Does injectivity of dual imply injectivity of pullback by a surjective submersion?When is the pullback of a linear injection a surjection on dual space?Does monotonicity imply surjectivity?Projection of fiber bundle is a submersionDetailed proof (submersion) : show that the differential is surjectiveWhy do we need to suppose finite dimension to prove dual of linear map $L$ is injective $Rightarrow$ $L$ is surjective?Pullback of diffrential forms in surjective submersionsDescribe $f$ in terms of the tensor products of $alpha^i$ and $alpha^j$. Is this inner product? What are its coefficients?Derivations of bases of $A_k(V)$ and $L_k(V)$: what's the difference?Matrix-based proof of transformation rule for a wedge product of covectors by wedge product of covectorsWhy is $e^it$ a submersion, and what is the relationship between the derivative $dot h(t)$ and the differential $h_*,t$?

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Does injectivity of dual imply injectivity of pullback by a surjective submersion?


When is the pullback of a linear injection a surjection on dual space?Does monotonicity imply surjectivity?Projection of fiber bundle is a submersionDetailed proof (submersion) : show that the differential is surjectiveWhy do we need to suppose finite dimension to prove dual of linear map $L$ is injective $Rightarrow$ $L$ is surjective?Pullback of diffrential forms in surjective submersionsDescribe $f$ in terms of the tensor products of $alpha^i$ and $alpha^j$. Is this inner product? What are its coefficients?Derivations of bases of $A_k(V)$ and $L_k(V)$: what's the difference?Matrix-based proof of transformation rule for a wedge product of covectors by wedge product of covectorsWhy is $e^it$ a submersion, and what is the relationship between the derivative $dot h(t)$ and the differential $h_*,t$?













2












$begingroup$


My book is An Introduction to Manifolds by Loring W. Tu.



Does Problem 18.8 below follow from an earlier exercise?



Problem 18.8 (Pullback by a surjective submersion)



enter image description here



Problem 10.5a (Injectivity of the dual map)



enter image description here



My thought is that just as we have a dual for k-covectors:



enter image description here



enter image description here



So do we have a dual for k-forms, although that might be what this exercise is trying to prove.



One reason I think Problem 10.5a doesn't apply is that that $pi$ is a submersion is used to prove $pi^*$ is injective (see below), while Problem 10.5a does not seem to say anything explicitly about submersions. Either that or the proof below is just a proof that is alternative, direct and doesn't rely on category theory.



enter image description here










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$
















    2












    $begingroup$


    My book is An Introduction to Manifolds by Loring W. Tu.



    Does Problem 18.8 below follow from an earlier exercise?



    Problem 18.8 (Pullback by a surjective submersion)



    enter image description here



    Problem 10.5a (Injectivity of the dual map)



    enter image description here



    My thought is that just as we have a dual for k-covectors:



    enter image description here



    enter image description here



    So do we have a dual for k-forms, although that might be what this exercise is trying to prove.



    One reason I think Problem 10.5a doesn't apply is that that $pi$ is a submersion is used to prove $pi^*$ is injective (see below), while Problem 10.5a does not seem to say anything explicitly about submersions. Either that or the proof below is just a proof that is alternative, direct and doesn't rely on category theory.



    enter image description here










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      2












      2








      2


      1



      $begingroup$


      My book is An Introduction to Manifolds by Loring W. Tu.



      Does Problem 18.8 below follow from an earlier exercise?



      Problem 18.8 (Pullback by a surjective submersion)



      enter image description here



      Problem 10.5a (Injectivity of the dual map)



      enter image description here



      My thought is that just as we have a dual for k-covectors:



      enter image description here



      enter image description here



      So do we have a dual for k-forms, although that might be what this exercise is trying to prove.



      One reason I think Problem 10.5a doesn't apply is that that $pi$ is a submersion is used to prove $pi^*$ is injective (see below), while Problem 10.5a does not seem to say anything explicitly about submersions. Either that or the proof below is just a proof that is alternative, direct and doesn't rely on category theory.



      enter image description here










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      My book is An Introduction to Manifolds by Loring W. Tu.



      Does Problem 18.8 below follow from an earlier exercise?



      Problem 18.8 (Pullback by a surjective submersion)



      enter image description here



      Problem 10.5a (Injectivity of the dual map)



      enter image description here



      My thought is that just as we have a dual for k-covectors:



      enter image description here



      enter image description here



      So do we have a dual for k-forms, although that might be what this exercise is trying to prove.



      One reason I think Problem 10.5a doesn't apply is that that $pi$ is a submersion is used to prove $pi^*$ is injective (see below), while Problem 10.5a does not seem to say anything explicitly about submersions. Either that or the proof below is just a proof that is alternative, direct and doesn't rely on category theory.



      enter image description here







      linear-algebra abstract-algebra differential-geometry category-theory differential-forms






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Mar 11 at 11:32







      Selene Auckland

















      asked Mar 4 at 6:08









      Selene AucklandSelene Auckland

      6911




      6911




















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          2












          $begingroup$

          Problem 18.8 can be proven in the following way (where I hope to not miss anything important hiding under the surface; let me know if you find issues in the proof!).



          You should first note that the pullback map $pi^*$ is the dual map to the map $pi$. Now, a general fact from linear algebra is that for any linear map $f$, $$ftext injective Longleftrightarrow f^*text surjective,\ ftext surjective Longleftrightarrow f^*text injective. $$ So in your case, if $pi$ is surjective, $pi^*$ is an injective homomorphism of vector spaces and you are left showing that it respects the algebra structure on $Omega^*(M)$, i.e. that everything fits well with the differential. I think that you will need the property of being a submersion in that. Try to proceed with what I wrote, if you can't, I will work out a solution and put it here.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            I didn't realise that you put problem 10.5a, sorry. I do indeed agree that this suffices provided that you know that $pi^*$ is a morphism of algebras not only of vector spaces. If you know that already, you should be fine proving problem 10.5a.
            $endgroup$
            – James
            Mar 4 at 10:49







          • 1




            $begingroup$
            That’s what I meant, yes
            $endgroup$
            – James
            Mar 5 at 5:26






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @SeleneAuckland If this answered your question, please consider accepting the answer.
            $endgroup$
            – James
            Mar 6 at 7:44






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Thanks! Wait, I just realized a potential flaw. $pi$ is not necessarily a linear map right?
            $endgroup$
            – Selene Auckland
            Mar 7 at 9:35







          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @Selene: You are correct that $pi$ is not necessarily linear. In fact,$tildeM$ and $M$ need not be vector spaces, so "linearity" is meaningless! On the other hand, saying $pi$ is a submersion means that $pi_ast: T_p tildeMrightarrow T_pi(p) M$ is a surjective linear map. So, apply what James said, except using $pi_ast$ instead of $pi$.
            $endgroup$
            – Jason DeVito
            Mar 11 at 15:58










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          1 Answer
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          active

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          active

          oldest

          votes









          2












          $begingroup$

          Problem 18.8 can be proven in the following way (where I hope to not miss anything important hiding under the surface; let me know if you find issues in the proof!).



          You should first note that the pullback map $pi^*$ is the dual map to the map $pi$. Now, a general fact from linear algebra is that for any linear map $f$, $$ftext injective Longleftrightarrow f^*text surjective,\ ftext surjective Longleftrightarrow f^*text injective. $$ So in your case, if $pi$ is surjective, $pi^*$ is an injective homomorphism of vector spaces and you are left showing that it respects the algebra structure on $Omega^*(M)$, i.e. that everything fits well with the differential. I think that you will need the property of being a submersion in that. Try to proceed with what I wrote, if you can't, I will work out a solution and put it here.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            I didn't realise that you put problem 10.5a, sorry. I do indeed agree that this suffices provided that you know that $pi^*$ is a morphism of algebras not only of vector spaces. If you know that already, you should be fine proving problem 10.5a.
            $endgroup$
            – James
            Mar 4 at 10:49







          • 1




            $begingroup$
            That’s what I meant, yes
            $endgroup$
            – James
            Mar 5 at 5:26






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @SeleneAuckland If this answered your question, please consider accepting the answer.
            $endgroup$
            – James
            Mar 6 at 7:44






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Thanks! Wait, I just realized a potential flaw. $pi$ is not necessarily a linear map right?
            $endgroup$
            – Selene Auckland
            Mar 7 at 9:35







          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @Selene: You are correct that $pi$ is not necessarily linear. In fact,$tildeM$ and $M$ need not be vector spaces, so "linearity" is meaningless! On the other hand, saying $pi$ is a submersion means that $pi_ast: T_p tildeMrightarrow T_pi(p) M$ is a surjective linear map. So, apply what James said, except using $pi_ast$ instead of $pi$.
            $endgroup$
            – Jason DeVito
            Mar 11 at 15:58















          2












          $begingroup$

          Problem 18.8 can be proven in the following way (where I hope to not miss anything important hiding under the surface; let me know if you find issues in the proof!).



          You should first note that the pullback map $pi^*$ is the dual map to the map $pi$. Now, a general fact from linear algebra is that for any linear map $f$, $$ftext injective Longleftrightarrow f^*text surjective,\ ftext surjective Longleftrightarrow f^*text injective. $$ So in your case, if $pi$ is surjective, $pi^*$ is an injective homomorphism of vector spaces and you are left showing that it respects the algebra structure on $Omega^*(M)$, i.e. that everything fits well with the differential. I think that you will need the property of being a submersion in that. Try to proceed with what I wrote, if you can't, I will work out a solution and put it here.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            I didn't realise that you put problem 10.5a, sorry. I do indeed agree that this suffices provided that you know that $pi^*$ is a morphism of algebras not only of vector spaces. If you know that already, you should be fine proving problem 10.5a.
            $endgroup$
            – James
            Mar 4 at 10:49







          • 1




            $begingroup$
            That’s what I meant, yes
            $endgroup$
            – James
            Mar 5 at 5:26






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @SeleneAuckland If this answered your question, please consider accepting the answer.
            $endgroup$
            – James
            Mar 6 at 7:44






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Thanks! Wait, I just realized a potential flaw. $pi$ is not necessarily a linear map right?
            $endgroup$
            – Selene Auckland
            Mar 7 at 9:35







          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @Selene: You are correct that $pi$ is not necessarily linear. In fact,$tildeM$ and $M$ need not be vector spaces, so "linearity" is meaningless! On the other hand, saying $pi$ is a submersion means that $pi_ast: T_p tildeMrightarrow T_pi(p) M$ is a surjective linear map. So, apply what James said, except using $pi_ast$ instead of $pi$.
            $endgroup$
            – Jason DeVito
            Mar 11 at 15:58













          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          Problem 18.8 can be proven in the following way (where I hope to not miss anything important hiding under the surface; let me know if you find issues in the proof!).



          You should first note that the pullback map $pi^*$ is the dual map to the map $pi$. Now, a general fact from linear algebra is that for any linear map $f$, $$ftext injective Longleftrightarrow f^*text surjective,\ ftext surjective Longleftrightarrow f^*text injective. $$ So in your case, if $pi$ is surjective, $pi^*$ is an injective homomorphism of vector spaces and you are left showing that it respects the algebra structure on $Omega^*(M)$, i.e. that everything fits well with the differential. I think that you will need the property of being a submersion in that. Try to proceed with what I wrote, if you can't, I will work out a solution and put it here.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Problem 18.8 can be proven in the following way (where I hope to not miss anything important hiding under the surface; let me know if you find issues in the proof!).



          You should first note that the pullback map $pi^*$ is the dual map to the map $pi$. Now, a general fact from linear algebra is that for any linear map $f$, $$ftext injective Longleftrightarrow f^*text surjective,\ ftext surjective Longleftrightarrow f^*text injective. $$ So in your case, if $pi$ is surjective, $pi^*$ is an injective homomorphism of vector spaces and you are left showing that it respects the algebra structure on $Omega^*(M)$, i.e. that everything fits well with the differential. I think that you will need the property of being a submersion in that. Try to proceed with what I wrote, if you can't, I will work out a solution and put it here.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Mar 4 at 9:03









          JamesJames

          1




          1







          • 1




            $begingroup$
            I didn't realise that you put problem 10.5a, sorry. I do indeed agree that this suffices provided that you know that $pi^*$ is a morphism of algebras not only of vector spaces. If you know that already, you should be fine proving problem 10.5a.
            $endgroup$
            – James
            Mar 4 at 10:49







          • 1




            $begingroup$
            That’s what I meant, yes
            $endgroup$
            – James
            Mar 5 at 5:26






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @SeleneAuckland If this answered your question, please consider accepting the answer.
            $endgroup$
            – James
            Mar 6 at 7:44






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Thanks! Wait, I just realized a potential flaw. $pi$ is not necessarily a linear map right?
            $endgroup$
            – Selene Auckland
            Mar 7 at 9:35







          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @Selene: You are correct that $pi$ is not necessarily linear. In fact,$tildeM$ and $M$ need not be vector spaces, so "linearity" is meaningless! On the other hand, saying $pi$ is a submersion means that $pi_ast: T_p tildeMrightarrow T_pi(p) M$ is a surjective linear map. So, apply what James said, except using $pi_ast$ instead of $pi$.
            $endgroup$
            – Jason DeVito
            Mar 11 at 15:58












          • 1




            $begingroup$
            I didn't realise that you put problem 10.5a, sorry. I do indeed agree that this suffices provided that you know that $pi^*$ is a morphism of algebras not only of vector spaces. If you know that already, you should be fine proving problem 10.5a.
            $endgroup$
            – James
            Mar 4 at 10:49







          • 1




            $begingroup$
            That’s what I meant, yes
            $endgroup$
            – James
            Mar 5 at 5:26






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @SeleneAuckland If this answered your question, please consider accepting the answer.
            $endgroup$
            – James
            Mar 6 at 7:44






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Thanks! Wait, I just realized a potential flaw. $pi$ is not necessarily a linear map right?
            $endgroup$
            – Selene Auckland
            Mar 7 at 9:35







          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @Selene: You are correct that $pi$ is not necessarily linear. In fact,$tildeM$ and $M$ need not be vector spaces, so "linearity" is meaningless! On the other hand, saying $pi$ is a submersion means that $pi_ast: T_p tildeMrightarrow T_pi(p) M$ is a surjective linear map. So, apply what James said, except using $pi_ast$ instead of $pi$.
            $endgroup$
            – Jason DeVito
            Mar 11 at 15:58







          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          I didn't realise that you put problem 10.5a, sorry. I do indeed agree that this suffices provided that you know that $pi^*$ is a morphism of algebras not only of vector spaces. If you know that already, you should be fine proving problem 10.5a.
          $endgroup$
          – James
          Mar 4 at 10:49





          $begingroup$
          I didn't realise that you put problem 10.5a, sorry. I do indeed agree that this suffices provided that you know that $pi^*$ is a morphism of algebras not only of vector spaces. If you know that already, you should be fine proving problem 10.5a.
          $endgroup$
          – James
          Mar 4 at 10:49





          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          That’s what I meant, yes
          $endgroup$
          – James
          Mar 5 at 5:26




          $begingroup$
          That’s what I meant, yes
          $endgroup$
          – James
          Mar 5 at 5:26




          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          @SeleneAuckland If this answered your question, please consider accepting the answer.
          $endgroup$
          – James
          Mar 6 at 7:44




          $begingroup$
          @SeleneAuckland If this answered your question, please consider accepting the answer.
          $endgroup$
          – James
          Mar 6 at 7:44




          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          Thanks! Wait, I just realized a potential flaw. $pi$ is not necessarily a linear map right?
          $endgroup$
          – Selene Auckland
          Mar 7 at 9:35





          $begingroup$
          Thanks! Wait, I just realized a potential flaw. $pi$ is not necessarily a linear map right?
          $endgroup$
          – Selene Auckland
          Mar 7 at 9:35





          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          @Selene: You are correct that $pi$ is not necessarily linear. In fact,$tildeM$ and $M$ need not be vector spaces, so "linearity" is meaningless! On the other hand, saying $pi$ is a submersion means that $pi_ast: T_p tildeMrightarrow T_pi(p) M$ is a surjective linear map. So, apply what James said, except using $pi_ast$ instead of $pi$.
          $endgroup$
          – Jason DeVito
          Mar 11 at 15:58




          $begingroup$
          @Selene: You are correct that $pi$ is not necessarily linear. In fact,$tildeM$ and $M$ need not be vector spaces, so "linearity" is meaningless! On the other hand, saying $pi$ is a submersion means that $pi_ast: T_p tildeMrightarrow T_pi(p) M$ is a surjective linear map. So, apply what James said, except using $pi_ast$ instead of $pi$.
          $endgroup$
          – Jason DeVito
          Mar 11 at 15:58

















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