Rudin Functional analysis, theorem 4.12 corollary (b)Theorem 1.24 Rudin, Functional analysis (first half)Theorem 1.14 (b) Rudin functional analysis, few clarifications.Rudin functional analysis theorem 2.5.Rudin functional analysis, theorem 2.11 (Open mapping theorem)Rudin functional analysis, theorem 3.23. Finite intersection propertyRudin Functional Analysis Theorem 3.25Rudin functional analysis, theorem 3.27Rudin functional analysis theorem 3.28, application of Reisz representation theorem.Rudin functional analysis, theorem 4.9 part (b)Rudin functional analysis theorem 4.13, (a) and (b)
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Rudin Functional analysis, theorem 4.12 corollary (b)
Theorem 1.24 Rudin, Functional analysis (first half)Theorem 1.14 (b) Rudin functional analysis, few clarifications.Rudin functional analysis theorem 2.5.Rudin functional analysis, theorem 2.11 (Open mapping theorem)Rudin functional analysis, theorem 3.23. Finite intersection propertyRudin Functional Analysis Theorem 3.25Rudin functional analysis, theorem 3.27Rudin functional analysis theorem 3.28, application of Reisz representation theorem.Rudin functional analysis, theorem 4.9 part (b)Rudin functional analysis theorem 4.13, (a) and (b)
$begingroup$
Suppose $X$ and $Y$ are Banach spaces, and $T in mathcalB(X,Y)$ Then
$$
mathcalN(T^*) = mathcalR(T)^perp ;;textand;; mathcalN(T) = ^perpmathcalR(T^*)
$$
The corollary in the title
b) $mathcalR(T)$ is dense in $Y$ iff $T^*$ is one-to-one
The proof is really short but there's a specific bit I don't get (fully at least)
$mathcalR(T)$ is dense in $Y$ iff $mathcalR(T)^perp = left 0right$
I've tried to prove this bit by exercise, and I think the most promosing was to show that
$$
^perp(mathcalR(T)^perp) = Y iff mathcalR(T) = left0right
$$
The reason of the equality on the left of the double implication is because of theorem 4.7, which states that the orthogonal of the orthogonal of a set is the norm closure of a set.
However I'm not entirely sure how to exploit this, can you help?
functional-analysis proof-explanation normed-spaces topological-vector-spaces duality-theorems
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose $X$ and $Y$ are Banach spaces, and $T in mathcalB(X,Y)$ Then
$$
mathcalN(T^*) = mathcalR(T)^perp ;;textand;; mathcalN(T) = ^perpmathcalR(T^*)
$$
The corollary in the title
b) $mathcalR(T)$ is dense in $Y$ iff $T^*$ is one-to-one
The proof is really short but there's a specific bit I don't get (fully at least)
$mathcalR(T)$ is dense in $Y$ iff $mathcalR(T)^perp = left 0right$
I've tried to prove this bit by exercise, and I think the most promosing was to show that
$$
^perp(mathcalR(T)^perp) = Y iff mathcalR(T) = left0right
$$
The reason of the equality on the left of the double implication is because of theorem 4.7, which states that the orthogonal of the orthogonal of a set is the norm closure of a set.
However I'm not entirely sure how to exploit this, can you help?
functional-analysis proof-explanation normed-spaces topological-vector-spaces duality-theorems
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose $X$ and $Y$ are Banach spaces, and $T in mathcalB(X,Y)$ Then
$$
mathcalN(T^*) = mathcalR(T)^perp ;;textand;; mathcalN(T) = ^perpmathcalR(T^*)
$$
The corollary in the title
b) $mathcalR(T)$ is dense in $Y$ iff $T^*$ is one-to-one
The proof is really short but there's a specific bit I don't get (fully at least)
$mathcalR(T)$ is dense in $Y$ iff $mathcalR(T)^perp = left 0right$
I've tried to prove this bit by exercise, and I think the most promosing was to show that
$$
^perp(mathcalR(T)^perp) = Y iff mathcalR(T) = left0right
$$
The reason of the equality on the left of the double implication is because of theorem 4.7, which states that the orthogonal of the orthogonal of a set is the norm closure of a set.
However I'm not entirely sure how to exploit this, can you help?
functional-analysis proof-explanation normed-spaces topological-vector-spaces duality-theorems
$endgroup$
Suppose $X$ and $Y$ are Banach spaces, and $T in mathcalB(X,Y)$ Then
$$
mathcalN(T^*) = mathcalR(T)^perp ;;textand;; mathcalN(T) = ^perpmathcalR(T^*)
$$
The corollary in the title
b) $mathcalR(T)$ is dense in $Y$ iff $T^*$ is one-to-one
The proof is really short but there's a specific bit I don't get (fully at least)
$mathcalR(T)$ is dense in $Y$ iff $mathcalR(T)^perp = left 0right$
I've tried to prove this bit by exercise, and I think the most promosing was to show that
$$
^perp(mathcalR(T)^perp) = Y iff mathcalR(T) = left0right
$$
The reason of the equality on the left of the double implication is because of theorem 4.7, which states that the orthogonal of the orthogonal of a set is the norm closure of a set.
However I'm not entirely sure how to exploit this, can you help?
functional-analysis proof-explanation normed-spaces topological-vector-spaces duality-theorems
functional-analysis proof-explanation normed-spaces topological-vector-spaces duality-theorems
edited Mar 11 at 11:51
user8469759
asked Mar 11 at 10:24
user8469759user8469759
1,5561618
1,5561618
add a comment |
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
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$begingroup$
Here is another approach:
Suppose $R(T)$ is dense. Any linear functional that vanishes on $R(T)$ must vanish on the entire space by continuity considerations. That is, $R(T)^perp$ consists only of the zero functional.
Conversely suppose $R(T)$ is not dense. Then $overlineR(T)$ is a proper closed subspace of $Y$ and there exists (per e.g. Hahn-Banach) a nontrivial linear function $phi$ that vanishes on $overlineR(T)$, meaning $R(T)^perp not= 0$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
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active
oldest
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active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Here is another approach:
Suppose $R(T)$ is dense. Any linear functional that vanishes on $R(T)$ must vanish on the entire space by continuity considerations. That is, $R(T)^perp$ consists only of the zero functional.
Conversely suppose $R(T)$ is not dense. Then $overlineR(T)$ is a proper closed subspace of $Y$ and there exists (per e.g. Hahn-Banach) a nontrivial linear function $phi$ that vanishes on $overlineR(T)$, meaning $R(T)^perp not= 0$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Here is another approach:
Suppose $R(T)$ is dense. Any linear functional that vanishes on $R(T)$ must vanish on the entire space by continuity considerations. That is, $R(T)^perp$ consists only of the zero functional.
Conversely suppose $R(T)$ is not dense. Then $overlineR(T)$ is a proper closed subspace of $Y$ and there exists (per e.g. Hahn-Banach) a nontrivial linear function $phi$ that vanishes on $overlineR(T)$, meaning $R(T)^perp not= 0$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Here is another approach:
Suppose $R(T)$ is dense. Any linear functional that vanishes on $R(T)$ must vanish on the entire space by continuity considerations. That is, $R(T)^perp$ consists only of the zero functional.
Conversely suppose $R(T)$ is not dense. Then $overlineR(T)$ is a proper closed subspace of $Y$ and there exists (per e.g. Hahn-Banach) a nontrivial linear function $phi$ that vanishes on $overlineR(T)$, meaning $R(T)^perp not= 0$.
$endgroup$
Here is another approach:
Suppose $R(T)$ is dense. Any linear functional that vanishes on $R(T)$ must vanish on the entire space by continuity considerations. That is, $R(T)^perp$ consists only of the zero functional.
Conversely suppose $R(T)$ is not dense. Then $overlineR(T)$ is a proper closed subspace of $Y$ and there exists (per e.g. Hahn-Banach) a nontrivial linear function $phi$ that vanishes on $overlineR(T)$, meaning $R(T)^perp not= 0$.
answered Mar 11 at 11:31
Umberto P.Umberto P.
39.9k13267
39.9k13267
add a comment |
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