalB(mathcal(S))otimes mathcalB(mathbbR),mu)$ and now define the random variables/elements as $A=pi_1$ and $B=pi_2$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          Normally when you have a probability measure $nu$ on some measure space $(mathcalS,mathcalF,nu)$ and you write "let $X$ be a random variable with $Xsim nu$", then it just means that $X$ is a measurable mapping from some probability space $(Omega,mathcalH,P)$ such that $X(P)=nu$. In other words $nu$ is the distribution of $X$.



          In your case you are given a probability measure $mu$ on the product space $mathcalStimes mathbbR$. When we now say that $(A,B) sim mu$, we simply mean that $A,B$ are random variables/elements defined on some common probability space $(Omega,mathcalH,P)$ such that the pushforward measure $(A,B)(P)=mu$, that is $mu$ is the simultaneous distribution of $A$ and $B$. Here $(A,B)(P)$ is the pushforward measure of $P$ with the bundle map $omegamapsto(A(omega),B(omega))inmathcalStimesmathbbR$. Constructing the bundle $(A,B)$ like this, will yield that the marginal distributions are given by $Asim pi_1(mu)$ and $B sim pi_2(mu)$



          Similarly we can arrive at the following representation of the expectation of $B$:
          beginalign*
          E(B) &= int_Omega B(omega) , dP(omega) \
          &= int_Omega pi_2(A(omega),B(omega)) , dP(omega)\
          &=int_mathcalStimes mathbbR pi_2(a,b) , d(A,B)(P)(a,b)\
          &= int_mathcalStimes mathbbR pi_2(a,b) , dmu(a,b) \
          &= int_ mathbbR b , d pi_2(mu)(b)
          endalign*

          where we used the abstract change of variable theorem, and that $pi_2$ is the coordinate projection onto the second coordinate, that is $pi_2 :mathcalStimes mathbbRto mathbbR$ given by $pi_2(s,x) =x$ for any $(s,x)inmathcalStimes mathbbR$.



          One way to construct $A$ and $B$ rigorously is to let the common probability space be given by $(mathcalStimes mathbbR, mathcalB(mathcal(S))otimes mathcalB(mathbbR),mu)$ and now define the random variables/elements as $A=pi_1$ and $B=pi_2$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Mar 17 at 13:22

























          answered Mar 17 at 13:15









          MartinMartin

          1,1811019




          1,1811019





















              1












              $begingroup$

              My guess is that $ mu $ is a form of probability mass-distribution function, and "$ (A,B) sim mu $" means that $ A $ and $ B $ are random variables jointly distributed according to $ mu $:
              $$ mathrmProbleft( leftA = sright & lefty<Ble xrightright) = muleft(s,xright) - muleft(s,yright) .$$
              The distribution function $ F_B $ of $ B $ would then be given by $ F_Bleft(xright) = displaystylesum_sinmathcalSmuleft(s,xright) $, and $ mathbbEleft[Bright] $ by the Lebesgue-Stieljes integral
              $$mathbbEleft[Bright] = int_-infty^infty x dF_Bleft(xright) .$$






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$

















                1












                $begingroup$

                My guess is that $ mu $ is a form of probability mass-distribution function, and "$ (A,B) sim mu $" means that $ A $ and $ B $ are random variables jointly distributed according to $ mu $:
                $$ mathrmProbleft( leftA = sright & lefty<Ble xrightright) = muleft(s,xright) - muleft(s,yright) .$$
                The distribution function $ F_B $ of $ B $ would then be given by $ F_Bleft(xright) = displaystylesum_sinmathcalSmuleft(s,xright) $, and $ mathbbEleft[Bright] $ by the Lebesgue-Stieljes integral
                $$mathbbEleft[Bright] = int_-infty^infty x dF_Bleft(xright) .$$






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$















                  1












                  1








                  1





                  $begingroup$

                  My guess is that $ mu $ is a form of probability mass-distribution function, and "$ (A,B) sim mu $" means that $ A $ and $ B $ are random variables jointly distributed according to $ mu $:
                  $$ mathrmProbleft( leftA = sright & lefty<Ble xrightright) = muleft(s,xright) - muleft(s,yright) .$$
                  The distribution function $ F_B $ of $ B $ would then be given by $ F_Bleft(xright) = displaystylesum_sinmathcalSmuleft(s,xright) $, and $ mathbbEleft[Bright] $ by the Lebesgue-Stieljes integral
                  $$mathbbEleft[Bright] = int_-infty^infty x dF_Bleft(xright) .$$






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$



                  My guess is that $ mu $ is a form of probability mass-distribution function, and "$ (A,B) sim mu $" means that $ A $ and $ B $ are random variables jointly distributed according to $ mu $:
                  $$ mathrmProbleft( leftA = sright & lefty<Ble xrightright) = muleft(s,xright) - muleft(s,yright) .$$
                  The distribution function $ F_B $ of $ B $ would then be given by $ F_Bleft(xright) = displaystylesum_sinmathcalSmuleft(s,xright) $, and $ mathbbEleft[Bright] $ by the Lebesgue-Stieljes integral
                  $$mathbbEleft[Bright] = int_-infty^infty x dF_Bleft(xright) .$$







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Mar 17 at 13:34

























                  answered Mar 17 at 13:20









                  lonza leggieralonza leggiera

                  1,20828




                  1,20828



























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                      Lowndes Grove History Architecture References Navigation menu32°48′6″N 79°57′58″W / 32.80167°N 79.96611°W / 32.80167; -79.9661132°48′6″N 79°57′58″W / 32.80167°N 79.96611°W / 32.80167; -79.9661178002500"National Register Information System"Historic houses of South Carolina"Lowndes Grove""+32° 48' 6.00", −79° 57' 58.00""Lowndes Grove, Charleston County (260 St. Margaret St., Charleston)""Lowndes Grove"The Charleston ExpositionIt Happened in South Carolina"Lowndes Grove (House), Saint Margaret Street & Sixth Avenue, Charleston, Charleston County, SC(Photographs)"Plantations of the Carolina Low Countrye