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cup product in cohomology ring of a suspension


Let $X = Sigma Y = Y wedge S^1$, cup product $tildeH^p(X) otimes tildeH^q(X) to tildeH^p+q(X)$ is the zero homomorphism?Triviality of relative cup product $H^2times H^2to H^4$ for spaces embeddable to $Bbb R^4$confusion about cup product in cohomology ringSuspension of a product - tricky homotopy equivalenceWhat map of ring spectra corresponds to a product in cohomology, especially the $cup$-product.Cup product on torusEasier proof about suspension of a manifoldSuspension of a CW complexhomology of suspensionThe property of suspensionCup product and suspensionCup Product: Why do we need to “consider cohomology with coefficients in a ring R”?













6












$begingroup$


Let $X$ be a CW-complex. Let $Sigma$ be suspension. Let $R$ be a commutative ring. Is the cup product of
$$
H^*(Sigma X;R)$$
trivial? How to prove? Where can I find the result?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$
















    6












    $begingroup$


    Let $X$ be a CW-complex. Let $Sigma$ be suspension. Let $R$ be a commutative ring. Is the cup product of
    $$
    H^*(Sigma X;R)$$
    trivial? How to prove? Where can I find the result?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$














      6












      6








      6


      6



      $begingroup$


      Let $X$ be a CW-complex. Let $Sigma$ be suspension. Let $R$ be a commutative ring. Is the cup product of
      $$
      H^*(Sigma X;R)$$
      trivial? How to prove? Where can I find the result?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Let $X$ be a CW-complex. Let $Sigma$ be suspension. Let $R$ be a commutative ring. Is the cup product of
      $$
      H^*(Sigma X;R)$$
      trivial? How to prove? Where can I find the result?







      algebraic-topology homology-cohomology homotopy-theory geometric-topology cw-complexes






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked May 26 '15 at 1:44









      ShiquanShiquan

      3,70411237




      3,70411237




















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          11












          $begingroup$

          Yes. Actually there is a more general result. If $X=bigcup_i=1^n A_i$ where each subspace $A_i$ is contractible, then the product of any $n$ elements in $H^*(X)$ vanishes. Since $Sigma X$ is a union of two cones, each of which is contractible, the result follows.



          To establish the general result, simply note that $H^*(X)cong H^*(X, A_i)$ as $A_i$ is contractible, and there is a cup product map begineqnarrayH^*(X, A_1)times cdots times H^*(X, A_n)to H^*(X, bigcup_i=1^n A_i)=H^*(X, X)=0endeqnarray






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$




















            0












            $begingroup$

            The answer depends on which homology theory you are using.
            The statement fails for singular cohomology.
            However there is a fairly easy way to show that the cup product is trivial on reduced cohomology $tildeH,^bullet(Sigma X)=H^bullet(Sigma X,textpt)$.



            Write $Sigma X=textCone_+(X)cuptextCone_-(X)$ and let $iota:textptlongrightarrowtextCone(X)$ be the inclusion map. We get the following commutative diagram
            $requireAMScd$
            beginCD
            H^p(Sigma X,textpt)otimes H^q(Sigma X,textpt) @>smile>> H^p+q(Sigma X,textpt)\
            @AH^p(iota)otimes H^q(iota)AA @AAH^p+q(iota)A\
            H^p(Sigma X,textCone_+(X))otimes H^q(Sigma X,textCone_-(X)) @>>smile> H^p+q(Sigma X,Sigma X)
            endCD



            Now note that $H^bullet(iota):H^bullet(Sigma X,textCone(X))longrightarrow H^bullet(Sigma X,textpt)$ is an isomorphism because $textCone(X)$ is contractible.
            Therefore we have found a factorisation of $asmile b=H^p+q(iota)left(H^p(iota)^-1(a)smile H^q(iota)^-1(b)right)$ over $H^p+q(Sigma X,Sigma X)cong0$, hence $asmile b=0$ for any $aotimes bin H^p(Sigma X,textpt)otimes H^q(Sigma X,textpt)$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$












              Your Answer





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              2 Answers
              2






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes









              11












              $begingroup$

              Yes. Actually there is a more general result. If $X=bigcup_i=1^n A_i$ where each subspace $A_i$ is contractible, then the product of any $n$ elements in $H^*(X)$ vanishes. Since $Sigma X$ is a union of two cones, each of which is contractible, the result follows.



              To establish the general result, simply note that $H^*(X)cong H^*(X, A_i)$ as $A_i$ is contractible, and there is a cup product map begineqnarrayH^*(X, A_1)times cdots times H^*(X, A_n)to H^*(X, bigcup_i=1^n A_i)=H^*(X, X)=0endeqnarray






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$

















                11












                $begingroup$

                Yes. Actually there is a more general result. If $X=bigcup_i=1^n A_i$ where each subspace $A_i$ is contractible, then the product of any $n$ elements in $H^*(X)$ vanishes. Since $Sigma X$ is a union of two cones, each of which is contractible, the result follows.



                To establish the general result, simply note that $H^*(X)cong H^*(X, A_i)$ as $A_i$ is contractible, and there is a cup product map begineqnarrayH^*(X, A_1)times cdots times H^*(X, A_n)to H^*(X, bigcup_i=1^n A_i)=H^*(X, X)=0endeqnarray






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$















                  11












                  11








                  11





                  $begingroup$

                  Yes. Actually there is a more general result. If $X=bigcup_i=1^n A_i$ where each subspace $A_i$ is contractible, then the product of any $n$ elements in $H^*(X)$ vanishes. Since $Sigma X$ is a union of two cones, each of which is contractible, the result follows.



                  To establish the general result, simply note that $H^*(X)cong H^*(X, A_i)$ as $A_i$ is contractible, and there is a cup product map begineqnarrayH^*(X, A_1)times cdots times H^*(X, A_n)to H^*(X, bigcup_i=1^n A_i)=H^*(X, X)=0endeqnarray






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$



                  Yes. Actually there is a more general result. If $X=bigcup_i=1^n A_i$ where each subspace $A_i$ is contractible, then the product of any $n$ elements in $H^*(X)$ vanishes. Since $Sigma X$ is a union of two cones, each of which is contractible, the result follows.



                  To establish the general result, simply note that $H^*(X)cong H^*(X, A_i)$ as $A_i$ is contractible, and there is a cup product map begineqnarrayH^*(X, A_1)times cdots times H^*(X, A_n)to H^*(X, bigcup_i=1^n A_i)=H^*(X, X)=0endeqnarray







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited May 26 '15 at 3:29

























                  answered May 26 '15 at 3:24









                  Alex FokAlex Fok

                  3,866818




                  3,866818





















                      0












                      $begingroup$

                      The answer depends on which homology theory you are using.
                      The statement fails for singular cohomology.
                      However there is a fairly easy way to show that the cup product is trivial on reduced cohomology $tildeH,^bullet(Sigma X)=H^bullet(Sigma X,textpt)$.



                      Write $Sigma X=textCone_+(X)cuptextCone_-(X)$ and let $iota:textptlongrightarrowtextCone(X)$ be the inclusion map. We get the following commutative diagram
                      $requireAMScd$
                      beginCD
                      H^p(Sigma X,textpt)otimes H^q(Sigma X,textpt) @>smile>> H^p+q(Sigma X,textpt)\
                      @AH^p(iota)otimes H^q(iota)AA @AAH^p+q(iota)A\
                      H^p(Sigma X,textCone_+(X))otimes H^q(Sigma X,textCone_-(X)) @>>smile> H^p+q(Sigma X,Sigma X)
                      endCD



                      Now note that $H^bullet(iota):H^bullet(Sigma X,textCone(X))longrightarrow H^bullet(Sigma X,textpt)$ is an isomorphism because $textCone(X)$ is contractible.
                      Therefore we have found a factorisation of $asmile b=H^p+q(iota)left(H^p(iota)^-1(a)smile H^q(iota)^-1(b)right)$ over $H^p+q(Sigma X,Sigma X)cong0$, hence $asmile b=0$ for any $aotimes bin H^p(Sigma X,textpt)otimes H^q(Sigma X,textpt)$.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$

















                        0












                        $begingroup$

                        The answer depends on which homology theory you are using.
                        The statement fails for singular cohomology.
                        However there is a fairly easy way to show that the cup product is trivial on reduced cohomology $tildeH,^bullet(Sigma X)=H^bullet(Sigma X,textpt)$.



                        Write $Sigma X=textCone_+(X)cuptextCone_-(X)$ and let $iota:textptlongrightarrowtextCone(X)$ be the inclusion map. We get the following commutative diagram
                        $requireAMScd$
                        beginCD
                        H^p(Sigma X,textpt)otimes H^q(Sigma X,textpt) @>smile>> H^p+q(Sigma X,textpt)\
                        @AH^p(iota)otimes H^q(iota)AA @AAH^p+q(iota)A\
                        H^p(Sigma X,textCone_+(X))otimes H^q(Sigma X,textCone_-(X)) @>>smile> H^p+q(Sigma X,Sigma X)
                        endCD



                        Now note that $H^bullet(iota):H^bullet(Sigma X,textCone(X))longrightarrow H^bullet(Sigma X,textpt)$ is an isomorphism because $textCone(X)$ is contractible.
                        Therefore we have found a factorisation of $asmile b=H^p+q(iota)left(H^p(iota)^-1(a)smile H^q(iota)^-1(b)right)$ over $H^p+q(Sigma X,Sigma X)cong0$, hence $asmile b=0$ for any $aotimes bin H^p(Sigma X,textpt)otimes H^q(Sigma X,textpt)$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$















                          0












                          0








                          0





                          $begingroup$

                          The answer depends on which homology theory you are using.
                          The statement fails for singular cohomology.
                          However there is a fairly easy way to show that the cup product is trivial on reduced cohomology $tildeH,^bullet(Sigma X)=H^bullet(Sigma X,textpt)$.



                          Write $Sigma X=textCone_+(X)cuptextCone_-(X)$ and let $iota:textptlongrightarrowtextCone(X)$ be the inclusion map. We get the following commutative diagram
                          $requireAMScd$
                          beginCD
                          H^p(Sigma X,textpt)otimes H^q(Sigma X,textpt) @>smile>> H^p+q(Sigma X,textpt)\
                          @AH^p(iota)otimes H^q(iota)AA @AAH^p+q(iota)A\
                          H^p(Sigma X,textCone_+(X))otimes H^q(Sigma X,textCone_-(X)) @>>smile> H^p+q(Sigma X,Sigma X)
                          endCD



                          Now note that $H^bullet(iota):H^bullet(Sigma X,textCone(X))longrightarrow H^bullet(Sigma X,textpt)$ is an isomorphism because $textCone(X)$ is contractible.
                          Therefore we have found a factorisation of $asmile b=H^p+q(iota)left(H^p(iota)^-1(a)smile H^q(iota)^-1(b)right)$ over $H^p+q(Sigma X,Sigma X)cong0$, hence $asmile b=0$ for any $aotimes bin H^p(Sigma X,textpt)otimes H^q(Sigma X,textpt)$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          The answer depends on which homology theory you are using.
                          The statement fails for singular cohomology.
                          However there is a fairly easy way to show that the cup product is trivial on reduced cohomology $tildeH,^bullet(Sigma X)=H^bullet(Sigma X,textpt)$.



                          Write $Sigma X=textCone_+(X)cuptextCone_-(X)$ and let $iota:textptlongrightarrowtextCone(X)$ be the inclusion map. We get the following commutative diagram
                          $requireAMScd$
                          beginCD
                          H^p(Sigma X,textpt)otimes H^q(Sigma X,textpt) @>smile>> H^p+q(Sigma X,textpt)\
                          @AH^p(iota)otimes H^q(iota)AA @AAH^p+q(iota)A\
                          H^p(Sigma X,textCone_+(X))otimes H^q(Sigma X,textCone_-(X)) @>>smile> H^p+q(Sigma X,Sigma X)
                          endCD



                          Now note that $H^bullet(iota):H^bullet(Sigma X,textCone(X))longrightarrow H^bullet(Sigma X,textpt)$ is an isomorphism because $textCone(X)$ is contractible.
                          Therefore we have found a factorisation of $asmile b=H^p+q(iota)left(H^p(iota)^-1(a)smile H^q(iota)^-1(b)right)$ over $H^p+q(Sigma X,Sigma X)cong0$, hence $asmile b=0$ for any $aotimes bin H^p(Sigma X,textpt)otimes H^q(Sigma X,textpt)$.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Mar 16 at 19:47









                          LilalasLilalas

                          54




                          54



























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