Rudin Functional analysis, theorem 4.12 corollary (b)Theorem 1.24 Rudin, Functional analysis (first half)Theorem 1.14 (b) Rudin functional analysis, few clarifications.Rudin functional analysis theorem 2.5.Rudin functional analysis, theorem 2.11 (Open mapping theorem)Rudin functional analysis, theorem 3.23. Finite intersection propertyRudin Functional Analysis Theorem 3.25Rudin functional analysis, theorem 3.27Rudin functional analysis theorem 3.28, application of Reisz representation theorem.Rudin functional analysis, theorem 4.9 part (b)Rudin functional analysis theorem 4.13, (a) and (b)

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Rudin Functional analysis, theorem 4.12 corollary (b)


Theorem 1.24 Rudin, Functional analysis (first half)Theorem 1.14 (b) Rudin functional analysis, few clarifications.Rudin functional analysis theorem 2.5.Rudin functional analysis, theorem 2.11 (Open mapping theorem)Rudin functional analysis, theorem 3.23. Finite intersection propertyRudin Functional Analysis Theorem 3.25Rudin functional analysis, theorem 3.27Rudin functional analysis theorem 3.28, application of Reisz representation theorem.Rudin functional analysis, theorem 4.9 part (b)Rudin functional analysis theorem 4.13, (a) and (b)













0












$begingroup$



Suppose $X$ and $Y$ are Banach spaces, and $T in mathcalB(X,Y)$ Then
$$
mathcalN(T^*) = mathcalR(T)^perp ;;textand;; mathcalN(T) = ^perpmathcalR(T^*)
$$




The corollary in the title




b) $mathcalR(T)$ is dense in $Y$ iff $T^*$ is one-to-one




The proof is really short but there's a specific bit I don't get (fully at least)




$mathcalR(T)$ is dense in $Y$ iff $mathcalR(T)^perp = left 0right$




I've tried to prove this bit by exercise, and I think the most promosing was to show that



$$
^perp(mathcalR(T)^perp) = Y iff mathcalR(T) = left0right
$$



The reason of the equality on the left of the double implication is because of theorem 4.7, which states that the orthogonal of the orthogonal of a set is the norm closure of a set.



However I'm not entirely sure how to exploit this, can you help?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$
















    0












    $begingroup$



    Suppose $X$ and $Y$ are Banach spaces, and $T in mathcalB(X,Y)$ Then
    $$
    mathcalN(T^*) = mathcalR(T)^perp ;;textand;; mathcalN(T) = ^perpmathcalR(T^*)
    $$




    The corollary in the title




    b) $mathcalR(T)$ is dense in $Y$ iff $T^*$ is one-to-one




    The proof is really short but there's a specific bit I don't get (fully at least)




    $mathcalR(T)$ is dense in $Y$ iff $mathcalR(T)^perp = left 0right$




    I've tried to prove this bit by exercise, and I think the most promosing was to show that



    $$
    ^perp(mathcalR(T)^perp) = Y iff mathcalR(T) = left0right
    $$



    The reason of the equality on the left of the double implication is because of theorem 4.7, which states that the orthogonal of the orthogonal of a set is the norm closure of a set.



    However I'm not entirely sure how to exploit this, can you help?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$



      Suppose $X$ and $Y$ are Banach spaces, and $T in mathcalB(X,Y)$ Then
      $$
      mathcalN(T^*) = mathcalR(T)^perp ;;textand;; mathcalN(T) = ^perpmathcalR(T^*)
      $$




      The corollary in the title




      b) $mathcalR(T)$ is dense in $Y$ iff $T^*$ is one-to-one




      The proof is really short but there's a specific bit I don't get (fully at least)




      $mathcalR(T)$ is dense in $Y$ iff $mathcalR(T)^perp = left 0right$




      I've tried to prove this bit by exercise, and I think the most promosing was to show that



      $$
      ^perp(mathcalR(T)^perp) = Y iff mathcalR(T) = left0right
      $$



      The reason of the equality on the left of the double implication is because of theorem 4.7, which states that the orthogonal of the orthogonal of a set is the norm closure of a set.



      However I'm not entirely sure how to exploit this, can you help?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$





      Suppose $X$ and $Y$ are Banach spaces, and $T in mathcalB(X,Y)$ Then
      $$
      mathcalN(T^*) = mathcalR(T)^perp ;;textand;; mathcalN(T) = ^perpmathcalR(T^*)
      $$




      The corollary in the title




      b) $mathcalR(T)$ is dense in $Y$ iff $T^*$ is one-to-one




      The proof is really short but there's a specific bit I don't get (fully at least)




      $mathcalR(T)$ is dense in $Y$ iff $mathcalR(T)^perp = left 0right$




      I've tried to prove this bit by exercise, and I think the most promosing was to show that



      $$
      ^perp(mathcalR(T)^perp) = Y iff mathcalR(T) = left0right
      $$



      The reason of the equality on the left of the double implication is because of theorem 4.7, which states that the orthogonal of the orthogonal of a set is the norm closure of a set.



      However I'm not entirely sure how to exploit this, can you help?







      functional-analysis proof-explanation normed-spaces topological-vector-spaces duality-theorems






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Mar 11 at 11:51







      user8469759

















      asked Mar 11 at 10:24









      user8469759user8469759

      1,5561618




      1,5561618




















          1 Answer
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          0












          $begingroup$

          Here is another approach:



          Suppose $R(T)$ is dense. Any linear functional that vanishes on $R(T)$ must vanish on the entire space by continuity considerations. That is, $R(T)^perp$ consists only of the zero functional.



          Conversely suppose $R(T)$ is not dense. Then $overlineR(T)$ is a proper closed subspace of $Y$ and there exists (per e.g. Hahn-Banach) a nontrivial linear function $phi$ that vanishes on $overlineR(T)$, meaning $R(T)^perp not= 0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









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            1 Answer
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            active

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            active

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            0












            $begingroup$

            Here is another approach:



            Suppose $R(T)$ is dense. Any linear functional that vanishes on $R(T)$ must vanish on the entire space by continuity considerations. That is, $R(T)^perp$ consists only of the zero functional.



            Conversely suppose $R(T)$ is not dense. Then $overlineR(T)$ is a proper closed subspace of $Y$ and there exists (per e.g. Hahn-Banach) a nontrivial linear function $phi$ that vanishes on $overlineR(T)$, meaning $R(T)^perp not= 0$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$

















              0












              $begingroup$

              Here is another approach:



              Suppose $R(T)$ is dense. Any linear functional that vanishes on $R(T)$ must vanish on the entire space by continuity considerations. That is, $R(T)^perp$ consists only of the zero functional.



              Conversely suppose $R(T)$ is not dense. Then $overlineR(T)$ is a proper closed subspace of $Y$ and there exists (per e.g. Hahn-Banach) a nontrivial linear function $phi$ that vanishes on $overlineR(T)$, meaning $R(T)^perp not= 0$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$















                0












                0








                0





                $begingroup$

                Here is another approach:



                Suppose $R(T)$ is dense. Any linear functional that vanishes on $R(T)$ must vanish on the entire space by continuity considerations. That is, $R(T)^perp$ consists only of the zero functional.



                Conversely suppose $R(T)$ is not dense. Then $overlineR(T)$ is a proper closed subspace of $Y$ and there exists (per e.g. Hahn-Banach) a nontrivial linear function $phi$ that vanishes on $overlineR(T)$, meaning $R(T)^perp not= 0$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                Here is another approach:



                Suppose $R(T)$ is dense. Any linear functional that vanishes on $R(T)$ must vanish on the entire space by continuity considerations. That is, $R(T)^perp$ consists only of the zero functional.



                Conversely suppose $R(T)$ is not dense. Then $overlineR(T)$ is a proper closed subspace of $Y$ and there exists (per e.g. Hahn-Banach) a nontrivial linear function $phi$ that vanishes on $overlineR(T)$, meaning $R(T)^perp not= 0$.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Mar 11 at 11:31









                Umberto P.Umberto P.

                39.9k13267




                39.9k13267



























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