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Difference between Analytic and Holomorphic function



The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are In
Unicorn Meta Zoo #1: Why another podcast?
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar ManaraAnalytic vs HolomorphicWhat does it mean for a function to be holomorphic?What are some tricks for checking a complex function's analyticity?Taylor serie convergence and holomorphic functionsIs $sum c_n z^n$ analytic when $c_n$ is Banach-valued?On every simply connected domain, there exists a holomorphic function with no analytic continuation.Holomorphic implies analyticCan a complex function be holomorphic only on a proper closed subset of $mathbbC$?history of holomorphic implies analytic and goursat theoremHolomorphic function which is not the derivative of a holomorphic functionA function is analytic if and only if it is holomorphicHolomorphic vs Analytic functions in multiple complex variablesUnderstand analytic function definitionAbout the definition of holomorphic function










33












$begingroup$


A function $f : mathbbC rightarrow mathbbC$ is said to be holomorphic in an open set $A subset mathbbC$ if it is differentiable at each point of the set $A$.



The function $f : mathbbC rightarrow mathbbC$ is said to be analytic if it has power series representation.



We can prove that the two concepts are same for a single variable complex functions. So why these two different terms? Is there any difference between these two concepts in general, please give example.



Thank you for your help.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 12




    $begingroup$
    Your definitions should be the other way around. You have two concepts each one has its own name, (historically ) it just turn out they define the same functions on the complex numbers.
    $endgroup$
    – azarel
    Nov 20 '13 at 0:53






  • 4




    $begingroup$
    I've always understood it to be the other way around: "analytic" means it is equal to it power series within some non-zero radius of convergence, and "holomorphic" means it's differentiable.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Hardy
    Nov 20 '13 at 0:54






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    As already said, you switched the definitions. The introduction of this link will probably clarify a little more.
    $endgroup$
    – Mateus Sampaio
    Nov 20 '13 at 0:56















33












$begingroup$


A function $f : mathbbC rightarrow mathbbC$ is said to be holomorphic in an open set $A subset mathbbC$ if it is differentiable at each point of the set $A$.



The function $f : mathbbC rightarrow mathbbC$ is said to be analytic if it has power series representation.



We can prove that the two concepts are same for a single variable complex functions. So why these two different terms? Is there any difference between these two concepts in general, please give example.



Thank you for your help.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 12




    $begingroup$
    Your definitions should be the other way around. You have two concepts each one has its own name, (historically ) it just turn out they define the same functions on the complex numbers.
    $endgroup$
    – azarel
    Nov 20 '13 at 0:53






  • 4




    $begingroup$
    I've always understood it to be the other way around: "analytic" means it is equal to it power series within some non-zero radius of convergence, and "holomorphic" means it's differentiable.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Hardy
    Nov 20 '13 at 0:54






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    As already said, you switched the definitions. The introduction of this link will probably clarify a little more.
    $endgroup$
    – Mateus Sampaio
    Nov 20 '13 at 0:56













33












33








33


10



$begingroup$


A function $f : mathbbC rightarrow mathbbC$ is said to be holomorphic in an open set $A subset mathbbC$ if it is differentiable at each point of the set $A$.



The function $f : mathbbC rightarrow mathbbC$ is said to be analytic if it has power series representation.



We can prove that the two concepts are same for a single variable complex functions. So why these two different terms? Is there any difference between these two concepts in general, please give example.



Thank you for your help.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




A function $f : mathbbC rightarrow mathbbC$ is said to be holomorphic in an open set $A subset mathbbC$ if it is differentiable at each point of the set $A$.



The function $f : mathbbC rightarrow mathbbC$ is said to be analytic if it has power series representation.



We can prove that the two concepts are same for a single variable complex functions. So why these two different terms? Is there any difference between these two concepts in general, please give example.



Thank you for your help.







complex-analysis definition






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Sep 16 '18 at 5:20









SRJ

1,8981620




1,8981620










asked Nov 20 '13 at 0:47









DuttaDutta

3,89952443




3,89952443







  • 12




    $begingroup$
    Your definitions should be the other way around. You have two concepts each one has its own name, (historically ) it just turn out they define the same functions on the complex numbers.
    $endgroup$
    – azarel
    Nov 20 '13 at 0:53






  • 4




    $begingroup$
    I've always understood it to be the other way around: "analytic" means it is equal to it power series within some non-zero radius of convergence, and "holomorphic" means it's differentiable.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Hardy
    Nov 20 '13 at 0:54






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    As already said, you switched the definitions. The introduction of this link will probably clarify a little more.
    $endgroup$
    – Mateus Sampaio
    Nov 20 '13 at 0:56












  • 12




    $begingroup$
    Your definitions should be the other way around. You have two concepts each one has its own name, (historically ) it just turn out they define the same functions on the complex numbers.
    $endgroup$
    – azarel
    Nov 20 '13 at 0:53






  • 4




    $begingroup$
    I've always understood it to be the other way around: "analytic" means it is equal to it power series within some non-zero radius of convergence, and "holomorphic" means it's differentiable.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Hardy
    Nov 20 '13 at 0:54






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    As already said, you switched the definitions. The introduction of this link will probably clarify a little more.
    $endgroup$
    – Mateus Sampaio
    Nov 20 '13 at 0:56







12




12




$begingroup$
Your definitions should be the other way around. You have two concepts each one has its own name, (historically ) it just turn out they define the same functions on the complex numbers.
$endgroup$
– azarel
Nov 20 '13 at 0:53




$begingroup$
Your definitions should be the other way around. You have two concepts each one has its own name, (historically ) it just turn out they define the same functions on the complex numbers.
$endgroup$
– azarel
Nov 20 '13 at 0:53




4




4




$begingroup$
I've always understood it to be the other way around: "analytic" means it is equal to it power series within some non-zero radius of convergence, and "holomorphic" means it's differentiable.
$endgroup$
– Michael Hardy
Nov 20 '13 at 0:54




$begingroup$
I've always understood it to be the other way around: "analytic" means it is equal to it power series within some non-zero radius of convergence, and "holomorphic" means it's differentiable.
$endgroup$
– Michael Hardy
Nov 20 '13 at 0:54




1




1




$begingroup$
As already said, you switched the definitions. The introduction of this link will probably clarify a little more.
$endgroup$
– Mateus Sampaio
Nov 20 '13 at 0:56




$begingroup$
As already said, you switched the definitions. The introduction of this link will probably clarify a little more.
$endgroup$
– Mateus Sampaio
Nov 20 '13 at 0:56










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















27












$begingroup$


So why these two different terms?




Because the history of mathematical terms is long and complicated. At least we stopped talking about monogenic functions and regular functions, which are two more terms for the same concept (as far as complex analysis is concerned). Quoting HOMT site:




In modern analysis the term ANALYTIC FUNCTION is used in two ways: (of a complex function) having a complex derivative at every point of its domain, and in consequence possessing derivatives of all orders and agreeing with its Taylor series locally; (of a real function) possessing derivatives of all orders and agreeing with its Taylor series locally.




Since the first usage is so popular (due to the ubiquity of power series in complex analysis, where they exist for every differentiable function), one will often say real-analytic when referring to the usage of the second kind.



Also from HOMT, an explanation of what analytic meant in the less rigorous age of analysis:




[In Lagrange's] Théorie des Fonctions Analytiques (1797) [...] an analytic function simply signified a function of the kind treated in analysis. The connection between the usage of Lagrange and modern usage is explained by Judith V. Grabiner in her The Origins of Cauchy’s Rigorous Calculus: "For Lagrange, all the applications of calculus ... rested on those properties of functions which could be learned by studying their Taylor series developments ... Weierstrass later exploited this idea in his theory of functions of a complex variable, retaining Lagrange’s term "analytic function" to designate, for Weierstrass, a function of a complex variable with a convergent Taylor series."




As for "holomorphic": in complex analysis we often encounter both Taylor series and Laurent series. For the latter, it matters very much whether the number of negative powers is finite or infinite. To enunciate these distinctions, the words holomorphic and meromorphic were introduced. Meromorphic allows poles (i.e., finitely many negative powers in the Laurent series), while holomorphic does not. From a certain viewpoint (the Riemann sphere), meromorphic functions are no worse than holomorphic ones; while at other times, the presence of poles changes the situation.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    and all. Thank you for your information.
    $endgroup$
    – Dutta
    Nov 21 '13 at 0:43










  • $begingroup$
    Lovely explanation.
    $endgroup$
    – Amey Joshi
    Mar 7 '17 at 15:22











Your Answer








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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









27












$begingroup$


So why these two different terms?




Because the history of mathematical terms is long and complicated. At least we stopped talking about monogenic functions and regular functions, which are two more terms for the same concept (as far as complex analysis is concerned). Quoting HOMT site:




In modern analysis the term ANALYTIC FUNCTION is used in two ways: (of a complex function) having a complex derivative at every point of its domain, and in consequence possessing derivatives of all orders and agreeing with its Taylor series locally; (of a real function) possessing derivatives of all orders and agreeing with its Taylor series locally.




Since the first usage is so popular (due to the ubiquity of power series in complex analysis, where they exist for every differentiable function), one will often say real-analytic when referring to the usage of the second kind.



Also from HOMT, an explanation of what analytic meant in the less rigorous age of analysis:




[In Lagrange's] Théorie des Fonctions Analytiques (1797) [...] an analytic function simply signified a function of the kind treated in analysis. The connection between the usage of Lagrange and modern usage is explained by Judith V. Grabiner in her The Origins of Cauchy’s Rigorous Calculus: "For Lagrange, all the applications of calculus ... rested on those properties of functions which could be learned by studying their Taylor series developments ... Weierstrass later exploited this idea in his theory of functions of a complex variable, retaining Lagrange’s term "analytic function" to designate, for Weierstrass, a function of a complex variable with a convergent Taylor series."




As for "holomorphic": in complex analysis we often encounter both Taylor series and Laurent series. For the latter, it matters very much whether the number of negative powers is finite or infinite. To enunciate these distinctions, the words holomorphic and meromorphic were introduced. Meromorphic allows poles (i.e., finitely many negative powers in the Laurent series), while holomorphic does not. From a certain viewpoint (the Riemann sphere), meromorphic functions are no worse than holomorphic ones; while at other times, the presence of poles changes the situation.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    and all. Thank you for your information.
    $endgroup$
    – Dutta
    Nov 21 '13 at 0:43










  • $begingroup$
    Lovely explanation.
    $endgroup$
    – Amey Joshi
    Mar 7 '17 at 15:22















27












$begingroup$


So why these two different terms?




Because the history of mathematical terms is long and complicated. At least we stopped talking about monogenic functions and regular functions, which are two more terms for the same concept (as far as complex analysis is concerned). Quoting HOMT site:




In modern analysis the term ANALYTIC FUNCTION is used in two ways: (of a complex function) having a complex derivative at every point of its domain, and in consequence possessing derivatives of all orders and agreeing with its Taylor series locally; (of a real function) possessing derivatives of all orders and agreeing with its Taylor series locally.




Since the first usage is so popular (due to the ubiquity of power series in complex analysis, where they exist for every differentiable function), one will often say real-analytic when referring to the usage of the second kind.



Also from HOMT, an explanation of what analytic meant in the less rigorous age of analysis:




[In Lagrange's] Théorie des Fonctions Analytiques (1797) [...] an analytic function simply signified a function of the kind treated in analysis. The connection between the usage of Lagrange and modern usage is explained by Judith V. Grabiner in her The Origins of Cauchy’s Rigorous Calculus: "For Lagrange, all the applications of calculus ... rested on those properties of functions which could be learned by studying their Taylor series developments ... Weierstrass later exploited this idea in his theory of functions of a complex variable, retaining Lagrange’s term "analytic function" to designate, for Weierstrass, a function of a complex variable with a convergent Taylor series."




As for "holomorphic": in complex analysis we often encounter both Taylor series and Laurent series. For the latter, it matters very much whether the number of negative powers is finite or infinite. To enunciate these distinctions, the words holomorphic and meromorphic were introduced. Meromorphic allows poles (i.e., finitely many negative powers in the Laurent series), while holomorphic does not. From a certain viewpoint (the Riemann sphere), meromorphic functions are no worse than holomorphic ones; while at other times, the presence of poles changes the situation.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    and all. Thank you for your information.
    $endgroup$
    – Dutta
    Nov 21 '13 at 0:43










  • $begingroup$
    Lovely explanation.
    $endgroup$
    – Amey Joshi
    Mar 7 '17 at 15:22













27












27








27





$begingroup$


So why these two different terms?




Because the history of mathematical terms is long and complicated. At least we stopped talking about monogenic functions and regular functions, which are two more terms for the same concept (as far as complex analysis is concerned). Quoting HOMT site:




In modern analysis the term ANALYTIC FUNCTION is used in two ways: (of a complex function) having a complex derivative at every point of its domain, and in consequence possessing derivatives of all orders and agreeing with its Taylor series locally; (of a real function) possessing derivatives of all orders and agreeing with its Taylor series locally.




Since the first usage is so popular (due to the ubiquity of power series in complex analysis, where they exist for every differentiable function), one will often say real-analytic when referring to the usage of the second kind.



Also from HOMT, an explanation of what analytic meant in the less rigorous age of analysis:




[In Lagrange's] Théorie des Fonctions Analytiques (1797) [...] an analytic function simply signified a function of the kind treated in analysis. The connection between the usage of Lagrange and modern usage is explained by Judith V. Grabiner in her The Origins of Cauchy’s Rigorous Calculus: "For Lagrange, all the applications of calculus ... rested on those properties of functions which could be learned by studying their Taylor series developments ... Weierstrass later exploited this idea in his theory of functions of a complex variable, retaining Lagrange’s term "analytic function" to designate, for Weierstrass, a function of a complex variable with a convergent Taylor series."




As for "holomorphic": in complex analysis we often encounter both Taylor series and Laurent series. For the latter, it matters very much whether the number of negative powers is finite or infinite. To enunciate these distinctions, the words holomorphic and meromorphic were introduced. Meromorphic allows poles (i.e., finitely many negative powers in the Laurent series), while holomorphic does not. From a certain viewpoint (the Riemann sphere), meromorphic functions are no worse than holomorphic ones; while at other times, the presence of poles changes the situation.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$




So why these two different terms?




Because the history of mathematical terms is long and complicated. At least we stopped talking about monogenic functions and regular functions, which are two more terms for the same concept (as far as complex analysis is concerned). Quoting HOMT site:




In modern analysis the term ANALYTIC FUNCTION is used in two ways: (of a complex function) having a complex derivative at every point of its domain, and in consequence possessing derivatives of all orders and agreeing with its Taylor series locally; (of a real function) possessing derivatives of all orders and agreeing with its Taylor series locally.




Since the first usage is so popular (due to the ubiquity of power series in complex analysis, where they exist for every differentiable function), one will often say real-analytic when referring to the usage of the second kind.



Also from HOMT, an explanation of what analytic meant in the less rigorous age of analysis:




[In Lagrange's] Théorie des Fonctions Analytiques (1797) [...] an analytic function simply signified a function of the kind treated in analysis. The connection between the usage of Lagrange and modern usage is explained by Judith V. Grabiner in her The Origins of Cauchy’s Rigorous Calculus: "For Lagrange, all the applications of calculus ... rested on those properties of functions which could be learned by studying their Taylor series developments ... Weierstrass later exploited this idea in his theory of functions of a complex variable, retaining Lagrange’s term "analytic function" to designate, for Weierstrass, a function of a complex variable with a convergent Taylor series."




As for "holomorphic": in complex analysis we often encounter both Taylor series and Laurent series. For the latter, it matters very much whether the number of negative powers is finite or infinite. To enunciate these distinctions, the words holomorphic and meromorphic were introduced. Meromorphic allows poles (i.e., finitely many negative powers in the Laurent series), while holomorphic does not. From a certain viewpoint (the Riemann sphere), meromorphic functions are no worse than holomorphic ones; while at other times, the presence of poles changes the situation.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Nov 20 '13 at 13:43

























answered Nov 20 '13 at 13:31









user103402user103402

1,7632933




1,7632933







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    and all. Thank you for your information.
    $endgroup$
    – Dutta
    Nov 21 '13 at 0:43










  • $begingroup$
    Lovely explanation.
    $endgroup$
    – Amey Joshi
    Mar 7 '17 at 15:22












  • 2




    $begingroup$
    and all. Thank you for your information.
    $endgroup$
    – Dutta
    Nov 21 '13 at 0:43










  • $begingroup$
    Lovely explanation.
    $endgroup$
    – Amey Joshi
    Mar 7 '17 at 15:22







2




2




$begingroup$
and all. Thank you for your information.
$endgroup$
– Dutta
Nov 21 '13 at 0:43




$begingroup$
and all. Thank you for your information.
$endgroup$
– Dutta
Nov 21 '13 at 0:43












$begingroup$
Lovely explanation.
$endgroup$
– Amey Joshi
Mar 7 '17 at 15:22




$begingroup$
Lovely explanation.
$endgroup$
– Amey Joshi
Mar 7 '17 at 15:22

















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