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Is $pi: mathcalC^infty (M,N) to mathcalC^infty (S,N)$, $pi(f) = left. fright|_S$ a quocient map in the $mathcal C^1$ topology?



The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are In
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Confusion about Poincaré-HopfContinuity in the Strong(Whitney) TopologyConnected sum in an ambient spaceShow that the central circle $X$ in the open Mobius band has mod 2 intersection number $I_2(X,X)=1$Nonorientable manifolds being a boundariesRestriction of the projection from compact manifold onto hyperplane is a smooth embeddingBrown's theorem and regular valuesHow are compact submanifolds, manifolds?$mathcalC^1$-topology of a submanifold with boundaryDetermining whether $y^2=x(x-1)^2$ is an immersed submanifold










3












$begingroup$


Let $M, N$ be smooth manifolds (without boundary), so we can put a topology in the space $C^infty(M, N)$ using $mathcalC^1$ Whitney Topology.



Now, consider $Ssubset M$ a submanifold of $M$ with boundary such that $textdimS=textdimM$, using the same process we can put a topology in $C^infty(S,N)$ using the $mathcalC^1$ Whitney Topology. There is a natural projection of $C^infty(M, N)$ to $C^infty(S,N)$, definide by



beginalign*
pi: C^infty(M, N) &to C^infty(S,N)\
f&mapsto left.fright|_S.
endalign*




My Question: Is $pi$ an open map or at least a quocient map? (If necessary we can suppose that $M$ is a compact and connected manifold)











share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    It is naturally identifiable with the quotient map for the equivalence relation on $C^infty(M,N)$ given by $f sim g$ if $f|_S = g|_S$.
    $endgroup$
    – Paul Sinclair
    Mar 25 at 3:46










  • $begingroup$
    I tried this identification. however, I was not able to show that these two topologies are the same.
    $endgroup$
    – Matheus Manzatto
    Mar 25 at 3:49










  • $begingroup$
    It is hard to show that $pi^-1(pi (A) $ is open if $A $ is open. It require the existence of a weird extension property.
    $endgroup$
    – Matheus Manzatto
    Mar 25 at 15:14
















3












$begingroup$


Let $M, N$ be smooth manifolds (without boundary), so we can put a topology in the space $C^infty(M, N)$ using $mathcalC^1$ Whitney Topology.



Now, consider $Ssubset M$ a submanifold of $M$ with boundary such that $textdimS=textdimM$, using the same process we can put a topology in $C^infty(S,N)$ using the $mathcalC^1$ Whitney Topology. There is a natural projection of $C^infty(M, N)$ to $C^infty(S,N)$, definide by



beginalign*
pi: C^infty(M, N) &to C^infty(S,N)\
f&mapsto left.fright|_S.
endalign*




My Question: Is $pi$ an open map or at least a quocient map? (If necessary we can suppose that $M$ is a compact and connected manifold)











share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    It is naturally identifiable with the quotient map for the equivalence relation on $C^infty(M,N)$ given by $f sim g$ if $f|_S = g|_S$.
    $endgroup$
    – Paul Sinclair
    Mar 25 at 3:46










  • $begingroup$
    I tried this identification. however, I was not able to show that these two topologies are the same.
    $endgroup$
    – Matheus Manzatto
    Mar 25 at 3:49










  • $begingroup$
    It is hard to show that $pi^-1(pi (A) $ is open if $A $ is open. It require the existence of a weird extension property.
    $endgroup$
    – Matheus Manzatto
    Mar 25 at 15:14














3












3








3





$begingroup$


Let $M, N$ be smooth manifolds (without boundary), so we can put a topology in the space $C^infty(M, N)$ using $mathcalC^1$ Whitney Topology.



Now, consider $Ssubset M$ a submanifold of $M$ with boundary such that $textdimS=textdimM$, using the same process we can put a topology in $C^infty(S,N)$ using the $mathcalC^1$ Whitney Topology. There is a natural projection of $C^infty(M, N)$ to $C^infty(S,N)$, definide by



beginalign*
pi: C^infty(M, N) &to C^infty(S,N)\
f&mapsto left.fright|_S.
endalign*




My Question: Is $pi$ an open map or at least a quocient map? (If necessary we can suppose that $M$ is a compact and connected manifold)











share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Let $M, N$ be smooth manifolds (without boundary), so we can put a topology in the space $C^infty(M, N)$ using $mathcalC^1$ Whitney Topology.



Now, consider $Ssubset M$ a submanifold of $M$ with boundary such that $textdimS=textdimM$, using the same process we can put a topology in $C^infty(S,N)$ using the $mathcalC^1$ Whitney Topology. There is a natural projection of $C^infty(M, N)$ to $C^infty(S,N)$, definide by



beginalign*
pi: C^infty(M, N) &to C^infty(S,N)\
f&mapsto left.fright|_S.
endalign*




My Question: Is $pi$ an open map or at least a quocient map? (If necessary we can suppose that $M$ is a compact and connected manifold)








functions differential-topology






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Mar 24 at 18:30







Matheus Manzatto

















asked Mar 24 at 18:08









Matheus ManzattoMatheus Manzatto

1,2991626




1,2991626











  • $begingroup$
    It is naturally identifiable with the quotient map for the equivalence relation on $C^infty(M,N)$ given by $f sim g$ if $f|_S = g|_S$.
    $endgroup$
    – Paul Sinclair
    Mar 25 at 3:46










  • $begingroup$
    I tried this identification. however, I was not able to show that these two topologies are the same.
    $endgroup$
    – Matheus Manzatto
    Mar 25 at 3:49










  • $begingroup$
    It is hard to show that $pi^-1(pi (A) $ is open if $A $ is open. It require the existence of a weird extension property.
    $endgroup$
    – Matheus Manzatto
    Mar 25 at 15:14

















  • $begingroup$
    It is naturally identifiable with the quotient map for the equivalence relation on $C^infty(M,N)$ given by $f sim g$ if $f|_S = g|_S$.
    $endgroup$
    – Paul Sinclair
    Mar 25 at 3:46










  • $begingroup$
    I tried this identification. however, I was not able to show that these two topologies are the same.
    $endgroup$
    – Matheus Manzatto
    Mar 25 at 3:49










  • $begingroup$
    It is hard to show that $pi^-1(pi (A) $ is open if $A $ is open. It require the existence of a weird extension property.
    $endgroup$
    – Matheus Manzatto
    Mar 25 at 15:14
















$begingroup$
It is naturally identifiable with the quotient map for the equivalence relation on $C^infty(M,N)$ given by $f sim g$ if $f|_S = g|_S$.
$endgroup$
– Paul Sinclair
Mar 25 at 3:46




$begingroup$
It is naturally identifiable with the quotient map for the equivalence relation on $C^infty(M,N)$ given by $f sim g$ if $f|_S = g|_S$.
$endgroup$
– Paul Sinclair
Mar 25 at 3:46












$begingroup$
I tried this identification. however, I was not able to show that these two topologies are the same.
$endgroup$
– Matheus Manzatto
Mar 25 at 3:49




$begingroup$
I tried this identification. however, I was not able to show that these two topologies are the same.
$endgroup$
– Matheus Manzatto
Mar 25 at 3:49












$begingroup$
It is hard to show that $pi^-1(pi (A) $ is open if $A $ is open. It require the existence of a weird extension property.
$endgroup$
– Matheus Manzatto
Mar 25 at 15:14





$begingroup$
It is hard to show that $pi^-1(pi (A) $ is open if $A $ is open. It require the existence of a weird extension property.
$endgroup$
– Matheus Manzatto
Mar 25 at 15:14











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