Question regarding Weierstrass theorem generalized to Stone-WeierstrassStone-Weierstrass implies Fourier expansionQuestion about Stone-Weierstrass theoremVersion of Stone Weierstrass for functions not vanishing at infinityCounter example to Stone Weierstrass TheoremUrysohn's Lemma, Stone-WeierstrassA density proof not via Stone-WeierstrassDoes Stone-Weierstrass hold for sets of functions that only separate points on a dense subspace?Stone-Weierstrass complex theoremDoes the algebra of real valued functions in Stone-Weierstrass Thm. equal to the set of polynomials?Using Stone-Weierstrass Theorem to show that trig polynomials are dense in $L^2([0,2pi])$

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Question regarding Weierstrass theorem generalized to Stone-Weierstrass


Stone-Weierstrass implies Fourier expansionQuestion about Stone-Weierstrass theoremVersion of Stone Weierstrass for functions not vanishing at infinityCounter example to Stone Weierstrass TheoremUrysohn's Lemma, Stone-WeierstrassA density proof not via Stone-WeierstrassDoes Stone-Weierstrass hold for sets of functions that only separate points on a dense subspace?Stone-Weierstrass complex theoremDoes the algebra of real valued functions in Stone-Weierstrass Thm. equal to the set of polynomials?Using Stone-Weierstrass Theorem to show that trig polynomials are dense in $L^2([0,2pi])$













1












$begingroup$


Weierstrass theorem.




Lef $f$ be a defined and continuous function in $[a,b]$. Given $epsilon>0,$ there exists a polynomial $P$ such that $vert f(x)-P(x)vert<epsilon,$ for all $xin[a,b].$




Stone-Weierstrass theorem.




Let $X$ be a topological compact space. If $F$ is an algebra of $C(X)$ that separate points and contains the constant functions then $F$ is dense with respect to the uniform convergence in $C(X).$




How is that an algebra $F$ of $C(X)$ that separate points and contains the constant functions is the generalization of $P(x)$ ?



Can someone shed some light on this?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$
















    1












    $begingroup$


    Weierstrass theorem.




    Lef $f$ be a defined and continuous function in $[a,b]$. Given $epsilon>0,$ there exists a polynomial $P$ such that $vert f(x)-P(x)vert<epsilon,$ for all $xin[a,b].$




    Stone-Weierstrass theorem.




    Let $X$ be a topological compact space. If $F$ is an algebra of $C(X)$ that separate points and contains the constant functions then $F$ is dense with respect to the uniform convergence in $C(X).$




    How is that an algebra $F$ of $C(X)$ that separate points and contains the constant functions is the generalization of $P(x)$ ?



    Can someone shed some light on this?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      Weierstrass theorem.




      Lef $f$ be a defined and continuous function in $[a,b]$. Given $epsilon>0,$ there exists a polynomial $P$ such that $vert f(x)-P(x)vert<epsilon,$ for all $xin[a,b].$




      Stone-Weierstrass theorem.




      Let $X$ be a topological compact space. If $F$ is an algebra of $C(X)$ that separate points and contains the constant functions then $F$ is dense with respect to the uniform convergence in $C(X).$




      How is that an algebra $F$ of $C(X)$ that separate points and contains the constant functions is the generalization of $P(x)$ ?



      Can someone shed some light on this?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Weierstrass theorem.




      Lef $f$ be a defined and continuous function in $[a,b]$. Given $epsilon>0,$ there exists a polynomial $P$ such that $vert f(x)-P(x)vert<epsilon,$ for all $xin[a,b].$




      Stone-Weierstrass theorem.




      Let $X$ be a topological compact space. If $F$ is an algebra of $C(X)$ that separate points and contains the constant functions then $F$ is dense with respect to the uniform convergence in $C(X).$




      How is that an algebra $F$ of $C(X)$ that separate points and contains the constant functions is the generalization of $P(x)$ ?



      Can someone shed some light on this?







      real-analysis functional-analysis analysis weierstrass-approximation






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Mar 16 at 20:28









      Sambo

      2,3012532




      2,3012532










      asked Mar 16 at 20:01









      IsaIsa

      295519




      295519




















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          2












          $begingroup$

          The set of polynomials defined on $[a,b]$ is an algebra of $C([a,b])$ that separate points (for all $x,yin[a,b]$ such that $xneq y$, there exists a polynomial $P$ such that $P(x)neq P(y)$) and contains the constant functions.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for your answer. In which part will this with respect to the uniform convergence in 𝐶(𝑋) be included?
            $endgroup$
            – Isa
            Mar 17 at 0:19










          • $begingroup$
            The Weierstraß theorem states that there exists a sequence of polynomials which converges uniformly on $[a,b]$ to $f$. Indeed, you can rewrite your statement in this way: $exists$ polynomial $P$ such that $sup_xin[a,b]vert f(x)-P(x)vertlevarepsilon$.
            $endgroup$
            – Will
            Mar 17 at 8:54


















          2












          $begingroup$

          Hint:



          For $x_0, y_0 in [a,b]$ such that $x_0 ne y_0$ we consider the polynomial $p(t) = t-x_0$. Then $p(x_0) = 0$ but $p(y_0) = y_0 - x_0 ne 0$.



          Hence polynomials on $[a,b]$ separate the points of $[a,b]$.



          Also, constant functions are polynomials so...






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












            Your Answer





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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes








            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes









            2












            $begingroup$

            The set of polynomials defined on $[a,b]$ is an algebra of $C([a,b])$ that separate points (for all $x,yin[a,b]$ such that $xneq y$, there exists a polynomial $P$ such that $P(x)neq P(y)$) and contains the constant functions.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$












            • $begingroup$
              Thank you for your answer. In which part will this with respect to the uniform convergence in 𝐶(𝑋) be included?
              $endgroup$
              – Isa
              Mar 17 at 0:19










            • $begingroup$
              The Weierstraß theorem states that there exists a sequence of polynomials which converges uniformly on $[a,b]$ to $f$. Indeed, you can rewrite your statement in this way: $exists$ polynomial $P$ such that $sup_xin[a,b]vert f(x)-P(x)vertlevarepsilon$.
              $endgroup$
              – Will
              Mar 17 at 8:54















            2












            $begingroup$

            The set of polynomials defined on $[a,b]$ is an algebra of $C([a,b])$ that separate points (for all $x,yin[a,b]$ such that $xneq y$, there exists a polynomial $P$ such that $P(x)neq P(y)$) and contains the constant functions.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$












            • $begingroup$
              Thank you for your answer. In which part will this with respect to the uniform convergence in 𝐶(𝑋) be included?
              $endgroup$
              – Isa
              Mar 17 at 0:19










            • $begingroup$
              The Weierstraß theorem states that there exists a sequence of polynomials which converges uniformly on $[a,b]$ to $f$. Indeed, you can rewrite your statement in this way: $exists$ polynomial $P$ such that $sup_xin[a,b]vert f(x)-P(x)vertlevarepsilon$.
              $endgroup$
              – Will
              Mar 17 at 8:54













            2












            2








            2





            $begingroup$

            The set of polynomials defined on $[a,b]$ is an algebra of $C([a,b])$ that separate points (for all $x,yin[a,b]$ such that $xneq y$, there exists a polynomial $P$ such that $P(x)neq P(y)$) and contains the constant functions.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            The set of polynomials defined on $[a,b]$ is an algebra of $C([a,b])$ that separate points (for all $x,yin[a,b]$ such that $xneq y$, there exists a polynomial $P$ such that $P(x)neq P(y)$) and contains the constant functions.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Mar 16 at 20:06









            WillWill

            5115




            5115











            • $begingroup$
              Thank you for your answer. In which part will this with respect to the uniform convergence in 𝐶(𝑋) be included?
              $endgroup$
              – Isa
              Mar 17 at 0:19










            • $begingroup$
              The Weierstraß theorem states that there exists a sequence of polynomials which converges uniformly on $[a,b]$ to $f$. Indeed, you can rewrite your statement in this way: $exists$ polynomial $P$ such that $sup_xin[a,b]vert f(x)-P(x)vertlevarepsilon$.
              $endgroup$
              – Will
              Mar 17 at 8:54
















            • $begingroup$
              Thank you for your answer. In which part will this with respect to the uniform convergence in 𝐶(𝑋) be included?
              $endgroup$
              – Isa
              Mar 17 at 0:19










            • $begingroup$
              The Weierstraß theorem states that there exists a sequence of polynomials which converges uniformly on $[a,b]$ to $f$. Indeed, you can rewrite your statement in this way: $exists$ polynomial $P$ such that $sup_xin[a,b]vert f(x)-P(x)vertlevarepsilon$.
              $endgroup$
              – Will
              Mar 17 at 8:54















            $begingroup$
            Thank you for your answer. In which part will this with respect to the uniform convergence in 𝐶(𝑋) be included?
            $endgroup$
            – Isa
            Mar 17 at 0:19




            $begingroup$
            Thank you for your answer. In which part will this with respect to the uniform convergence in 𝐶(𝑋) be included?
            $endgroup$
            – Isa
            Mar 17 at 0:19












            $begingroup$
            The Weierstraß theorem states that there exists a sequence of polynomials which converges uniformly on $[a,b]$ to $f$. Indeed, you can rewrite your statement in this way: $exists$ polynomial $P$ such that $sup_xin[a,b]vert f(x)-P(x)vertlevarepsilon$.
            $endgroup$
            – Will
            Mar 17 at 8:54




            $begingroup$
            The Weierstraß theorem states that there exists a sequence of polynomials which converges uniformly on $[a,b]$ to $f$. Indeed, you can rewrite your statement in this way: $exists$ polynomial $P$ such that $sup_xin[a,b]vert f(x)-P(x)vertlevarepsilon$.
            $endgroup$
            – Will
            Mar 17 at 8:54











            2












            $begingroup$

            Hint:



            For $x_0, y_0 in [a,b]$ such that $x_0 ne y_0$ we consider the polynomial $p(t) = t-x_0$. Then $p(x_0) = 0$ but $p(y_0) = y_0 - x_0 ne 0$.



            Hence polynomials on $[a,b]$ separate the points of $[a,b]$.



            Also, constant functions are polynomials so...






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$

















              2












              $begingroup$

              Hint:



              For $x_0, y_0 in [a,b]$ such that $x_0 ne y_0$ we consider the polynomial $p(t) = t-x_0$. Then $p(x_0) = 0$ but $p(y_0) = y_0 - x_0 ne 0$.



              Hence polynomials on $[a,b]$ separate the points of $[a,b]$.



              Also, constant functions are polynomials so...






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$















                2












                2








                2





                $begingroup$

                Hint:



                For $x_0, y_0 in [a,b]$ such that $x_0 ne y_0$ we consider the polynomial $p(t) = t-x_0$. Then $p(x_0) = 0$ but $p(y_0) = y_0 - x_0 ne 0$.



                Hence polynomials on $[a,b]$ separate the points of $[a,b]$.



                Also, constant functions are polynomials so...






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                Hint:



                For $x_0, y_0 in [a,b]$ such that $x_0 ne y_0$ we consider the polynomial $p(t) = t-x_0$. Then $p(x_0) = 0$ but $p(y_0) = y_0 - x_0 ne 0$.



                Hence polynomials on $[a,b]$ separate the points of $[a,b]$.



                Also, constant functions are polynomials so...







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Mar 16 at 20:25









                mechanodroidmechanodroid

                29k62648




                29k62648



























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