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Eigenvalues of M


Some properties of a $2times 2$ matrix with repeated eigenvaluesAnalogy between Linear Transformations & MatricesLinear algeba - eigenvalues and zero matrixJacobian Eigenvalue Algorithm and Positive definiteness of Eigenvalue matrixPick the true options for a $ntimes n$ matrix $A$Let $A$ be an $ntimes n$ matrices over $mathbbC$ then which of the following are true?How to find size of each Jordan BlockShow that every integer eigenvalue of $A$ divides the determinant of $A$.How Eigenvectors of $A^T$ are perpendicular to eigen vectors of A?Eigenvalues of a square matrix













1












$begingroup$


Let M be square matrix of order n with real entries Satisfying $M^3=I$ and $Mvneq v$ for any non-zero vector $v$.Then Which of the followings are true?



$1.$ M has real eigen-values?



$2.$ $M+M^-1$ has real eigen-values?



$3.n$ is divisible by 2.



$4.n$ is divisible by 3.



$Mvneq v$ for any non-zero vector $v$ means 1 is not an eigenvalue of M.Hence $x^2+x+1=0$ is minimal polynomial of M.Hence 2 is correct option.But I am not able to understand why 1st and 4th options are correct?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The first statement definitely cannot be true, since if $lambda$ is an eigenvalue of $M$ then $Mv= lambda v implies v = lambda^3 v$ so $lambda^3 = 1$ but $lambda neq 1$ so $lambda$ is necessarily complex. The second is right since $M + M^-1 = -I$.
    $endgroup$
    – астон вілла олоф мэллбэрг
    Jun 15 '18 at 6:08
















1












$begingroup$


Let M be square matrix of order n with real entries Satisfying $M^3=I$ and $Mvneq v$ for any non-zero vector $v$.Then Which of the followings are true?



$1.$ M has real eigen-values?



$2.$ $M+M^-1$ has real eigen-values?



$3.n$ is divisible by 2.



$4.n$ is divisible by 3.



$Mvneq v$ for any non-zero vector $v$ means 1 is not an eigenvalue of M.Hence $x^2+x+1=0$ is minimal polynomial of M.Hence 2 is correct option.But I am not able to understand why 1st and 4th options are correct?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The first statement definitely cannot be true, since if $lambda$ is an eigenvalue of $M$ then $Mv= lambda v implies v = lambda^3 v$ so $lambda^3 = 1$ but $lambda neq 1$ so $lambda$ is necessarily complex. The second is right since $M + M^-1 = -I$.
    $endgroup$
    – астон вілла олоф мэллбэрг
    Jun 15 '18 at 6:08














1












1








1


1



$begingroup$


Let M be square matrix of order n with real entries Satisfying $M^3=I$ and $Mvneq v$ for any non-zero vector $v$.Then Which of the followings are true?



$1.$ M has real eigen-values?



$2.$ $M+M^-1$ has real eigen-values?



$3.n$ is divisible by 2.



$4.n$ is divisible by 3.



$Mvneq v$ for any non-zero vector $v$ means 1 is not an eigenvalue of M.Hence $x^2+x+1=0$ is minimal polynomial of M.Hence 2 is correct option.But I am not able to understand why 1st and 4th options are correct?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Let M be square matrix of order n with real entries Satisfying $M^3=I$ and $Mvneq v$ for any non-zero vector $v$.Then Which of the followings are true?



$1.$ M has real eigen-values?



$2.$ $M+M^-1$ has real eigen-values?



$3.n$ is divisible by 2.



$4.n$ is divisible by 3.



$Mvneq v$ for any non-zero vector $v$ means 1 is not an eigenvalue of M.Hence $x^2+x+1=0$ is minimal polynomial of M.Hence 2 is correct option.But I am not able to understand why 1st and 4th options are correct?







linear-algebra eigenvalues-eigenvectors






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Jun 15 '18 at 5:35









ASHWINI SANKHEASHWINI SANKHE

12710




12710







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The first statement definitely cannot be true, since if $lambda$ is an eigenvalue of $M$ then $Mv= lambda v implies v = lambda^3 v$ so $lambda^3 = 1$ but $lambda neq 1$ so $lambda$ is necessarily complex. The second is right since $M + M^-1 = -I$.
    $endgroup$
    – астон вілла олоф мэллбэрг
    Jun 15 '18 at 6:08













  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The first statement definitely cannot be true, since if $lambda$ is an eigenvalue of $M$ then $Mv= lambda v implies v = lambda^3 v$ so $lambda^3 = 1$ but $lambda neq 1$ so $lambda$ is necessarily complex. The second is right since $M + M^-1 = -I$.
    $endgroup$
    – астон вілла олоф мэллбэрг
    Jun 15 '18 at 6:08








1




1




$begingroup$
The first statement definitely cannot be true, since if $lambda$ is an eigenvalue of $M$ then $Mv= lambda v implies v = lambda^3 v$ so $lambda^3 = 1$ but $lambda neq 1$ so $lambda$ is necessarily complex. The second is right since $M + M^-1 = -I$.
$endgroup$
– астон вілла олоф мэллбэрг
Jun 15 '18 at 6:08





$begingroup$
The first statement definitely cannot be true, since if $lambda$ is an eigenvalue of $M$ then $Mv= lambda v implies v = lambda^3 v$ so $lambda^3 = 1$ but $lambda neq 1$ so $lambda$ is necessarily complex. The second is right since $M + M^-1 = -I$.
$endgroup$
– астон вілла олоф мэллбэрг
Jun 15 '18 at 6:08











1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

  1. $M^3=I$ so $M^3-I=(M-I)(M^2+M+I)=0$ but for hypothesis you have that $M-I $ is invertibile and so:
    $M^2+M+I=0$
    By contraddiction if there exists a real eighenvalue $lambda$ of M then , if $vneq0$ is his eighenvector, you have that
    $(M^2+M+I)v=(lambda^2+lambda+1)v=0$
    and so
    $lambda^2+lambda+1=0$
    But this polinomial equation not have solutions in $mathbbR$.


  2. $M^2+M+I=0$ and you can multiply both members for $M^-1$ :


$M+I+M^-1=0$



So



$M+M^-1=-I $
that is diagonalizzable oviously.



  1. What you said is correct.

By contraddiction if $ n=deg(det(M-lambda I) $ is not divisibile for 2 then the polinomial have necessary a real root because any polinomial of degree odd have al least a root in $mathbbR$



  1. It is false because there exists a $2x2$- real matrix $M$ such that $M^3=I$ and $M-I$ is invertibile. An example can be

$beginbmatrix-frac12&fracsqrt32\ -fracsqrt32&-frac12endbmatrix$






share|cite|improve this answer











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    1






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    active

    oldest

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    2












    $begingroup$

    1. $M^3=I$ so $M^3-I=(M-I)(M^2+M+I)=0$ but for hypothesis you have that $M-I $ is invertibile and so:
      $M^2+M+I=0$
      By contraddiction if there exists a real eighenvalue $lambda$ of M then , if $vneq0$ is his eighenvector, you have that
      $(M^2+M+I)v=(lambda^2+lambda+1)v=0$
      and so
      $lambda^2+lambda+1=0$
      But this polinomial equation not have solutions in $mathbbR$.


    2. $M^2+M+I=0$ and you can multiply both members for $M^-1$ :


    $M+I+M^-1=0$



    So



    $M+M^-1=-I $
    that is diagonalizzable oviously.



    1. What you said is correct.

    By contraddiction if $ n=deg(det(M-lambda I) $ is not divisibile for 2 then the polinomial have necessary a real root because any polinomial of degree odd have al least a root in $mathbbR$



    1. It is false because there exists a $2x2$- real matrix $M$ such that $M^3=I$ and $M-I$ is invertibile. An example can be

    $beginbmatrix-frac12&fracsqrt32\ -fracsqrt32&-frac12endbmatrix$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$

















      2












      $begingroup$

      1. $M^3=I$ so $M^3-I=(M-I)(M^2+M+I)=0$ but for hypothesis you have that $M-I $ is invertibile and so:
        $M^2+M+I=0$
        By contraddiction if there exists a real eighenvalue $lambda$ of M then , if $vneq0$ is his eighenvector, you have that
        $(M^2+M+I)v=(lambda^2+lambda+1)v=0$
        and so
        $lambda^2+lambda+1=0$
        But this polinomial equation not have solutions in $mathbbR$.


      2. $M^2+M+I=0$ and you can multiply both members for $M^-1$ :


      $M+I+M^-1=0$



      So



      $M+M^-1=-I $
      that is diagonalizzable oviously.



      1. What you said is correct.

      By contraddiction if $ n=deg(det(M-lambda I) $ is not divisibile for 2 then the polinomial have necessary a real root because any polinomial of degree odd have al least a root in $mathbbR$



      1. It is false because there exists a $2x2$- real matrix $M$ such that $M^3=I$ and $M-I$ is invertibile. An example can be

      $beginbmatrix-frac12&fracsqrt32\ -fracsqrt32&-frac12endbmatrix$






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$















        2












        2








        2





        $begingroup$

        1. $M^3=I$ so $M^3-I=(M-I)(M^2+M+I)=0$ but for hypothesis you have that $M-I $ is invertibile and so:
          $M^2+M+I=0$
          By contraddiction if there exists a real eighenvalue $lambda$ of M then , if $vneq0$ is his eighenvector, you have that
          $(M^2+M+I)v=(lambda^2+lambda+1)v=0$
          and so
          $lambda^2+lambda+1=0$
          But this polinomial equation not have solutions in $mathbbR$.


        2. $M^2+M+I=0$ and you can multiply both members for $M^-1$ :


        $M+I+M^-1=0$



        So



        $M+M^-1=-I $
        that is diagonalizzable oviously.



        1. What you said is correct.

        By contraddiction if $ n=deg(det(M-lambda I) $ is not divisibile for 2 then the polinomial have necessary a real root because any polinomial of degree odd have al least a root in $mathbbR$



        1. It is false because there exists a $2x2$- real matrix $M$ such that $M^3=I$ and $M-I$ is invertibile. An example can be

        $beginbmatrix-frac12&fracsqrt32\ -fracsqrt32&-frac12endbmatrix$






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        1. $M^3=I$ so $M^3-I=(M-I)(M^2+M+I)=0$ but for hypothesis you have that $M-I $ is invertibile and so:
          $M^2+M+I=0$
          By contraddiction if there exists a real eighenvalue $lambda$ of M then , if $vneq0$ is his eighenvector, you have that
          $(M^2+M+I)v=(lambda^2+lambda+1)v=0$
          and so
          $lambda^2+lambda+1=0$
          But this polinomial equation not have solutions in $mathbbR$.


        2. $M^2+M+I=0$ and you can multiply both members for $M^-1$ :


        $M+I+M^-1=0$



        So



        $M+M^-1=-I $
        that is diagonalizzable oviously.



        1. What you said is correct.

        By contraddiction if $ n=deg(det(M-lambda I) $ is not divisibile for 2 then the polinomial have necessary a real root because any polinomial of degree odd have al least a root in $mathbbR$



        1. It is false because there exists a $2x2$- real matrix $M$ such that $M^3=I$ and $M-I$ is invertibile. An example can be

        $beginbmatrix-frac12&fracsqrt32\ -fracsqrt32&-frac12endbmatrix$







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Mar 16 at 20:42

























        answered Jun 15 '18 at 10:38









        Federico FalluccaFederico Fallucca

        2,280210




        2,280210



























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