A question on the proof of Rigidity Lemma in birational geometry The Next CEO of Stack OverflowWhat are normal schemes intuitively?dimension of image of proper closed set under a morphism.Ensuring I have a closed pointintersection dimension theorem for any smooth varietyProof of rigidity lemmaStandard proof that the set of sigularities is closedDimension of Fibers of a Morphism “Proof” Contradicts Later TheoremSome problems related to unirational varietiesWhy is the composition of Hartshorne-smooth morphisms H-smooth? - a question on irreducible componentsHartshorne II-3.22(b)

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A question on the proof of Rigidity Lemma in birational geometry



The Next CEO of Stack OverflowWhat are normal schemes intuitively?dimension of image of proper closed set under a morphism.Ensuring I have a closed pointintersection dimension theorem for any smooth varietyProof of rigidity lemmaStandard proof that the set of sigularities is closedDimension of Fibers of a Morphism “Proof” Contradicts Later TheoremSome problems related to unirational varietiesWhy is the composition of Hartshorne-smooth morphisms H-smooth? - a question on irreducible componentsHartshorne II-3.22(b)










2












$begingroup$


I am reading the book, Birational Geometry of Algebraic Varieties, by J$acutemathrm a$nos Koll$acutemathrm a$r et al..




(Rigidity Lemma) Let $Y$ be an irreducible variety and $f:Yto Z$ a proper surjective morphism. Assume that every fiber of $f$ is connected and of dimension $n$. Let $g:Yto X$ be a morphism such that $g(f^-1(z_0))$ is a point for some $z_0in Z$. Then $g(f^-1(z))$ is a point for any $zin Z$.



Proof. Set $W=im(ftimes g)subset Ztimes X$. We obtain proper morphisms $f:Yto Wto Z$, where $h:Yto W$ and $p:Wto Z$. $p^-1(z)=h(f^-1(z))$ and $dim p^-1(z_0)=0$. By the upper semi-continuity of fiber dimensions, there is an open subset $z_0in Usubset Z$ such that $dim p^-1(z)=0$ for any $zin U$. Thus $h$ has fiber dimension $n$ over $p^-1(U)$, hence $h$ has fiber dimension at least $n$ everywhere. For any $win W$, $h^-1(w)subset f^-1(p(w))$, $dim h^-1(w)geqslant n$ and $dim f^-1(p(w))=n$. Therefore $h^-1(w)$ is a union of irreducible components of $f^-1(p(w))$, and so $h(f^-1(p(w)))=p^-1(p(w))$ is finite. It is a single point since $f^-1(p(w))$ is connected. Q.E.D.




I have no idea on the claim that $h(f^-1(p(w)))=p^-1(p(w))$ is a finite set. Maybe I should use the density of $p^-1(U)$ in $W$ ?



My try:



If $p^-1(p(w))$ is infinite, since $p^-1(U)$ is dense in $W$, one has $p^-1(p(w))cap p^-1(U)neqemptyset$, equivalently , $p(w)cap Uneqemptyset$. Hence there exists some $zin U$ such that $p(w)=z$. Note that $dim p^-1(z)=0$ for any $zin U$, impossible (since $w$ is arbitrary).



So could anyone give me some hints? Thanks!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$
















    2












    $begingroup$


    I am reading the book, Birational Geometry of Algebraic Varieties, by J$acutemathrm a$nos Koll$acutemathrm a$r et al..




    (Rigidity Lemma) Let $Y$ be an irreducible variety and $f:Yto Z$ a proper surjective morphism. Assume that every fiber of $f$ is connected and of dimension $n$. Let $g:Yto X$ be a morphism such that $g(f^-1(z_0))$ is a point for some $z_0in Z$. Then $g(f^-1(z))$ is a point for any $zin Z$.



    Proof. Set $W=im(ftimes g)subset Ztimes X$. We obtain proper morphisms $f:Yto Wto Z$, where $h:Yto W$ and $p:Wto Z$. $p^-1(z)=h(f^-1(z))$ and $dim p^-1(z_0)=0$. By the upper semi-continuity of fiber dimensions, there is an open subset $z_0in Usubset Z$ such that $dim p^-1(z)=0$ for any $zin U$. Thus $h$ has fiber dimension $n$ over $p^-1(U)$, hence $h$ has fiber dimension at least $n$ everywhere. For any $win W$, $h^-1(w)subset f^-1(p(w))$, $dim h^-1(w)geqslant n$ and $dim f^-1(p(w))=n$. Therefore $h^-1(w)$ is a union of irreducible components of $f^-1(p(w))$, and so $h(f^-1(p(w)))=p^-1(p(w))$ is finite. It is a single point since $f^-1(p(w))$ is connected. Q.E.D.




    I have no idea on the claim that $h(f^-1(p(w)))=p^-1(p(w))$ is a finite set. Maybe I should use the density of $p^-1(U)$ in $W$ ?



    My try:



    If $p^-1(p(w))$ is infinite, since $p^-1(U)$ is dense in $W$, one has $p^-1(p(w))cap p^-1(U)neqemptyset$, equivalently , $p(w)cap Uneqemptyset$. Hence there exists some $zin U$ such that $p(w)=z$. Note that $dim p^-1(z)=0$ for any $zin U$, impossible (since $w$ is arbitrary).



    So could anyone give me some hints? Thanks!










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      2












      2








      2





      $begingroup$


      I am reading the book, Birational Geometry of Algebraic Varieties, by J$acutemathrm a$nos Koll$acutemathrm a$r et al..




      (Rigidity Lemma) Let $Y$ be an irreducible variety and $f:Yto Z$ a proper surjective morphism. Assume that every fiber of $f$ is connected and of dimension $n$. Let $g:Yto X$ be a morphism such that $g(f^-1(z_0))$ is a point for some $z_0in Z$. Then $g(f^-1(z))$ is a point for any $zin Z$.



      Proof. Set $W=im(ftimes g)subset Ztimes X$. We obtain proper morphisms $f:Yto Wto Z$, where $h:Yto W$ and $p:Wto Z$. $p^-1(z)=h(f^-1(z))$ and $dim p^-1(z_0)=0$. By the upper semi-continuity of fiber dimensions, there is an open subset $z_0in Usubset Z$ such that $dim p^-1(z)=0$ for any $zin U$. Thus $h$ has fiber dimension $n$ over $p^-1(U)$, hence $h$ has fiber dimension at least $n$ everywhere. For any $win W$, $h^-1(w)subset f^-1(p(w))$, $dim h^-1(w)geqslant n$ and $dim f^-1(p(w))=n$. Therefore $h^-1(w)$ is a union of irreducible components of $f^-1(p(w))$, and so $h(f^-1(p(w)))=p^-1(p(w))$ is finite. It is a single point since $f^-1(p(w))$ is connected. Q.E.D.




      I have no idea on the claim that $h(f^-1(p(w)))=p^-1(p(w))$ is a finite set. Maybe I should use the density of $p^-1(U)$ in $W$ ?



      My try:



      If $p^-1(p(w))$ is infinite, since $p^-1(U)$ is dense in $W$, one has $p^-1(p(w))cap p^-1(U)neqemptyset$, equivalently , $p(w)cap Uneqemptyset$. Hence there exists some $zin U$ such that $p(w)=z$. Note that $dim p^-1(z)=0$ for any $zin U$, impossible (since $w$ is arbitrary).



      So could anyone give me some hints? Thanks!










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      I am reading the book, Birational Geometry of Algebraic Varieties, by J$acutemathrm a$nos Koll$acutemathrm a$r et al..




      (Rigidity Lemma) Let $Y$ be an irreducible variety and $f:Yto Z$ a proper surjective morphism. Assume that every fiber of $f$ is connected and of dimension $n$. Let $g:Yto X$ be a morphism such that $g(f^-1(z_0))$ is a point for some $z_0in Z$. Then $g(f^-1(z))$ is a point for any $zin Z$.



      Proof. Set $W=im(ftimes g)subset Ztimes X$. We obtain proper morphisms $f:Yto Wto Z$, where $h:Yto W$ and $p:Wto Z$. $p^-1(z)=h(f^-1(z))$ and $dim p^-1(z_0)=0$. By the upper semi-continuity of fiber dimensions, there is an open subset $z_0in Usubset Z$ such that $dim p^-1(z)=0$ for any $zin U$. Thus $h$ has fiber dimension $n$ over $p^-1(U)$, hence $h$ has fiber dimension at least $n$ everywhere. For any $win W$, $h^-1(w)subset f^-1(p(w))$, $dim h^-1(w)geqslant n$ and $dim f^-1(p(w))=n$. Therefore $h^-1(w)$ is a union of irreducible components of $f^-1(p(w))$, and so $h(f^-1(p(w)))=p^-1(p(w))$ is finite. It is a single point since $f^-1(p(w))$ is connected. Q.E.D.




      I have no idea on the claim that $h(f^-1(p(w)))=p^-1(p(w))$ is a finite set. Maybe I should use the density of $p^-1(U)$ in $W$ ?



      My try:



      If $p^-1(p(w))$ is infinite, since $p^-1(U)$ is dense in $W$, one has $p^-1(p(w))cap p^-1(U)neqemptyset$, equivalently , $p(w)cap Uneqemptyset$. Hence there exists some $zin U$ such that $p(w)=z$. Note that $dim p^-1(z)=0$ for any $zin U$, impossible (since $w$ is arbitrary).



      So could anyone give me some hints? Thanks!







      algebraic-geometry schemes birational-geometry






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Mar 19 at 17:45









      Stefano

      2,223931




      2,223931










      asked Mar 19 at 13:15









      Jiabin DuJiabin Du

      301111




      301111




















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          1












          $begingroup$

          I will assume that you are fine with the fact that $h$ has fiber dimension at least $n$ everywhere. Then, set theoretically, we can check $h^-1(w) subset f^-1(p(w))$ for any $w in W$. By assumption, $f$ has fiber dimension $n$ everywhere; thus, by the inclusion, we deduce that $h$ has fiber dimension $n$ everywhere. Now, as $f$ is proper, then so is $h$. Therefore, $h^-1(w)$ is a proper subvariety of $f^-1(p(w))$ of the same dimension. It follows that it is the union of some of the irreducible components of $f^-1(p(w))$.



          Now, notice that $f^-1(p(w))=h^-1(p^-1(p(w))$. Then, $p^-1(p(w))$ has dimension 0. Indeed, if it had bigger dimension, $f^-1(p(w))$ would have dimension at least $n+1$, as $h$ has fiber dimension $n$. Since $f$ is a proper morphism, $f^-1(p(w))$ is a proper variety over the residue field of the point $p(w)$. In particular, $f^-1(p(w))$ is a variety of finite type. This implies that it has finitely many irreducible components.



          Now, we know that $p^-1(p(w))$ is a collection of points. Since $h$ is proper and has fiber dimension $n$, for every point $w_i$ in $p^-1(p(w))$, the fiber $h^-1(w_i)$ provides a positive finite number of irreducible components of $f^-1(p(w))$ (they are finite since $h$ is proper, we have at least 1 since we are working in the image of the morphism, but they may be more). Thus, since $f^-1(p(w))$ has finitely many irreducible components, $p^-1(p(w))$ needs to be finite.



          From the identity $f^-1(p(w))=h^-1(p^-1(p(w))$, then follows the identity $h(f^-1(p(w)))=p^-1(p(w))$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Dear Stefano, thank you! Actually, I don't understand that "Since $f^-1(p(w))$ is proper, it follows that $p^-1(p(w))$ is finite" . My question is : (a) By a set $f^-1(p(w))$ is proper, you mean it is a proper as a variety over a field $k$? (b) Why is $p^-1(p(w))$ finite? Could you explain these more precisely?
            $endgroup$
            – Jiabin Du
            Mar 20 at 0:28










          • $begingroup$
            @JiabinDu I updated the answer to address your questions.
            $endgroup$
            – Stefano
            Mar 20 at 3:27










          • $begingroup$
            Got it. You're right. Thanks again!
            $endgroup$
            – Jiabin Du
            Mar 20 at 4:00












          Your Answer





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          $begingroup$

          I will assume that you are fine with the fact that $h$ has fiber dimension at least $n$ everywhere. Then, set theoretically, we can check $h^-1(w) subset f^-1(p(w))$ for any $w in W$. By assumption, $f$ has fiber dimension $n$ everywhere; thus, by the inclusion, we deduce that $h$ has fiber dimension $n$ everywhere. Now, as $f$ is proper, then so is $h$. Therefore, $h^-1(w)$ is a proper subvariety of $f^-1(p(w))$ of the same dimension. It follows that it is the union of some of the irreducible components of $f^-1(p(w))$.



          Now, notice that $f^-1(p(w))=h^-1(p^-1(p(w))$. Then, $p^-1(p(w))$ has dimension 0. Indeed, if it had bigger dimension, $f^-1(p(w))$ would have dimension at least $n+1$, as $h$ has fiber dimension $n$. Since $f$ is a proper morphism, $f^-1(p(w))$ is a proper variety over the residue field of the point $p(w)$. In particular, $f^-1(p(w))$ is a variety of finite type. This implies that it has finitely many irreducible components.



          Now, we know that $p^-1(p(w))$ is a collection of points. Since $h$ is proper and has fiber dimension $n$, for every point $w_i$ in $p^-1(p(w))$, the fiber $h^-1(w_i)$ provides a positive finite number of irreducible components of $f^-1(p(w))$ (they are finite since $h$ is proper, we have at least 1 since we are working in the image of the morphism, but they may be more). Thus, since $f^-1(p(w))$ has finitely many irreducible components, $p^-1(p(w))$ needs to be finite.



          From the identity $f^-1(p(w))=h^-1(p^-1(p(w))$, then follows the identity $h(f^-1(p(w)))=p^-1(p(w))$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Dear Stefano, thank you! Actually, I don't understand that "Since $f^-1(p(w))$ is proper, it follows that $p^-1(p(w))$ is finite" . My question is : (a) By a set $f^-1(p(w))$ is proper, you mean it is a proper as a variety over a field $k$? (b) Why is $p^-1(p(w))$ finite? Could you explain these more precisely?
            $endgroup$
            – Jiabin Du
            Mar 20 at 0:28










          • $begingroup$
            @JiabinDu I updated the answer to address your questions.
            $endgroup$
            – Stefano
            Mar 20 at 3:27










          • $begingroup$
            Got it. You're right. Thanks again!
            $endgroup$
            – Jiabin Du
            Mar 20 at 4:00
















          1












          $begingroup$

          I will assume that you are fine with the fact that $h$ has fiber dimension at least $n$ everywhere. Then, set theoretically, we can check $h^-1(w) subset f^-1(p(w))$ for any $w in W$. By assumption, $f$ has fiber dimension $n$ everywhere; thus, by the inclusion, we deduce that $h$ has fiber dimension $n$ everywhere. Now, as $f$ is proper, then so is $h$. Therefore, $h^-1(w)$ is a proper subvariety of $f^-1(p(w))$ of the same dimension. It follows that it is the union of some of the irreducible components of $f^-1(p(w))$.



          Now, notice that $f^-1(p(w))=h^-1(p^-1(p(w))$. Then, $p^-1(p(w))$ has dimension 0. Indeed, if it had bigger dimension, $f^-1(p(w))$ would have dimension at least $n+1$, as $h$ has fiber dimension $n$. Since $f$ is a proper morphism, $f^-1(p(w))$ is a proper variety over the residue field of the point $p(w)$. In particular, $f^-1(p(w))$ is a variety of finite type. This implies that it has finitely many irreducible components.



          Now, we know that $p^-1(p(w))$ is a collection of points. Since $h$ is proper and has fiber dimension $n$, for every point $w_i$ in $p^-1(p(w))$, the fiber $h^-1(w_i)$ provides a positive finite number of irreducible components of $f^-1(p(w))$ (they are finite since $h$ is proper, we have at least 1 since we are working in the image of the morphism, but they may be more). Thus, since $f^-1(p(w))$ has finitely many irreducible components, $p^-1(p(w))$ needs to be finite.



          From the identity $f^-1(p(w))=h^-1(p^-1(p(w))$, then follows the identity $h(f^-1(p(w)))=p^-1(p(w))$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Dear Stefano, thank you! Actually, I don't understand that "Since $f^-1(p(w))$ is proper, it follows that $p^-1(p(w))$ is finite" . My question is : (a) By a set $f^-1(p(w))$ is proper, you mean it is a proper as a variety over a field $k$? (b) Why is $p^-1(p(w))$ finite? Could you explain these more precisely?
            $endgroup$
            – Jiabin Du
            Mar 20 at 0:28










          • $begingroup$
            @JiabinDu I updated the answer to address your questions.
            $endgroup$
            – Stefano
            Mar 20 at 3:27










          • $begingroup$
            Got it. You're right. Thanks again!
            $endgroup$
            – Jiabin Du
            Mar 20 at 4:00














          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          I will assume that you are fine with the fact that $h$ has fiber dimension at least $n$ everywhere. Then, set theoretically, we can check $h^-1(w) subset f^-1(p(w))$ for any $w in W$. By assumption, $f$ has fiber dimension $n$ everywhere; thus, by the inclusion, we deduce that $h$ has fiber dimension $n$ everywhere. Now, as $f$ is proper, then so is $h$. Therefore, $h^-1(w)$ is a proper subvariety of $f^-1(p(w))$ of the same dimension. It follows that it is the union of some of the irreducible components of $f^-1(p(w))$.



          Now, notice that $f^-1(p(w))=h^-1(p^-1(p(w))$. Then, $p^-1(p(w))$ has dimension 0. Indeed, if it had bigger dimension, $f^-1(p(w))$ would have dimension at least $n+1$, as $h$ has fiber dimension $n$. Since $f$ is a proper morphism, $f^-1(p(w))$ is a proper variety over the residue field of the point $p(w)$. In particular, $f^-1(p(w))$ is a variety of finite type. This implies that it has finitely many irreducible components.



          Now, we know that $p^-1(p(w))$ is a collection of points. Since $h$ is proper and has fiber dimension $n$, for every point $w_i$ in $p^-1(p(w))$, the fiber $h^-1(w_i)$ provides a positive finite number of irreducible components of $f^-1(p(w))$ (they are finite since $h$ is proper, we have at least 1 since we are working in the image of the morphism, but they may be more). Thus, since $f^-1(p(w))$ has finitely many irreducible components, $p^-1(p(w))$ needs to be finite.



          From the identity $f^-1(p(w))=h^-1(p^-1(p(w))$, then follows the identity $h(f^-1(p(w)))=p^-1(p(w))$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          I will assume that you are fine with the fact that $h$ has fiber dimension at least $n$ everywhere. Then, set theoretically, we can check $h^-1(w) subset f^-1(p(w))$ for any $w in W$. By assumption, $f$ has fiber dimension $n$ everywhere; thus, by the inclusion, we deduce that $h$ has fiber dimension $n$ everywhere. Now, as $f$ is proper, then so is $h$. Therefore, $h^-1(w)$ is a proper subvariety of $f^-1(p(w))$ of the same dimension. It follows that it is the union of some of the irreducible components of $f^-1(p(w))$.



          Now, notice that $f^-1(p(w))=h^-1(p^-1(p(w))$. Then, $p^-1(p(w))$ has dimension 0. Indeed, if it had bigger dimension, $f^-1(p(w))$ would have dimension at least $n+1$, as $h$ has fiber dimension $n$. Since $f$ is a proper morphism, $f^-1(p(w))$ is a proper variety over the residue field of the point $p(w)$. In particular, $f^-1(p(w))$ is a variety of finite type. This implies that it has finitely many irreducible components.



          Now, we know that $p^-1(p(w))$ is a collection of points. Since $h$ is proper and has fiber dimension $n$, for every point $w_i$ in $p^-1(p(w))$, the fiber $h^-1(w_i)$ provides a positive finite number of irreducible components of $f^-1(p(w))$ (they are finite since $h$ is proper, we have at least 1 since we are working in the image of the morphism, but they may be more). Thus, since $f^-1(p(w))$ has finitely many irreducible components, $p^-1(p(w))$ needs to be finite.



          From the identity $f^-1(p(w))=h^-1(p^-1(p(w))$, then follows the identity $h(f^-1(p(w)))=p^-1(p(w))$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Mar 20 at 3:27

























          answered Mar 19 at 17:15









          StefanoStefano

          2,223931




          2,223931











          • $begingroup$
            Dear Stefano, thank you! Actually, I don't understand that "Since $f^-1(p(w))$ is proper, it follows that $p^-1(p(w))$ is finite" . My question is : (a) By a set $f^-1(p(w))$ is proper, you mean it is a proper as a variety over a field $k$? (b) Why is $p^-1(p(w))$ finite? Could you explain these more precisely?
            $endgroup$
            – Jiabin Du
            Mar 20 at 0:28










          • $begingroup$
            @JiabinDu I updated the answer to address your questions.
            $endgroup$
            – Stefano
            Mar 20 at 3:27










          • $begingroup$
            Got it. You're right. Thanks again!
            $endgroup$
            – Jiabin Du
            Mar 20 at 4:00

















          • $begingroup$
            Dear Stefano, thank you! Actually, I don't understand that "Since $f^-1(p(w))$ is proper, it follows that $p^-1(p(w))$ is finite" . My question is : (a) By a set $f^-1(p(w))$ is proper, you mean it is a proper as a variety over a field $k$? (b) Why is $p^-1(p(w))$ finite? Could you explain these more precisely?
            $endgroup$
            – Jiabin Du
            Mar 20 at 0:28










          • $begingroup$
            @JiabinDu I updated the answer to address your questions.
            $endgroup$
            – Stefano
            Mar 20 at 3:27










          • $begingroup$
            Got it. You're right. Thanks again!
            $endgroup$
            – Jiabin Du
            Mar 20 at 4:00
















          $begingroup$
          Dear Stefano, thank you! Actually, I don't understand that "Since $f^-1(p(w))$ is proper, it follows that $p^-1(p(w))$ is finite" . My question is : (a) By a set $f^-1(p(w))$ is proper, you mean it is a proper as a variety over a field $k$? (b) Why is $p^-1(p(w))$ finite? Could you explain these more precisely?
          $endgroup$
          – Jiabin Du
          Mar 20 at 0:28




          $begingroup$
          Dear Stefano, thank you! Actually, I don't understand that "Since $f^-1(p(w))$ is proper, it follows that $p^-1(p(w))$ is finite" . My question is : (a) By a set $f^-1(p(w))$ is proper, you mean it is a proper as a variety over a field $k$? (b) Why is $p^-1(p(w))$ finite? Could you explain these more precisely?
          $endgroup$
          – Jiabin Du
          Mar 20 at 0:28












          $begingroup$
          @JiabinDu I updated the answer to address your questions.
          $endgroup$
          – Stefano
          Mar 20 at 3:27




          $begingroup$
          @JiabinDu I updated the answer to address your questions.
          $endgroup$
          – Stefano
          Mar 20 at 3:27












          $begingroup$
          Got it. You're right. Thanks again!
          $endgroup$
          – Jiabin Du
          Mar 20 at 4:00





          $begingroup$
          Got it. You're right. Thanks again!
          $endgroup$
          – Jiabin Du
          Mar 20 at 4:00


















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