Let $d_1$ and $d_2$ be two equivalent metrics. If $A$ is an open subset of $(X,d_1)$ is $A$ an open subset of $(X,d_2)$? The Next CEO of Stack OverflowLocally Lipschitz implies Lipschitz under equivalent metrics?Uniformly equivalent metrics and the metric on a countable product spaceTopologies of equivalent metricsProve that a sequence converges to an element $x_0$ in $(X, d_1)$ if and only if the sequence converges to $x_0$ in $(X, d_2)$Are strongly equivalent metrics mutually complete?Showing $d_1(x,y)=|x-y|$ and $d_2=sqrt$ for $x,yinmathbbR$ define equivalent metricsTopologically-equivalent/metrically-equivalent metrics and the same topologyIf $d_1(x,y) leq d_2(x,y)$ and all $d_2$-closed balls in $M$ are also $d_1$-closed, then $(M,d_2)$ is complete.Proving the metrics $d_1(x,y) $ and $d_2(x,y) $ are equivalentAn alternative proof for $D_2 D_1 f(x) = D_1 D_2 f(x)$ when $f in C^2$
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Let $d_1$ and $d_2$ be two equivalent metrics. If $A$ is an open subset of $(X,d_1)$ is $A$ an open subset of $(X,d_2)$?
The Next CEO of Stack OverflowLocally Lipschitz implies Lipschitz under equivalent metrics?Uniformly equivalent metrics and the metric on a countable product spaceTopologies of equivalent metricsProve that a sequence converges to an element $x_0$ in $(X, d_1)$ if and only if the sequence converges to $x_0$ in $(X, d_2)$Are strongly equivalent metrics mutually complete?Showing $d_1(x,y)=|x-y|$ and $d_2=sqrtx-y$ for $x,yinmathbbR$ define equivalent metricsTopologically-equivalent/metrically-equivalent metrics and the same topologyIf $d_1(x,y) leq d_2(x,y)$ and all $d_2$-closed balls in $M$ are also $d_1$-closed, then $(M,d_2)$ is complete.Proving the metrics $d_1(x,y) $ and $d_2(x,y) $ are equivalentAn alternative proof for $D_2 D_1 f(x) = D_1 D_2 f(x)$ when $f in C^2$
$begingroup$
Let $d_1$ and $d_2$ be two equivalent metrics. If $A$ is an open subset of $(X,d_1)$, is $A$ an open subset of $(X,d_2)$?
Well, I have that if two metrics are equivalent then every sequence in $(X,d_1)$ is convergent in $(X,d_2)$. Now, let $a_n$ be an arbitrary sequence that converges to $x_0in A^c subset X$ under $d_1$, with $x_0$ a limit point (or accumulation point). Then, the sequence converges by definition of equivalent metrics in $(X,d_2)$. Now, we know that $a_n$ converges to some point $x_1$ in $(X,d_2)$ but not necessarily $x_0$ = $x_1$ (I can prove that). So then, it can be that in $A^c subset X$ under $d_2$ does not contain every accumulation point (I’m saying that it can be $x_1 notin A^c$). Then $A^c$ isn’t a closed set and we cannot prove anything. Or until now I can’t find a way to prove that $x_1in A^c$.
Any suggestions? Am I right?
A time ago I proved in some homework that if some metrics $d_1$ and $d_2$ are equivalent then we can bound each other, something like:
$$exists C : d_1 leq C d_2 land exists K : d_2 leq K d_1$$
But I can’t prove it to the other side, it may help
real-analysis analysis
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $d_1$ and $d_2$ be two equivalent metrics. If $A$ is an open subset of $(X,d_1)$, is $A$ an open subset of $(X,d_2)$?
Well, I have that if two metrics are equivalent then every sequence in $(X,d_1)$ is convergent in $(X,d_2)$. Now, let $a_n$ be an arbitrary sequence that converges to $x_0in A^c subset X$ under $d_1$, with $x_0$ a limit point (or accumulation point). Then, the sequence converges by definition of equivalent metrics in $(X,d_2)$. Now, we know that $a_n$ converges to some point $x_1$ in $(X,d_2)$ but not necessarily $x_0$ = $x_1$ (I can prove that). So then, it can be that in $A^c subset X$ under $d_2$ does not contain every accumulation point (I’m saying that it can be $x_1 notin A^c$). Then $A^c$ isn’t a closed set and we cannot prove anything. Or until now I can’t find a way to prove that $x_1in A^c$.
Any suggestions? Am I right?
A time ago I proved in some homework that if some metrics $d_1$ and $d_2$ are equivalent then we can bound each other, something like:
$$exists C : d_1 leq C d_2 land exists K : d_2 leq K d_1$$
But I can’t prove it to the other side, it may help
real-analysis analysis
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Your "definition" of metric equivalence is not standard, see wikipedia Equivalence of metrics.
$endgroup$
– user251257
Mar 19 at 22:14
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $d_1$ and $d_2$ be two equivalent metrics. If $A$ is an open subset of $(X,d_1)$, is $A$ an open subset of $(X,d_2)$?
Well, I have that if two metrics are equivalent then every sequence in $(X,d_1)$ is convergent in $(X,d_2)$. Now, let $a_n$ be an arbitrary sequence that converges to $x_0in A^c subset X$ under $d_1$, with $x_0$ a limit point (or accumulation point). Then, the sequence converges by definition of equivalent metrics in $(X,d_2)$. Now, we know that $a_n$ converges to some point $x_1$ in $(X,d_2)$ but not necessarily $x_0$ = $x_1$ (I can prove that). So then, it can be that in $A^c subset X$ under $d_2$ does not contain every accumulation point (I’m saying that it can be $x_1 notin A^c$). Then $A^c$ isn’t a closed set and we cannot prove anything. Or until now I can’t find a way to prove that $x_1in A^c$.
Any suggestions? Am I right?
A time ago I proved in some homework that if some metrics $d_1$ and $d_2$ are equivalent then we can bound each other, something like:
$$exists C : d_1 leq C d_2 land exists K : d_2 leq K d_1$$
But I can’t prove it to the other side, it may help
real-analysis analysis
$endgroup$
Let $d_1$ and $d_2$ be two equivalent metrics. If $A$ is an open subset of $(X,d_1)$, is $A$ an open subset of $(X,d_2)$?
Well, I have that if two metrics are equivalent then every sequence in $(X,d_1)$ is convergent in $(X,d_2)$. Now, let $a_n$ be an arbitrary sequence that converges to $x_0in A^c subset X$ under $d_1$, with $x_0$ a limit point (or accumulation point). Then, the sequence converges by definition of equivalent metrics in $(X,d_2)$. Now, we know that $a_n$ converges to some point $x_1$ in $(X,d_2)$ but not necessarily $x_0$ = $x_1$ (I can prove that). So then, it can be that in $A^c subset X$ under $d_2$ does not contain every accumulation point (I’m saying that it can be $x_1 notin A^c$). Then $A^c$ isn’t a closed set and we cannot prove anything. Or until now I can’t find a way to prove that $x_1in A^c$.
Any suggestions? Am I right?
A time ago I proved in some homework that if some metrics $d_1$ and $d_2$ are equivalent then we can bound each other, something like:
$$exists C : d_1 leq C d_2 land exists K : d_2 leq K d_1$$
But I can’t prove it to the other side, it may help
real-analysis analysis
real-analysis analysis
edited Mar 19 at 22:05
user251257
7,64721128
7,64721128
asked Mar 19 at 21:37
Pablo Valentin Cortes CastilloPablo Valentin Cortes Castillo
427
427
$begingroup$
Your "definition" of metric equivalence is not standard, see wikipedia Equivalence of metrics.
$endgroup$
– user251257
Mar 19 at 22:14
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Your "definition" of metric equivalence is not standard, see wikipedia Equivalence of metrics.
$endgroup$
– user251257
Mar 19 at 22:14
$begingroup$
Your "definition" of metric equivalence is not standard, see wikipedia Equivalence of metrics.
$endgroup$
– user251257
Mar 19 at 22:14
$begingroup$
Your "definition" of metric equivalence is not standard, see wikipedia Equivalence of metrics.
$endgroup$
– user251257
Mar 19 at 22:14
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Let $A subseteq X$ be open with respect to $d_1$. Because $d_1$ and $d_2$ are equivalent, there exists $C_1,C_2 > 0$ such that
$$
C_1 d_1(x,y) leq d_2(x,y) leq C_2d_1(x,y)
$$
for all $x,y in X$. Let now $x in A$ be given. Since $A$ is open with respect to $d_1$, there exists $epsilon > 0$ such that
$$
B(x,epsilon; d_1) subseteq A.
$$
Here, $B(x,epsilon; d_1)$ denotes the open ball (with respect to $d_1$)
$$
left y in X : d_1(x,y) < epsilon right.
$$
Now, consider the open ball (with respect to $d_2$):
$$
B := Bleft( x, C_1epsilon; d_2right).
$$
We claim that $B subseteq B(x,epsilon; d_1) subseteq A$ which would complete the proof. Indeed, if $y in B$ then
beginalign*
d_1(x,y)leq fracd_2(x,y)C_1 < fracC_1epsilonC_1 = epsilon.
endalign*
Hence, $y in B(x,epsilon;d_1) subseteq A$. By symmetry, you can then conclude that open subsets of $(X,d_2)$ are open in $(X,d_1)$ as well. This means that equivalent metrics induce the same topology on $X$.
Edit: Let's instead only assume that $d_1$ and $d_2$ satisfy the following property:
A sequence $(x_n)$ converges to $x in X$ with respect to $d_1$ if and only if it converges to $x$ with respect to $d_2$.
If $A$ is open with respect to $d_1$, then it will still be open with respect to $d_2$. To verify this, it would be enough to check that $A^complement$ is closed with respect to $d_2$. To this end, let $(x_n)$ be a sequence in $A^complement$ converging to $x in X$ with respect to $d_2$. Then, we have $x_n to x$ in $(X,d_1)$ by assumption. Since $A^complement$ is closed in $(X,d_1)$, we get that $x in A^complement$. This ensures that $A^complement$ is closed in $(X,d_2)$, and so $A$ is open in this same space.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Any hint to prove that because d1 and d2 are equivalent there exists C1 and C2 such that...? I thaugh in that but I can only prove it to the other side, I mean if there exists some C1 and C2 such that... then d1 and d2 are equivalent. Sorry for the inconveniences, I edited the question adding that part but it didn’t save it or something
$endgroup$
– Pablo Valentin Cortes Castillo
Mar 19 at 22:05
1
$begingroup$
Your definition of equivalence does not necessarily imply this criterion. In fact, I think you have the wrong definition of equivalence. Typically, one would either assume that such $C_1, C_2 > 0$ exist. Or, more generally, that a sequence converges to $x$ in $(X,d_1)$ if and only if it also converges to $x$ with respect to $(X,d_2)$. See my edit for a proof using this more general definition.
$endgroup$
– rolandcyp
Mar 19 at 22:20
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
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active
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active
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$begingroup$
Let $A subseteq X$ be open with respect to $d_1$. Because $d_1$ and $d_2$ are equivalent, there exists $C_1,C_2 > 0$ such that
$$
C_1 d_1(x,y) leq d_2(x,y) leq C_2d_1(x,y)
$$
for all $x,y in X$. Let now $x in A$ be given. Since $A$ is open with respect to $d_1$, there exists $epsilon > 0$ such that
$$
B(x,epsilon; d_1) subseteq A.
$$
Here, $B(x,epsilon; d_1)$ denotes the open ball (with respect to $d_1$)
$$
left y in X : d_1(x,y) < epsilon right.
$$
Now, consider the open ball (with respect to $d_2$):
$$
B := Bleft( x, C_1epsilon; d_2right).
$$
We claim that $B subseteq B(x,epsilon; d_1) subseteq A$ which would complete the proof. Indeed, if $y in B$ then
beginalign*
d_1(x,y)leq fracd_2(x,y)C_1 < fracC_1epsilonC_1 = epsilon.
endalign*
Hence, $y in B(x,epsilon;d_1) subseteq A$. By symmetry, you can then conclude that open subsets of $(X,d_2)$ are open in $(X,d_1)$ as well. This means that equivalent metrics induce the same topology on $X$.
Edit: Let's instead only assume that $d_1$ and $d_2$ satisfy the following property:
A sequence $(x_n)$ converges to $x in X$ with respect to $d_1$ if and only if it converges to $x$ with respect to $d_2$.
If $A$ is open with respect to $d_1$, then it will still be open with respect to $d_2$. To verify this, it would be enough to check that $A^complement$ is closed with respect to $d_2$. To this end, let $(x_n)$ be a sequence in $A^complement$ converging to $x in X$ with respect to $d_2$. Then, we have $x_n to x$ in $(X,d_1)$ by assumption. Since $A^complement$ is closed in $(X,d_1)$, we get that $x in A^complement$. This ensures that $A^complement$ is closed in $(X,d_2)$, and so $A$ is open in this same space.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Any hint to prove that because d1 and d2 are equivalent there exists C1 and C2 such that...? I thaugh in that but I can only prove it to the other side, I mean if there exists some C1 and C2 such that... then d1 and d2 are equivalent. Sorry for the inconveniences, I edited the question adding that part but it didn’t save it or something
$endgroup$
– Pablo Valentin Cortes Castillo
Mar 19 at 22:05
1
$begingroup$
Your definition of equivalence does not necessarily imply this criterion. In fact, I think you have the wrong definition of equivalence. Typically, one would either assume that such $C_1, C_2 > 0$ exist. Or, more generally, that a sequence converges to $x$ in $(X,d_1)$ if and only if it also converges to $x$ with respect to $(X,d_2)$. See my edit for a proof using this more general definition.
$endgroup$
– rolandcyp
Mar 19 at 22:20
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $A subseteq X$ be open with respect to $d_1$. Because $d_1$ and $d_2$ are equivalent, there exists $C_1,C_2 > 0$ such that
$$
C_1 d_1(x,y) leq d_2(x,y) leq C_2d_1(x,y)
$$
for all $x,y in X$. Let now $x in A$ be given. Since $A$ is open with respect to $d_1$, there exists $epsilon > 0$ such that
$$
B(x,epsilon; d_1) subseteq A.
$$
Here, $B(x,epsilon; d_1)$ denotes the open ball (with respect to $d_1$)
$$
left y in X : d_1(x,y) < epsilon right.
$$
Now, consider the open ball (with respect to $d_2$):
$$
B := Bleft( x, C_1epsilon; d_2right).
$$
We claim that $B subseteq B(x,epsilon; d_1) subseteq A$ which would complete the proof. Indeed, if $y in B$ then
beginalign*
d_1(x,y)leq fracd_2(x,y)C_1 < fracC_1epsilonC_1 = epsilon.
endalign*
Hence, $y in B(x,epsilon;d_1) subseteq A$. By symmetry, you can then conclude that open subsets of $(X,d_2)$ are open in $(X,d_1)$ as well. This means that equivalent metrics induce the same topology on $X$.
Edit: Let's instead only assume that $d_1$ and $d_2$ satisfy the following property:
A sequence $(x_n)$ converges to $x in X$ with respect to $d_1$ if and only if it converges to $x$ with respect to $d_2$.
If $A$ is open with respect to $d_1$, then it will still be open with respect to $d_2$. To verify this, it would be enough to check that $A^complement$ is closed with respect to $d_2$. To this end, let $(x_n)$ be a sequence in $A^complement$ converging to $x in X$ with respect to $d_2$. Then, we have $x_n to x$ in $(X,d_1)$ by assumption. Since $A^complement$ is closed in $(X,d_1)$, we get that $x in A^complement$. This ensures that $A^complement$ is closed in $(X,d_2)$, and so $A$ is open in this same space.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Any hint to prove that because d1 and d2 are equivalent there exists C1 and C2 such that...? I thaugh in that but I can only prove it to the other side, I mean if there exists some C1 and C2 such that... then d1 and d2 are equivalent. Sorry for the inconveniences, I edited the question adding that part but it didn’t save it or something
$endgroup$
– Pablo Valentin Cortes Castillo
Mar 19 at 22:05
1
$begingroup$
Your definition of equivalence does not necessarily imply this criterion. In fact, I think you have the wrong definition of equivalence. Typically, one would either assume that such $C_1, C_2 > 0$ exist. Or, more generally, that a sequence converges to $x$ in $(X,d_1)$ if and only if it also converges to $x$ with respect to $(X,d_2)$. See my edit for a proof using this more general definition.
$endgroup$
– rolandcyp
Mar 19 at 22:20
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $A subseteq X$ be open with respect to $d_1$. Because $d_1$ and $d_2$ are equivalent, there exists $C_1,C_2 > 0$ such that
$$
C_1 d_1(x,y) leq d_2(x,y) leq C_2d_1(x,y)
$$
for all $x,y in X$. Let now $x in A$ be given. Since $A$ is open with respect to $d_1$, there exists $epsilon > 0$ such that
$$
B(x,epsilon; d_1) subseteq A.
$$
Here, $B(x,epsilon; d_1)$ denotes the open ball (with respect to $d_1$)
$$
left y in X : d_1(x,y) < epsilon right.
$$
Now, consider the open ball (with respect to $d_2$):
$$
B := Bleft( x, C_1epsilon; d_2right).
$$
We claim that $B subseteq B(x,epsilon; d_1) subseteq A$ which would complete the proof. Indeed, if $y in B$ then
beginalign*
d_1(x,y)leq fracd_2(x,y)C_1 < fracC_1epsilonC_1 = epsilon.
endalign*
Hence, $y in B(x,epsilon;d_1) subseteq A$. By symmetry, you can then conclude that open subsets of $(X,d_2)$ are open in $(X,d_1)$ as well. This means that equivalent metrics induce the same topology on $X$.
Edit: Let's instead only assume that $d_1$ and $d_2$ satisfy the following property:
A sequence $(x_n)$ converges to $x in X$ with respect to $d_1$ if and only if it converges to $x$ with respect to $d_2$.
If $A$ is open with respect to $d_1$, then it will still be open with respect to $d_2$. To verify this, it would be enough to check that $A^complement$ is closed with respect to $d_2$. To this end, let $(x_n)$ be a sequence in $A^complement$ converging to $x in X$ with respect to $d_2$. Then, we have $x_n to x$ in $(X,d_1)$ by assumption. Since $A^complement$ is closed in $(X,d_1)$, we get that $x in A^complement$. This ensures that $A^complement$ is closed in $(X,d_2)$, and so $A$ is open in this same space.
$endgroup$
Let $A subseteq X$ be open with respect to $d_1$. Because $d_1$ and $d_2$ are equivalent, there exists $C_1,C_2 > 0$ such that
$$
C_1 d_1(x,y) leq d_2(x,y) leq C_2d_1(x,y)
$$
for all $x,y in X$. Let now $x in A$ be given. Since $A$ is open with respect to $d_1$, there exists $epsilon > 0$ such that
$$
B(x,epsilon; d_1) subseteq A.
$$
Here, $B(x,epsilon; d_1)$ denotes the open ball (with respect to $d_1$)
$$
left y in X : d_1(x,y) < epsilon right.
$$
Now, consider the open ball (with respect to $d_2$):
$$
B := Bleft( x, C_1epsilon; d_2right).
$$
We claim that $B subseteq B(x,epsilon; d_1) subseteq A$ which would complete the proof. Indeed, if $y in B$ then
beginalign*
d_1(x,y)leq fracd_2(x,y)C_1 < fracC_1epsilonC_1 = epsilon.
endalign*
Hence, $y in B(x,epsilon;d_1) subseteq A$. By symmetry, you can then conclude that open subsets of $(X,d_2)$ are open in $(X,d_1)$ as well. This means that equivalent metrics induce the same topology on $X$.
Edit: Let's instead only assume that $d_1$ and $d_2$ satisfy the following property:
A sequence $(x_n)$ converges to $x in X$ with respect to $d_1$ if and only if it converges to $x$ with respect to $d_2$.
If $A$ is open with respect to $d_1$, then it will still be open with respect to $d_2$. To verify this, it would be enough to check that $A^complement$ is closed with respect to $d_2$. To this end, let $(x_n)$ be a sequence in $A^complement$ converging to $x in X$ with respect to $d_2$. Then, we have $x_n to x$ in $(X,d_1)$ by assumption. Since $A^complement$ is closed in $(X,d_1)$, we get that $x in A^complement$. This ensures that $A^complement$ is closed in $(X,d_2)$, and so $A$ is open in this same space.
edited Mar 19 at 22:18
answered Mar 19 at 21:44
rolandcyprolandcyp
1,976316
1,976316
$begingroup$
Any hint to prove that because d1 and d2 are equivalent there exists C1 and C2 such that...? I thaugh in that but I can only prove it to the other side, I mean if there exists some C1 and C2 such that... then d1 and d2 are equivalent. Sorry for the inconveniences, I edited the question adding that part but it didn’t save it or something
$endgroup$
– Pablo Valentin Cortes Castillo
Mar 19 at 22:05
1
$begingroup$
Your definition of equivalence does not necessarily imply this criterion. In fact, I think you have the wrong definition of equivalence. Typically, one would either assume that such $C_1, C_2 > 0$ exist. Or, more generally, that a sequence converges to $x$ in $(X,d_1)$ if and only if it also converges to $x$ with respect to $(X,d_2)$. See my edit for a proof using this more general definition.
$endgroup$
– rolandcyp
Mar 19 at 22:20
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Any hint to prove that because d1 and d2 are equivalent there exists C1 and C2 such that...? I thaugh in that but I can only prove it to the other side, I mean if there exists some C1 and C2 such that... then d1 and d2 are equivalent. Sorry for the inconveniences, I edited the question adding that part but it didn’t save it or something
$endgroup$
– Pablo Valentin Cortes Castillo
Mar 19 at 22:05
1
$begingroup$
Your definition of equivalence does not necessarily imply this criterion. In fact, I think you have the wrong definition of equivalence. Typically, one would either assume that such $C_1, C_2 > 0$ exist. Or, more generally, that a sequence converges to $x$ in $(X,d_1)$ if and only if it also converges to $x$ with respect to $(X,d_2)$. See my edit for a proof using this more general definition.
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– rolandcyp
Mar 19 at 22:20
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Any hint to prove that because d1 and d2 are equivalent there exists C1 and C2 such that...? I thaugh in that but I can only prove it to the other side, I mean if there exists some C1 and C2 such that... then d1 and d2 are equivalent. Sorry for the inconveniences, I edited the question adding that part but it didn’t save it or something
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– Pablo Valentin Cortes Castillo
Mar 19 at 22:05
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Any hint to prove that because d1 and d2 are equivalent there exists C1 and C2 such that...? I thaugh in that but I can only prove it to the other side, I mean if there exists some C1 and C2 such that... then d1 and d2 are equivalent. Sorry for the inconveniences, I edited the question adding that part but it didn’t save it or something
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– Pablo Valentin Cortes Castillo
Mar 19 at 22:05
1
1
$begingroup$
Your definition of equivalence does not necessarily imply this criterion. In fact, I think you have the wrong definition of equivalence. Typically, one would either assume that such $C_1, C_2 > 0$ exist. Or, more generally, that a sequence converges to $x$ in $(X,d_1)$ if and only if it also converges to $x$ with respect to $(X,d_2)$. See my edit for a proof using this more general definition.
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– rolandcyp
Mar 19 at 22:20
$begingroup$
Your definition of equivalence does not necessarily imply this criterion. In fact, I think you have the wrong definition of equivalence. Typically, one would either assume that such $C_1, C_2 > 0$ exist. Or, more generally, that a sequence converges to $x$ in $(X,d_1)$ if and only if it also converges to $x$ with respect to $(X,d_2)$. See my edit for a proof using this more general definition.
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– rolandcyp
Mar 19 at 22:20
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Your "definition" of metric equivalence is not standard, see wikipedia Equivalence of metrics.
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– user251257
Mar 19 at 22:14