If $f(x+y)=f(x)f(y)-g(x)g(y)$ and $g(x+y)=f(x)g(y)+f(y)g(x)$, with $f'(0)=0$, determine $[f(x)]^2+[g(x)]^2$Trouble with function transformation (Left and right)Is $ d^m_xP_l(x) d^m+1_xP_l+1(x)- d^m_xP_l+1(x) d^m+1_xP_l(x)$ positive?Determine inverse functionDetermine the real numbers $x, y, z, t$ satisfying an equationIf $sin(h(x))=f(x)$ and $cos(h(x))=g(x)$ can we determine $h(x)$?Segment by $a$ and $b$ and let $z$ be a complex number not in it. Show that $fracz-az-b$ isn't a real $le 0$I´m searching for a function with a slope of 0 and then 1 at a point with a smooth transitCompute the power of a functionCurve fitting function with specific propertiesWhy is domain limited to all real numbers?

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If $f(x+y)=f(x)f(y)-g(x)g(y)$ and $g(x+y)=f(x)g(y)+f(y)g(x)$, with $f'(0)=0$, determine $[f(x)]^2+[g(x)]^2$


Trouble with function transformation (Left and right)Is $ d^m_xP_l(x) d^m+1_xP_l+1(x)- d^m_xP_l+1(x) d^m+1_xP_l(x)$ positive?Determine inverse functionDetermine the real numbers $x, y, z, t$ satisfying an equationIf $sin(h(x))=f(x)$ and $cos(h(x))=g(x)$ can we determine $h(x)$?Segment by $a$ and $b$ and let $z$ be a complex number not in it. Show that $fracz-az-b$ isn't a real $le 0$I´m searching for a function with a slope of 0 and then 1 at a point with a smooth transitCompute the power of a functionCurve fitting function with specific propertiesWhy is domain limited to all real numbers?













7












$begingroup$


Given the expressions:



$f(x+y)=f(x)f(y)-g(x)g(y)$



$g(x+y)=f(x)g(y)+f(y)g(x)$



the exercise is to show that $[f(x)]^2+[g(x)]^2$ is constant for all real $x$ and determine its value, knowing that $f$ and $g$ are real differentiable non-constant functions, and that $f'(0)=0$.



I realized it looks like the $sin$ and $cos$ functions, so the answer must be $1$. To prove something that way, I tried showing that $f$ and $g$ were always on the interval $[-1,1]$.



I have also tried to derivate each expression and plug in $x=y=0$ or only $y=0$, but was unable to develop the solution.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$
















    7












    $begingroup$


    Given the expressions:



    $f(x+y)=f(x)f(y)-g(x)g(y)$



    $g(x+y)=f(x)g(y)+f(y)g(x)$



    the exercise is to show that $[f(x)]^2+[g(x)]^2$ is constant for all real $x$ and determine its value, knowing that $f$ and $g$ are real differentiable non-constant functions, and that $f'(0)=0$.



    I realized it looks like the $sin$ and $cos$ functions, so the answer must be $1$. To prove something that way, I tried showing that $f$ and $g$ were always on the interval $[-1,1]$.



    I have also tried to derivate each expression and plug in $x=y=0$ or only $y=0$, but was unable to develop the solution.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      7












      7








      7


      2



      $begingroup$


      Given the expressions:



      $f(x+y)=f(x)f(y)-g(x)g(y)$



      $g(x+y)=f(x)g(y)+f(y)g(x)$



      the exercise is to show that $[f(x)]^2+[g(x)]^2$ is constant for all real $x$ and determine its value, knowing that $f$ and $g$ are real differentiable non-constant functions, and that $f'(0)=0$.



      I realized it looks like the $sin$ and $cos$ functions, so the answer must be $1$. To prove something that way, I tried showing that $f$ and $g$ were always on the interval $[-1,1]$.



      I have also tried to derivate each expression and plug in $x=y=0$ or only $y=0$, but was unable to develop the solution.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Given the expressions:



      $f(x+y)=f(x)f(y)-g(x)g(y)$



      $g(x+y)=f(x)g(y)+f(y)g(x)$



      the exercise is to show that $[f(x)]^2+[g(x)]^2$ is constant for all real $x$ and determine its value, knowing that $f$ and $g$ are real differentiable non-constant functions, and that $f'(0)=0$.



      I realized it looks like the $sin$ and $cos$ functions, so the answer must be $1$. To prove something that way, I tried showing that $f$ and $g$ were always on the interval $[-1,1]$.



      I have also tried to derivate each expression and plug in $x=y=0$ or only $y=0$, but was unable to develop the solution.







      calculus functions derivatives






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Mar 11 at 12:53









      Matthew Towers

      7,51422446




      7,51422446










      asked Mar 11 at 11:15









      Alexandre TourinhoAlexandre Tourinho

      1977




      1977




















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          4












          $begingroup$

          If we let $phi(x)=f(x)+ig(x)$, then $phi$ satisfies a functional equation
          $$
          phi(x+y)=phi(x)phi(y).
          $$
          This gives $phi(x)=phi(x)phi(0)$, so either $phi equiv 0$ or $phi(0)=1$. Since $phi equiv 0$ is a trivial solution, we assume $phi(0)=1$. Differentiating with $y$ and plugging $y=0$, we obtain $phi'(x)=phi'(0)phi(x)$. Now, define $u(x)=e^-phi'(0)xphi(x)$ and observe that
          $$
          u'(x)=e^-phi'(0)xleft(phi'(x)-phi'(0)phi(x)right)=0.
          $$
          This gives $u(x) = u(0)=phi(0)=1$ and hence $phi(x) = e^phi'(0)x$. Since $$phi'(0)=f'(0)+ig'(0)=ig'(0)$$ it follows $phi(x) = e^ig'(0)x=e^itheta x$ for some $thetainBbb R$, hence by Euler's identity $$
          left(f(x)right)^2+left(g(x)right)^2 =cos^2(theta x)+sin^2(theta x) =1.
          $$
          (Also note that trivial solution $phi =0$ gives $left(f(x)right)^2+left(g(x)right)^2 =0$.)






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$




















            3












            $begingroup$

            Let's derive your two equations, with respect to $x$ : you get
            $$f'(x+y)=f'(x)f(y)-g'(x)g(y)$$
            and
            $$g'(x+y)=f'(x)g(y)+f(y)g'(x)$$



            Evaluating them in $x=0$ gives you, because $f'(0)=0$,
            $$f'(y)=-g'(0)g(y)$$
            and
            $$g'(y)=f(y)g'(0)$$



            So for all $y$,
            $$f(y)f'(y) + g(y)g'(y) = - g'(0)g(y)f(y)+f(y)g'(0)g(y) = 0$$



            You get that
            $$2(f(y)f'(y) + g(y)g'(y))=0, quad texti.e. (f^2+g^2)'(y)=0$$



            So $f^2 + g^2$ is constant.



            To find its value, plug $x=y=0$ in the two original equalities : you get
            $$f(0)=f^2(0)-g^2(0)$$
            and
            $$g(0)=2f(0)g(0)$$



            If $g(0) neq 0$, you would get from the second equation $2f(0)=1$, so $f(0)=frac12$. The first equation qives you $g^2(0)= frac14-frac12 = -frac12$, which is impossible.



            So $g(0)=0$, so the first equation gives you $f(0)=f^2(0)$, so $f(0)=0$ or $1$. But $f(0)=0$ is impossible because plugging $y=0$ in $f'(x+y)=f'(x)f(y)-g'(x)g(y)$ would say that $f'(x)=0$ and $f$ is constant, which is impossible. So $f(0)=1$, so you deduce that $f^2(0)+g^2(0)=1$.



            Finally the value of the constant $f^2 + g^2$ is $1$.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$












            • $begingroup$
              Very succinct, but can we derive with respect to $x$ like that, even the functions being of one real variable? And how can we proceed to find the value of this constant?
              $endgroup$
              – Alexandre Tourinho
              Mar 11 at 11:46










            • $begingroup$
              Of course you can derive if the functions are differentiable. I added the way to find the value of this constant.
              $endgroup$
              – TheSilverDoe
              Mar 11 at 12:00










            • $begingroup$
              Very good approach, but wouldn't it be easier to evaluate the constant by just squaring and adding the given equations?
              $endgroup$
              – Martund
              Mar 11 at 12:15










            • $begingroup$
              That would probably work too, I am not sure that my approach is the fastest :)
              $endgroup$
              – TheSilverDoe
              Mar 11 at 12:17










            Your Answer





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            2 Answers
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            2 Answers
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            oldest

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            active

            oldest

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            active

            oldest

            votes









            4












            $begingroup$

            If we let $phi(x)=f(x)+ig(x)$, then $phi$ satisfies a functional equation
            $$
            phi(x+y)=phi(x)phi(y).
            $$
            This gives $phi(x)=phi(x)phi(0)$, so either $phi equiv 0$ or $phi(0)=1$. Since $phi equiv 0$ is a trivial solution, we assume $phi(0)=1$. Differentiating with $y$ and plugging $y=0$, we obtain $phi'(x)=phi'(0)phi(x)$. Now, define $u(x)=e^-phi'(0)xphi(x)$ and observe that
            $$
            u'(x)=e^-phi'(0)xleft(phi'(x)-phi'(0)phi(x)right)=0.
            $$
            This gives $u(x) = u(0)=phi(0)=1$ and hence $phi(x) = e^phi'(0)x$. Since $$phi'(0)=f'(0)+ig'(0)=ig'(0)$$ it follows $phi(x) = e^ig'(0)x=e^itheta x$ for some $thetainBbb R$, hence by Euler's identity $$
            left(f(x)right)^2+left(g(x)right)^2 =cos^2(theta x)+sin^2(theta x) =1.
            $$
            (Also note that trivial solution $phi =0$ gives $left(f(x)right)^2+left(g(x)right)^2 =0$.)






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$

















              4












              $begingroup$

              If we let $phi(x)=f(x)+ig(x)$, then $phi$ satisfies a functional equation
              $$
              phi(x+y)=phi(x)phi(y).
              $$
              This gives $phi(x)=phi(x)phi(0)$, so either $phi equiv 0$ or $phi(0)=1$. Since $phi equiv 0$ is a trivial solution, we assume $phi(0)=1$. Differentiating with $y$ and plugging $y=0$, we obtain $phi'(x)=phi'(0)phi(x)$. Now, define $u(x)=e^-phi'(0)xphi(x)$ and observe that
              $$
              u'(x)=e^-phi'(0)xleft(phi'(x)-phi'(0)phi(x)right)=0.
              $$
              This gives $u(x) = u(0)=phi(0)=1$ and hence $phi(x) = e^phi'(0)x$. Since $$phi'(0)=f'(0)+ig'(0)=ig'(0)$$ it follows $phi(x) = e^ig'(0)x=e^itheta x$ for some $thetainBbb R$, hence by Euler's identity $$
              left(f(x)right)^2+left(g(x)right)^2 =cos^2(theta x)+sin^2(theta x) =1.
              $$
              (Also note that trivial solution $phi =0$ gives $left(f(x)right)^2+left(g(x)right)^2 =0$.)






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$















                4












                4








                4





                $begingroup$

                If we let $phi(x)=f(x)+ig(x)$, then $phi$ satisfies a functional equation
                $$
                phi(x+y)=phi(x)phi(y).
                $$
                This gives $phi(x)=phi(x)phi(0)$, so either $phi equiv 0$ or $phi(0)=1$. Since $phi equiv 0$ is a trivial solution, we assume $phi(0)=1$. Differentiating with $y$ and plugging $y=0$, we obtain $phi'(x)=phi'(0)phi(x)$. Now, define $u(x)=e^-phi'(0)xphi(x)$ and observe that
                $$
                u'(x)=e^-phi'(0)xleft(phi'(x)-phi'(0)phi(x)right)=0.
                $$
                This gives $u(x) = u(0)=phi(0)=1$ and hence $phi(x) = e^phi'(0)x$. Since $$phi'(0)=f'(0)+ig'(0)=ig'(0)$$ it follows $phi(x) = e^ig'(0)x=e^itheta x$ for some $thetainBbb R$, hence by Euler's identity $$
                left(f(x)right)^2+left(g(x)right)^2 =cos^2(theta x)+sin^2(theta x) =1.
                $$
                (Also note that trivial solution $phi =0$ gives $left(f(x)right)^2+left(g(x)right)^2 =0$.)






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$



                If we let $phi(x)=f(x)+ig(x)$, then $phi$ satisfies a functional equation
                $$
                phi(x+y)=phi(x)phi(y).
                $$
                This gives $phi(x)=phi(x)phi(0)$, so either $phi equiv 0$ or $phi(0)=1$. Since $phi equiv 0$ is a trivial solution, we assume $phi(0)=1$. Differentiating with $y$ and plugging $y=0$, we obtain $phi'(x)=phi'(0)phi(x)$. Now, define $u(x)=e^-phi'(0)xphi(x)$ and observe that
                $$
                u'(x)=e^-phi'(0)xleft(phi'(x)-phi'(0)phi(x)right)=0.
                $$
                This gives $u(x) = u(0)=phi(0)=1$ and hence $phi(x) = e^phi'(0)x$. Since $$phi'(0)=f'(0)+ig'(0)=ig'(0)$$ it follows $phi(x) = e^ig'(0)x=e^itheta x$ for some $thetainBbb R$, hence by Euler's identity $$
                left(f(x)right)^2+left(g(x)right)^2 =cos^2(theta x)+sin^2(theta x) =1.
                $$
                (Also note that trivial solution $phi =0$ gives $left(f(x)right)^2+left(g(x)right)^2 =0$.)







                share|cite|improve this answer














                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer








                edited Mar 11 at 13:31

























                answered Mar 11 at 12:18









                SongSong

                17.5k21346




                17.5k21346





















                    3












                    $begingroup$

                    Let's derive your two equations, with respect to $x$ : you get
                    $$f'(x+y)=f'(x)f(y)-g'(x)g(y)$$
                    and
                    $$g'(x+y)=f'(x)g(y)+f(y)g'(x)$$



                    Evaluating them in $x=0$ gives you, because $f'(0)=0$,
                    $$f'(y)=-g'(0)g(y)$$
                    and
                    $$g'(y)=f(y)g'(0)$$



                    So for all $y$,
                    $$f(y)f'(y) + g(y)g'(y) = - g'(0)g(y)f(y)+f(y)g'(0)g(y) = 0$$



                    You get that
                    $$2(f(y)f'(y) + g(y)g'(y))=0, quad texti.e. (f^2+g^2)'(y)=0$$



                    So $f^2 + g^2$ is constant.



                    To find its value, plug $x=y=0$ in the two original equalities : you get
                    $$f(0)=f^2(0)-g^2(0)$$
                    and
                    $$g(0)=2f(0)g(0)$$



                    If $g(0) neq 0$, you would get from the second equation $2f(0)=1$, so $f(0)=frac12$. The first equation qives you $g^2(0)= frac14-frac12 = -frac12$, which is impossible.



                    So $g(0)=0$, so the first equation gives you $f(0)=f^2(0)$, so $f(0)=0$ or $1$. But $f(0)=0$ is impossible because plugging $y=0$ in $f'(x+y)=f'(x)f(y)-g'(x)g(y)$ would say that $f'(x)=0$ and $f$ is constant, which is impossible. So $f(0)=1$, so you deduce that $f^2(0)+g^2(0)=1$.



                    Finally the value of the constant $f^2 + g^2$ is $1$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer











                    $endgroup$












                    • $begingroup$
                      Very succinct, but can we derive with respect to $x$ like that, even the functions being of one real variable? And how can we proceed to find the value of this constant?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Alexandre Tourinho
                      Mar 11 at 11:46










                    • $begingroup$
                      Of course you can derive if the functions are differentiable. I added the way to find the value of this constant.
                      $endgroup$
                      – TheSilverDoe
                      Mar 11 at 12:00










                    • $begingroup$
                      Very good approach, but wouldn't it be easier to evaluate the constant by just squaring and adding the given equations?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Martund
                      Mar 11 at 12:15










                    • $begingroup$
                      That would probably work too, I am not sure that my approach is the fastest :)
                      $endgroup$
                      – TheSilverDoe
                      Mar 11 at 12:17















                    3












                    $begingroup$

                    Let's derive your two equations, with respect to $x$ : you get
                    $$f'(x+y)=f'(x)f(y)-g'(x)g(y)$$
                    and
                    $$g'(x+y)=f'(x)g(y)+f(y)g'(x)$$



                    Evaluating them in $x=0$ gives you, because $f'(0)=0$,
                    $$f'(y)=-g'(0)g(y)$$
                    and
                    $$g'(y)=f(y)g'(0)$$



                    So for all $y$,
                    $$f(y)f'(y) + g(y)g'(y) = - g'(0)g(y)f(y)+f(y)g'(0)g(y) = 0$$



                    You get that
                    $$2(f(y)f'(y) + g(y)g'(y))=0, quad texti.e. (f^2+g^2)'(y)=0$$



                    So $f^2 + g^2$ is constant.



                    To find its value, plug $x=y=0$ in the two original equalities : you get
                    $$f(0)=f^2(0)-g^2(0)$$
                    and
                    $$g(0)=2f(0)g(0)$$



                    If $g(0) neq 0$, you would get from the second equation $2f(0)=1$, so $f(0)=frac12$. The first equation qives you $g^2(0)= frac14-frac12 = -frac12$, which is impossible.



                    So $g(0)=0$, so the first equation gives you $f(0)=f^2(0)$, so $f(0)=0$ or $1$. But $f(0)=0$ is impossible because plugging $y=0$ in $f'(x+y)=f'(x)f(y)-g'(x)g(y)$ would say that $f'(x)=0$ and $f$ is constant, which is impossible. So $f(0)=1$, so you deduce that $f^2(0)+g^2(0)=1$.



                    Finally the value of the constant $f^2 + g^2$ is $1$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer











                    $endgroup$












                    • $begingroup$
                      Very succinct, but can we derive with respect to $x$ like that, even the functions being of one real variable? And how can we proceed to find the value of this constant?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Alexandre Tourinho
                      Mar 11 at 11:46










                    • $begingroup$
                      Of course you can derive if the functions are differentiable. I added the way to find the value of this constant.
                      $endgroup$
                      – TheSilverDoe
                      Mar 11 at 12:00










                    • $begingroup$
                      Very good approach, but wouldn't it be easier to evaluate the constant by just squaring and adding the given equations?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Martund
                      Mar 11 at 12:15










                    • $begingroup$
                      That would probably work too, I am not sure that my approach is the fastest :)
                      $endgroup$
                      – TheSilverDoe
                      Mar 11 at 12:17













                    3












                    3








                    3





                    $begingroup$

                    Let's derive your two equations, with respect to $x$ : you get
                    $$f'(x+y)=f'(x)f(y)-g'(x)g(y)$$
                    and
                    $$g'(x+y)=f'(x)g(y)+f(y)g'(x)$$



                    Evaluating them in $x=0$ gives you, because $f'(0)=0$,
                    $$f'(y)=-g'(0)g(y)$$
                    and
                    $$g'(y)=f(y)g'(0)$$



                    So for all $y$,
                    $$f(y)f'(y) + g(y)g'(y) = - g'(0)g(y)f(y)+f(y)g'(0)g(y) = 0$$



                    You get that
                    $$2(f(y)f'(y) + g(y)g'(y))=0, quad texti.e. (f^2+g^2)'(y)=0$$



                    So $f^2 + g^2$ is constant.



                    To find its value, plug $x=y=0$ in the two original equalities : you get
                    $$f(0)=f^2(0)-g^2(0)$$
                    and
                    $$g(0)=2f(0)g(0)$$



                    If $g(0) neq 0$, you would get from the second equation $2f(0)=1$, so $f(0)=frac12$. The first equation qives you $g^2(0)= frac14-frac12 = -frac12$, which is impossible.



                    So $g(0)=0$, so the first equation gives you $f(0)=f^2(0)$, so $f(0)=0$ or $1$. But $f(0)=0$ is impossible because plugging $y=0$ in $f'(x+y)=f'(x)f(y)-g'(x)g(y)$ would say that $f'(x)=0$ and $f$ is constant, which is impossible. So $f(0)=1$, so you deduce that $f^2(0)+g^2(0)=1$.



                    Finally the value of the constant $f^2 + g^2$ is $1$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer











                    $endgroup$



                    Let's derive your two equations, with respect to $x$ : you get
                    $$f'(x+y)=f'(x)f(y)-g'(x)g(y)$$
                    and
                    $$g'(x+y)=f'(x)g(y)+f(y)g'(x)$$



                    Evaluating them in $x=0$ gives you, because $f'(0)=0$,
                    $$f'(y)=-g'(0)g(y)$$
                    and
                    $$g'(y)=f(y)g'(0)$$



                    So for all $y$,
                    $$f(y)f'(y) + g(y)g'(y) = - g'(0)g(y)f(y)+f(y)g'(0)g(y) = 0$$



                    You get that
                    $$2(f(y)f'(y) + g(y)g'(y))=0, quad texti.e. (f^2+g^2)'(y)=0$$



                    So $f^2 + g^2$ is constant.



                    To find its value, plug $x=y=0$ in the two original equalities : you get
                    $$f(0)=f^2(0)-g^2(0)$$
                    and
                    $$g(0)=2f(0)g(0)$$



                    If $g(0) neq 0$, you would get from the second equation $2f(0)=1$, so $f(0)=frac12$. The first equation qives you $g^2(0)= frac14-frac12 = -frac12$, which is impossible.



                    So $g(0)=0$, so the first equation gives you $f(0)=f^2(0)$, so $f(0)=0$ or $1$. But $f(0)=0$ is impossible because plugging $y=0$ in $f'(x+y)=f'(x)f(y)-g'(x)g(y)$ would say that $f'(x)=0$ and $f$ is constant, which is impossible. So $f(0)=1$, so you deduce that $f^2(0)+g^2(0)=1$.



                    Finally the value of the constant $f^2 + g^2$ is $1$.







                    share|cite|improve this answer














                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer








                    edited Mar 11 at 11:59

























                    answered Mar 11 at 11:29









                    TheSilverDoeTheSilverDoe

                    3,857112




                    3,857112











                    • $begingroup$
                      Very succinct, but can we derive with respect to $x$ like that, even the functions being of one real variable? And how can we proceed to find the value of this constant?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Alexandre Tourinho
                      Mar 11 at 11:46










                    • $begingroup$
                      Of course you can derive if the functions are differentiable. I added the way to find the value of this constant.
                      $endgroup$
                      – TheSilverDoe
                      Mar 11 at 12:00










                    • $begingroup$
                      Very good approach, but wouldn't it be easier to evaluate the constant by just squaring and adding the given equations?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Martund
                      Mar 11 at 12:15










                    • $begingroup$
                      That would probably work too, I am not sure that my approach is the fastest :)
                      $endgroup$
                      – TheSilverDoe
                      Mar 11 at 12:17
















                    • $begingroup$
                      Very succinct, but can we derive with respect to $x$ like that, even the functions being of one real variable? And how can we proceed to find the value of this constant?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Alexandre Tourinho
                      Mar 11 at 11:46










                    • $begingroup$
                      Of course you can derive if the functions are differentiable. I added the way to find the value of this constant.
                      $endgroup$
                      – TheSilverDoe
                      Mar 11 at 12:00










                    • $begingroup$
                      Very good approach, but wouldn't it be easier to evaluate the constant by just squaring and adding the given equations?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Martund
                      Mar 11 at 12:15










                    • $begingroup$
                      That would probably work too, I am not sure that my approach is the fastest :)
                      $endgroup$
                      – TheSilverDoe
                      Mar 11 at 12:17















                    $begingroup$
                    Very succinct, but can we derive with respect to $x$ like that, even the functions being of one real variable? And how can we proceed to find the value of this constant?
                    $endgroup$
                    – Alexandre Tourinho
                    Mar 11 at 11:46




                    $begingroup$
                    Very succinct, but can we derive with respect to $x$ like that, even the functions being of one real variable? And how can we proceed to find the value of this constant?
                    $endgroup$
                    – Alexandre Tourinho
                    Mar 11 at 11:46












                    $begingroup$
                    Of course you can derive if the functions are differentiable. I added the way to find the value of this constant.
                    $endgroup$
                    – TheSilverDoe
                    Mar 11 at 12:00




                    $begingroup$
                    Of course you can derive if the functions are differentiable. I added the way to find the value of this constant.
                    $endgroup$
                    – TheSilverDoe
                    Mar 11 at 12:00












                    $begingroup$
                    Very good approach, but wouldn't it be easier to evaluate the constant by just squaring and adding the given equations?
                    $endgroup$
                    – Martund
                    Mar 11 at 12:15




                    $begingroup$
                    Very good approach, but wouldn't it be easier to evaluate the constant by just squaring and adding the given equations?
                    $endgroup$
                    – Martund
                    Mar 11 at 12:15












                    $begingroup$
                    That would probably work too, I am not sure that my approach is the fastest :)
                    $endgroup$
                    – TheSilverDoe
                    Mar 11 at 12:17




                    $begingroup$
                    That would probably work too, I am not sure that my approach is the fastest :)
                    $endgroup$
                    – TheSilverDoe
                    Mar 11 at 12:17

















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