If $Zsimmathcal N_d(0,I_d)$ and $Y=x+ell d^-αZ$ for some $α<1/2$, then $liminf_d→∞text Eleft[1∧prod_i=1^dfracf(Y_i)f(x_i)right]=0$“Proof” that $g(t) = (t,t,t,…)$ is not continuous with uniform topology$Eleft[prod_i=1^nX_iright]=prod_i=1^nEleft[X_iright]$ for all independent and real-valued random variablesProbability density function of a ratio with summation?Random variables defined on the same probability space with different distributionsStrong Law of Large Numbers for a i.i.d. sequence whose integral does not existIf $X$ is $mathcal G$-measurable and $Y$ is independent of $mathcal G$, then $text E[XYmidmathcal F]=text E[Y]text E[Xmidmathcal F]$Definition: smallest $sigma$-algebra containing a random variableDistribution of $2k fracZ^2sum_i=1^k Y_i$, where $Z sim operatornameN(0,1)$ and $Y sim operatornameEXP(2)$If $Φ$ is the cdf of the standard normal distribution and $φ_i:ℝ→ℝ$ is linear, are the 1st and 2nd derivative of $x↦Φ(φ_1(x))+e^xΦ(φ_2(x))$ bounded?Variance of sum of $m$ dependent random variables

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If $Zsimmathcal N_d(0,I_d)$ and $Y=x+ell d^-αZ$ for some $α


“Proof” that $g(t) = (t,t,t,…)$ is not continuous with uniform topology$Eleft[prod_i=1^nX_iright]=prod_i=1^nEleft[X_iright]$ for all independent and real-valued random variablesProbability density function of a ratio with summation?Random variables defined on the same probability space with different distributionsStrong Law of Large Numbers for a i.i.d. sequence whose integral does not existIf $X$ is $mathcal G$-measurable and $Y$ is independent of $mathcal G$, then $text E[XYmidmathcal F]=text E[Y]text E[Xmidmathcal F]$Definition: smallest $sigma$-algebra containing a random variableDistribution of $2k fracZ^2sum_i=1^k Y_i$, where $Z sim operatornameN(0,1)$ and $Y sim operatornameEXP(2)$If $Φ$ is the cdf of the standard normal distribution and $φ_i:ℝ→ℝ$ is linear, are the 1st and 2nd derivative of $x↦Φ(φ_1(x))+e^xΦ(φ_2(x))$ bounded?Variance of sum of $m$ dependent random variables













5












$begingroup$


Let




  • $fin C^3(mathbb R)$ be positive

  • $dinmathbb N$

  • $xinmathbb R^d$


  • $ell>0$ and $sigma:=ell d^-alpha$ for some $alphain[0,1/2)$


  • $Z$ be a $mathbb R^d$-valued random variable distributed according to $mathcal N_d(0,I_d)$ and $Y:=x+sigma Z$


I want to show that $$liminf_dtoinftyoperatorname Eleft[1wedgeprod_i=1^dfracf(Y_i)f(x_i)right]=0tag1.$$




If necessary, assume that $g:=ln f$ is Lipschitz continuous. We may note that $$prod_i=1^dfracf(y_i)f(x_i)=expsum_i=1^d(g(y_i)-g(x_i));;;textfor all yinmathbb R^d.tag2$$ So, we may be able to show that $$liminf_dtoinftysum_i=1^d(g(Y_i)-g(x_i))=-inftytag3$$ in a suitable mode of convergence.




Is this possible and, if so, how can we conclude $(1)$ from that?




I guess we need to apply Taylor's theorem in a suitable way. If I apply the version of Taylor's theorem that I'm aware of literally, it yields that there is a $mathbb R^d$-valued random variable $W$ with $$W(omega)inlefttsigma Z(omega):tin[0,1]right;;;textfor all omegatag4$$ and $$f(Y)=f(x)+f'(x)sigma Z+fracf''(x)2(sigma Z)^2+frac16f'''(x+W)(sigma Z)^3tag5.$$ But this formulation is somehow awkward.



Remark: I've read a related result claiming that (by the central limit theorem) $ell^2d^-1sum_i=1^dfracf''(x_i)2Z_i^2$ converges in distribution to a Gaussian random variable with $0$ mean and variance $ell^2intfracf$. I would appreciate if someone could comment on how exactly we see this.




EDIT: As noted by saz, it seems like the claim is wrong in general. Actually, I was trying to understand the claim on slide 18 here. Therein, $x$ is replaced by a random variable distributed according to $plambda^d$, where $$p(x):=prod_i=1^df(x_i);;;textfor xinmathbb R^d,$$ $lambda^d$ denotes the Lebesgue measure on $mathcal B(mathbb R^d)$ and we assume that $int f(x):rm dxin(0,infty)$.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$
















    5












    $begingroup$


    Let




    • $fin C^3(mathbb R)$ be positive

    • $dinmathbb N$

    • $xinmathbb R^d$


    • $ell>0$ and $sigma:=ell d^-alpha$ for some $alphain[0,1/2)$


    • $Z$ be a $mathbb R^d$-valued random variable distributed according to $mathcal N_d(0,I_d)$ and $Y:=x+sigma Z$


    I want to show that $$liminf_dtoinftyoperatorname Eleft[1wedgeprod_i=1^dfracf(Y_i)f(x_i)right]=0tag1.$$




    If necessary, assume that $g:=ln f$ is Lipschitz continuous. We may note that $$prod_i=1^dfracf(y_i)f(x_i)=expsum_i=1^d(g(y_i)-g(x_i));;;textfor all yinmathbb R^d.tag2$$ So, we may be able to show that $$liminf_dtoinftysum_i=1^d(g(Y_i)-g(x_i))=-inftytag3$$ in a suitable mode of convergence.




    Is this possible and, if so, how can we conclude $(1)$ from that?




    I guess we need to apply Taylor's theorem in a suitable way. If I apply the version of Taylor's theorem that I'm aware of literally, it yields that there is a $mathbb R^d$-valued random variable $W$ with $$W(omega)inlefttsigma Z(omega):tin[0,1]right;;;textfor all omegatag4$$ and $$f(Y)=f(x)+f'(x)sigma Z+fracf''(x)2(sigma Z)^2+frac16f'''(x+W)(sigma Z)^3tag5.$$ But this formulation is somehow awkward.



    Remark: I've read a related result claiming that (by the central limit theorem) $ell^2d^-1sum_i=1^dfracf''(x_i)2Z_i^2$ converges in distribution to a Gaussian random variable with $0$ mean and variance $ell^2intfracf$. I would appreciate if someone could comment on how exactly we see this.




    EDIT: As noted by saz, it seems like the claim is wrong in general. Actually, I was trying to understand the claim on slide 18 here. Therein, $x$ is replaced by a random variable distributed according to $plambda^d$, where $$p(x):=prod_i=1^df(x_i);;;textfor xinmathbb R^d,$$ $lambda^d$ denotes the Lebesgue measure on $mathcal B(mathbb R^d)$ and we assume that $int f(x):rm dxin(0,infty)$.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      5












      5








      5


      1



      $begingroup$


      Let




      • $fin C^3(mathbb R)$ be positive

      • $dinmathbb N$

      • $xinmathbb R^d$


      • $ell>0$ and $sigma:=ell d^-alpha$ for some $alphain[0,1/2)$


      • $Z$ be a $mathbb R^d$-valued random variable distributed according to $mathcal N_d(0,I_d)$ and $Y:=x+sigma Z$


      I want to show that $$liminf_dtoinftyoperatorname Eleft[1wedgeprod_i=1^dfracf(Y_i)f(x_i)right]=0tag1.$$




      If necessary, assume that $g:=ln f$ is Lipschitz continuous. We may note that $$prod_i=1^dfracf(y_i)f(x_i)=expsum_i=1^d(g(y_i)-g(x_i));;;textfor all yinmathbb R^d.tag2$$ So, we may be able to show that $$liminf_dtoinftysum_i=1^d(g(Y_i)-g(x_i))=-inftytag3$$ in a suitable mode of convergence.




      Is this possible and, if so, how can we conclude $(1)$ from that?




      I guess we need to apply Taylor's theorem in a suitable way. If I apply the version of Taylor's theorem that I'm aware of literally, it yields that there is a $mathbb R^d$-valued random variable $W$ with $$W(omega)inlefttsigma Z(omega):tin[0,1]right;;;textfor all omegatag4$$ and $$f(Y)=f(x)+f'(x)sigma Z+fracf''(x)2(sigma Z)^2+frac16f'''(x+W)(sigma Z)^3tag5.$$ But this formulation is somehow awkward.



      Remark: I've read a related result claiming that (by the central limit theorem) $ell^2d^-1sum_i=1^dfracf''(x_i)2Z_i^2$ converges in distribution to a Gaussian random variable with $0$ mean and variance $ell^2intfracf$. I would appreciate if someone could comment on how exactly we see this.




      EDIT: As noted by saz, it seems like the claim is wrong in general. Actually, I was trying to understand the claim on slide 18 here. Therein, $x$ is replaced by a random variable distributed according to $plambda^d$, where $$p(x):=prod_i=1^df(x_i);;;textfor xinmathbb R^d,$$ $lambda^d$ denotes the Lebesgue measure on $mathcal B(mathbb R^d)$ and we assume that $int f(x):rm dxin(0,infty)$.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Let




      • $fin C^3(mathbb R)$ be positive

      • $dinmathbb N$

      • $xinmathbb R^d$


      • $ell>0$ and $sigma:=ell d^-alpha$ for some $alphain[0,1/2)$


      • $Z$ be a $mathbb R^d$-valued random variable distributed according to $mathcal N_d(0,I_d)$ and $Y:=x+sigma Z$


      I want to show that $$liminf_dtoinftyoperatorname Eleft[1wedgeprod_i=1^dfracf(Y_i)f(x_i)right]=0tag1.$$




      If necessary, assume that $g:=ln f$ is Lipschitz continuous. We may note that $$prod_i=1^dfracf(y_i)f(x_i)=expsum_i=1^d(g(y_i)-g(x_i));;;textfor all yinmathbb R^d.tag2$$ So, we may be able to show that $$liminf_dtoinftysum_i=1^d(g(Y_i)-g(x_i))=-inftytag3$$ in a suitable mode of convergence.




      Is this possible and, if so, how can we conclude $(1)$ from that?




      I guess we need to apply Taylor's theorem in a suitable way. If I apply the version of Taylor's theorem that I'm aware of literally, it yields that there is a $mathbb R^d$-valued random variable $W$ with $$W(omega)inlefttsigma Z(omega):tin[0,1]right;;;textfor all omegatag4$$ and $$f(Y)=f(x)+f'(x)sigma Z+fracf''(x)2(sigma Z)^2+frac16f'''(x+W)(sigma Z)^3tag5.$$ But this formulation is somehow awkward.



      Remark: I've read a related result claiming that (by the central limit theorem) $ell^2d^-1sum_i=1^dfracf''(x_i)2Z_i^2$ converges in distribution to a Gaussian random variable with $0$ mean and variance $ell^2intfracf$. I would appreciate if someone could comment on how exactly we see this.




      EDIT: As noted by saz, it seems like the claim is wrong in general. Actually, I was trying to understand the claim on slide 18 here. Therein, $x$ is replaced by a random variable distributed according to $plambda^d$, where $$p(x):=prod_i=1^df(x_i);;;textfor xinmathbb R^d,$$ $lambda^d$ denotes the Lebesgue measure on $mathcal B(mathbb R^d)$ and we assume that $int f(x):rm dxin(0,infty)$.







      analysis probability-theory measure-theory asymptotics taylor-expansion






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited 9 hours ago







      0xbadf00d

















      asked 17 hours ago









      0xbadf00d0xbadf00d

      1,91441532




      1,91441532




















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