Uniqueness in $C([0,T])$ of solution found by Picard-Lindelof TheoremOne-to-one correspondence between the flow of an autonomous ODE an its solutionsLipschitz continuity and Picard iterationApplication of Picard-Lindelöf to determine uniqueness of a solution to an IVPA system of linear PDEs in cylindrical coordinates.Does this fact contradict the Picard-Lindelof uniqueness theorem?The Picard-Lindelof Existence theorem.Is it the Picard-Lindelöf Theorem?For which of the following choices of a and b have the IVP unique solutionStudying Muller's example of IVP with unique solution whose Picard iterates do not converge.Find the largest interval where the Initial Value Problem $y'(t)=t+sin(y(t))$ with $y(2)=1$ has a unique solution. Using Picard-Lindelof Theorem.
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Uniqueness in $C([0,T])$ of solution found by Picard-Lindelof Theorem
One-to-one correspondence between the flow of an autonomous ODE an its solutionsLipschitz continuity and Picard iterationApplication of Picard-Lindelöf to determine uniqueness of a solution to an IVPA system of linear PDEs in cylindrical coordinates.Does this fact contradict the Picard-Lindelof uniqueness theorem?The Picard-Lindelof Existence theorem.Is it the Picard-Lindelöf Theorem?For which of the following choices of a and b have the IVP unique solutionStudying Muller's example of IVP with unique solution whose Picard iterates do not converge.Find the largest interval where the Initial Value Problem $y'(t)=t+sin(y(t))$ with $y(2)=1$ has a unique solution. Using Picard-Lindelof Theorem.
$begingroup$
Full statement of the question:
Suppose $alpha in mathbbR$, also $f: mathbbR rightarrow mathbbR, f in C^1(mathbbR), and f(0) = 0$
Consider the following ODE:
$partial_t u(t) = f(u(t)), textfor 0 < t < T $
$u(0) = alpha $
where $u:[0,T] rightarrow mathbbR$ is unknown, and the integral equation:
$u(t) = alpha + int^t_0 f(u(s)) textds, 0<t<T $
Prove that there exists $T>0$ such that the above integral equation has a unique solution $u in C([0, T])$. Furthermore, show that $u$ satisfies $u in C^1([0, T])$ and the above ODE.
My Question:
I have shown just about every point of this question, by using the Picard-Lindelof theorem on the following set:
$X = leq K$,
where $K in mathbbR_> 0 , alpha in mathbbR$ and the norm is $|| u || = ^textsup_t in (0,T) |u(t)|$.
However, while this proves there is a $T>0$ such that a solution unique in $X$ exists, I cannot figure how to show such a solution is unique in all of $C([0,T])$. Can someone please inform me how I might show this?
real-analysis functional-analysis ordinary-differential-equations
$endgroup$
|
show 6 more comments
$begingroup$
Full statement of the question:
Suppose $alpha in mathbbR$, also $f: mathbbR rightarrow mathbbR, f in C^1(mathbbR), and f(0) = 0$
Consider the following ODE:
$partial_t u(t) = f(u(t)), textfor 0 < t < T $
$u(0) = alpha $
where $u:[0,T] rightarrow mathbbR$ is unknown, and the integral equation:
$u(t) = alpha + int^t_0 f(u(s)) textds, 0<t<T $
Prove that there exists $T>0$ such that the above integral equation has a unique solution $u in C([0, T])$. Furthermore, show that $u$ satisfies $u in C^1([0, T])$ and the above ODE.
My Question:
I have shown just about every point of this question, by using the Picard-Lindelof theorem on the following set:
$X = leq K$,
where $K in mathbbR_> 0 , alpha in mathbbR$ and the norm is $|| u || = ^textsup_t in (0,T) |u(t)|$.
However, while this proves there is a $T>0$ such that a solution unique in $X$ exists, I cannot figure how to show such a solution is unique in all of $C([0,T])$. Can someone please inform me how I might show this?
real-analysis functional-analysis ordinary-differential-equations
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
Assume another solution $v$ exists, then $$|u(t)-v(t)|le int_0^t| f(u)-f(v)|, ds, $$ and now use the Lipschitz condition on $f$ and the Gronwall lemma.
$endgroup$
– Giuseppe Negro
Mar 20 at 17:53
$begingroup$
Hi Giuseppe, I'm afraid I am not familiar with this lemma. I have just read the wikipedia page for it, and I fail to see how it is used for this problem. Could you please elaborate slightly? Thank you.
$endgroup$
– David Hughes
Mar 20 at 18:01
1
$begingroup$
Never mind. I see. I can use it to assert that $|u - v| = 0$. Thank you very much
$endgroup$
– David Hughes
Mar 20 at 18:04
1
$begingroup$
@lutzl: this is, according to me, a common (mild) mistake. The contraction mapping theorem implies uniqueness in a small ball centered around the constant function. Who says that there is not another solution, far away from that constant function? Of course the result is true, and uniqueness does hold, but there is a little more work to do, it is not just an immediate consequence of the contraction mapping theorem. I suggested to use the Gronwall inequality, but if course there are also other ways.
$endgroup$
– Giuseppe Negro
Mar 21 at 15:51
1
$begingroup$
@GiuseppeNegro : And any other solution to the IVP has to enter the ball around $α$ of radius $K$, and the part inside the ball has to coincide with the local solution. There can be no other solution somewhere far away outside the ball that has the same initial value, as all solutions are continuous (and differentiable).
$endgroup$
– LutzL
Mar 21 at 17:48
|
show 6 more comments
$begingroup$
Full statement of the question:
Suppose $alpha in mathbbR$, also $f: mathbbR rightarrow mathbbR, f in C^1(mathbbR), and f(0) = 0$
Consider the following ODE:
$partial_t u(t) = f(u(t)), textfor 0 < t < T $
$u(0) = alpha $
where $u:[0,T] rightarrow mathbbR$ is unknown, and the integral equation:
$u(t) = alpha + int^t_0 f(u(s)) textds, 0<t<T $
Prove that there exists $T>0$ such that the above integral equation has a unique solution $u in C([0, T])$. Furthermore, show that $u$ satisfies $u in C^1([0, T])$ and the above ODE.
My Question:
I have shown just about every point of this question, by using the Picard-Lindelof theorem on the following set:
$X = leq K$,
where $K in mathbbR_> 0 , alpha in mathbbR$ and the norm is $|| u || = ^textsup_t in (0,T) |u(t)|$.
However, while this proves there is a $T>0$ such that a solution unique in $X$ exists, I cannot figure how to show such a solution is unique in all of $C([0,T])$. Can someone please inform me how I might show this?
real-analysis functional-analysis ordinary-differential-equations
$endgroup$
Full statement of the question:
Suppose $alpha in mathbbR$, also $f: mathbbR rightarrow mathbbR, f in C^1(mathbbR), and f(0) = 0$
Consider the following ODE:
$partial_t u(t) = f(u(t)), textfor 0 < t < T $
$u(0) = alpha $
where $u:[0,T] rightarrow mathbbR$ is unknown, and the integral equation:
$u(t) = alpha + int^t_0 f(u(s)) textds, 0<t<T $
Prove that there exists $T>0$ such that the above integral equation has a unique solution $u in C([0, T])$. Furthermore, show that $u$ satisfies $u in C^1([0, T])$ and the above ODE.
My Question:
I have shown just about every point of this question, by using the Picard-Lindelof theorem on the following set:
$X = leq K$,
where $K in mathbbR_> 0 , alpha in mathbbR$ and the norm is $|| u || = ^textsup_t in (0,T) |u(t)|$.
However, while this proves there is a $T>0$ such that a solution unique in $X$ exists, I cannot figure how to show such a solution is unique in all of $C([0,T])$. Can someone please inform me how I might show this?
real-analysis functional-analysis ordinary-differential-equations
real-analysis functional-analysis ordinary-differential-equations
asked Mar 20 at 17:49
David HughesDavid Hughes
1607
1607
2
$begingroup$
Assume another solution $v$ exists, then $$|u(t)-v(t)|le int_0^t| f(u)-f(v)|, ds, $$ and now use the Lipschitz condition on $f$ and the Gronwall lemma.
$endgroup$
– Giuseppe Negro
Mar 20 at 17:53
$begingroup$
Hi Giuseppe, I'm afraid I am not familiar with this lemma. I have just read the wikipedia page for it, and I fail to see how it is used for this problem. Could you please elaborate slightly? Thank you.
$endgroup$
– David Hughes
Mar 20 at 18:01
1
$begingroup$
Never mind. I see. I can use it to assert that $|u - v| = 0$. Thank you very much
$endgroup$
– David Hughes
Mar 20 at 18:04
1
$begingroup$
@lutzl: this is, according to me, a common (mild) mistake. The contraction mapping theorem implies uniqueness in a small ball centered around the constant function. Who says that there is not another solution, far away from that constant function? Of course the result is true, and uniqueness does hold, but there is a little more work to do, it is not just an immediate consequence of the contraction mapping theorem. I suggested to use the Gronwall inequality, but if course there are also other ways.
$endgroup$
– Giuseppe Negro
Mar 21 at 15:51
1
$begingroup$
@GiuseppeNegro : And any other solution to the IVP has to enter the ball around $α$ of radius $K$, and the part inside the ball has to coincide with the local solution. There can be no other solution somewhere far away outside the ball that has the same initial value, as all solutions are continuous (and differentiable).
$endgroup$
– LutzL
Mar 21 at 17:48
|
show 6 more comments
2
$begingroup$
Assume another solution $v$ exists, then $$|u(t)-v(t)|le int_0^t| f(u)-f(v)|, ds, $$ and now use the Lipschitz condition on $f$ and the Gronwall lemma.
$endgroup$
– Giuseppe Negro
Mar 20 at 17:53
$begingroup$
Hi Giuseppe, I'm afraid I am not familiar with this lemma. I have just read the wikipedia page for it, and I fail to see how it is used for this problem. Could you please elaborate slightly? Thank you.
$endgroup$
– David Hughes
Mar 20 at 18:01
1
$begingroup$
Never mind. I see. I can use it to assert that $|u - v| = 0$. Thank you very much
$endgroup$
– David Hughes
Mar 20 at 18:04
1
$begingroup$
@lutzl: this is, according to me, a common (mild) mistake. The contraction mapping theorem implies uniqueness in a small ball centered around the constant function. Who says that there is not another solution, far away from that constant function? Of course the result is true, and uniqueness does hold, but there is a little more work to do, it is not just an immediate consequence of the contraction mapping theorem. I suggested to use the Gronwall inequality, but if course there are also other ways.
$endgroup$
– Giuseppe Negro
Mar 21 at 15:51
1
$begingroup$
@GiuseppeNegro : And any other solution to the IVP has to enter the ball around $α$ of radius $K$, and the part inside the ball has to coincide with the local solution. There can be no other solution somewhere far away outside the ball that has the same initial value, as all solutions are continuous (and differentiable).
$endgroup$
– LutzL
Mar 21 at 17:48
2
2
$begingroup$
Assume another solution $v$ exists, then $$|u(t)-v(t)|le int_0^t| f(u)-f(v)|, ds, $$ and now use the Lipschitz condition on $f$ and the Gronwall lemma.
$endgroup$
– Giuseppe Negro
Mar 20 at 17:53
$begingroup$
Assume another solution $v$ exists, then $$|u(t)-v(t)|le int_0^t| f(u)-f(v)|, ds, $$ and now use the Lipschitz condition on $f$ and the Gronwall lemma.
$endgroup$
– Giuseppe Negro
Mar 20 at 17:53
$begingroup$
Hi Giuseppe, I'm afraid I am not familiar with this lemma. I have just read the wikipedia page for it, and I fail to see how it is used for this problem. Could you please elaborate slightly? Thank you.
$endgroup$
– David Hughes
Mar 20 at 18:01
$begingroup$
Hi Giuseppe, I'm afraid I am not familiar with this lemma. I have just read the wikipedia page for it, and I fail to see how it is used for this problem. Could you please elaborate slightly? Thank you.
$endgroup$
– David Hughes
Mar 20 at 18:01
1
1
$begingroup$
Never mind. I see. I can use it to assert that $|u - v| = 0$. Thank you very much
$endgroup$
– David Hughes
Mar 20 at 18:04
$begingroup$
Never mind. I see. I can use it to assert that $|u - v| = 0$. Thank you very much
$endgroup$
– David Hughes
Mar 20 at 18:04
1
1
$begingroup$
@lutzl: this is, according to me, a common (mild) mistake. The contraction mapping theorem implies uniqueness in a small ball centered around the constant function. Who says that there is not another solution, far away from that constant function? Of course the result is true, and uniqueness does hold, but there is a little more work to do, it is not just an immediate consequence of the contraction mapping theorem. I suggested to use the Gronwall inequality, but if course there are also other ways.
$endgroup$
– Giuseppe Negro
Mar 21 at 15:51
$begingroup$
@lutzl: this is, according to me, a common (mild) mistake. The contraction mapping theorem implies uniqueness in a small ball centered around the constant function. Who says that there is not another solution, far away from that constant function? Of course the result is true, and uniqueness does hold, but there is a little more work to do, it is not just an immediate consequence of the contraction mapping theorem. I suggested to use the Gronwall inequality, but if course there are also other ways.
$endgroup$
– Giuseppe Negro
Mar 21 at 15:51
1
1
$begingroup$
@GiuseppeNegro : And any other solution to the IVP has to enter the ball around $α$ of radius $K$, and the part inside the ball has to coincide with the local solution. There can be no other solution somewhere far away outside the ball that has the same initial value, as all solutions are continuous (and differentiable).
$endgroup$
– LutzL
Mar 21 at 17:48
$begingroup$
@GiuseppeNegro : And any other solution to the IVP has to enter the ball around $α$ of radius $K$, and the part inside the ball has to coincide with the local solution. There can be no other solution somewhere far away outside the ball that has the same initial value, as all solutions are continuous (and differentiable).
$endgroup$
– LutzL
Mar 21 at 17:48
|
show 6 more comments
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Your work so far has shown that there exists a solution $u$ which is unique in the subset $B_K(alpha)$ (the $K$ ball around the constant function $alpha$ in $C([0,t])$. We want to show this function is in fact unique in the whole space $C([0,t])$.
Suppose $v in C([0,t])$ is also a solution to the IVP, and let $tau = infleft(T cup t: t < T, right)$. Note that, since $v$ is continuous and $v(0) = alpha$, we must have that $tau > 0$.
Observe that,
$$u, v in Y := w in C([0,tau]) : sup_[0,tau] $$
and as a corollary of the Picard-Lindelof contraction argument you performed, you can conclude that $u equiv v$ on $[0,tau]$ (intuitively, we still get uniqueness if we look over a shorter time-scale). If $tau = T$, then $u equiv v$ in $C([0,t])$. Since this is the result we want, our goal now is to show that $tau < T$ gives a contradiction.
Suppose $tau < T$, and let $beta = u(tau)$. By the definition of $tau$, for any $tau < s < T$, $|v(s)| > K geq |u(s)|$. This means that the IVP
$$left{beginarraycc
partial_s w(s) = f(w(s)) &qquad tau < t < T\
w(tau) = u(tau)&
endarrayright.$$
has two solutions in any set $Z = w in C([tau, T^*]) : lVert w - beta rVert < M$ for any $M > 0$ and $T^* > tau$, since $u$ and $v$ instantly separate after time $tau$. But, you proved earlier that we can always find a 'locally unique' solution to this ODE, so this is a contradiction.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
In the standard proof of the Picard-Lindelöf existence and uniqueness theorem for IVP in the setup of an autonomous ODE, one first fixes some value for the radius $K$ (so that, at least, the ball of radius $K$ is contained in the domain of $f$). Then one obtains the maximum $M$ of the norm of function values $|f(x)|$ over the ball $xin bar B(α,K)$. Now the condition $MTle K$ provides a first bound for $T$. It ensures by the mean value theorem that any solution $uin C([0,T])$ of the initial value problem, if it exists, stays inside that ball, as
$$
|u(t)-α|=left|int_0^tf(u(s)),dsright|leint_0^t|f(u(s))|,dsle Mtle MTle Ktag1
$$
That is, any function in $C([0,T])$ that solves the IVP is automatically contained in $X$.
Next one further reduces the time interval by adding the restriction $2LTle 1$ where $L$ is the local Lipschitz constant of $f$ on $B(α,K)$ to ensure contractivity of the integral operator in the maximum norm. With everything now fixed you apply the Banach fixed-point theorem that ensures the actual existence of a local solution in $X$ as well as its uniqueness. To repeat, by construction of $T=min(fracKM,frac12L)$, there can be no solutions in $C([0,T])$ that are outside of $X$, see inequality (1).
As a consequence one gets that any solution in $C([0,b))$, $b>T$, when restricted to $[0,T]$ has to coincide with this local solution. Repeated application of that argument can also serve to show that the solution is unique as long as it exists. Because if that were not the case, there would be a first point $t_0$ where two solutions diverge from each other, resp. the last point where they are still the same. However, the IVP with $u(t_0)$ as initial value at $t=t_0$ has a unique local solution, so $t_0$ can not be the minimum under consideration.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
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$begingroup$
Your work so far has shown that there exists a solution $u$ which is unique in the subset $B_K(alpha)$ (the $K$ ball around the constant function $alpha$ in $C([0,t])$. We want to show this function is in fact unique in the whole space $C([0,t])$.
Suppose $v in C([0,t])$ is also a solution to the IVP, and let $tau = infleft(T cup t: t < T, right)$. Note that, since $v$ is continuous and $v(0) = alpha$, we must have that $tau > 0$.
Observe that,
$$u, v in Y := w in C([0,tau]) : sup_[0,tau] $$
and as a corollary of the Picard-Lindelof contraction argument you performed, you can conclude that $u equiv v$ on $[0,tau]$ (intuitively, we still get uniqueness if we look over a shorter time-scale). If $tau = T$, then $u equiv v$ in $C([0,t])$. Since this is the result we want, our goal now is to show that $tau < T$ gives a contradiction.
Suppose $tau < T$, and let $beta = u(tau)$. By the definition of $tau$, for any $tau < s < T$, $|v(s)| > K geq |u(s)|$. This means that the IVP
$$left{beginarraycc
partial_s w(s) = f(w(s)) &qquad tau < t < T\
w(tau) = u(tau)&
endarrayright.$$
has two solutions in any set $Z = w in C([tau, T^*]) : lVert w - beta rVert < M$ for any $M > 0$ and $T^* > tau$, since $u$ and $v$ instantly separate after time $tau$. But, you proved earlier that we can always find a 'locally unique' solution to this ODE, so this is a contradiction.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Your work so far has shown that there exists a solution $u$ which is unique in the subset $B_K(alpha)$ (the $K$ ball around the constant function $alpha$ in $C([0,t])$. We want to show this function is in fact unique in the whole space $C([0,t])$.
Suppose $v in C([0,t])$ is also a solution to the IVP, and let $tau = infleft(T cup t: t < T, right)$. Note that, since $v$ is continuous and $v(0) = alpha$, we must have that $tau > 0$.
Observe that,
$$u, v in Y := w in C([0,tau]) : sup_[0,tau] $$
and as a corollary of the Picard-Lindelof contraction argument you performed, you can conclude that $u equiv v$ on $[0,tau]$ (intuitively, we still get uniqueness if we look over a shorter time-scale). If $tau = T$, then $u equiv v$ in $C([0,t])$. Since this is the result we want, our goal now is to show that $tau < T$ gives a contradiction.
Suppose $tau < T$, and let $beta = u(tau)$. By the definition of $tau$, for any $tau < s < T$, $|v(s)| > K geq |u(s)|$. This means that the IVP
$$left{beginarraycc
partial_s w(s) = f(w(s)) &qquad tau < t < T\
w(tau) = u(tau)&
endarrayright.$$
has two solutions in any set $Z = w in C([tau, T^*]) : lVert w - beta rVert < M$ for any $M > 0$ and $T^* > tau$, since $u$ and $v$ instantly separate after time $tau$. But, you proved earlier that we can always find a 'locally unique' solution to this ODE, so this is a contradiction.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Your work so far has shown that there exists a solution $u$ which is unique in the subset $B_K(alpha)$ (the $K$ ball around the constant function $alpha$ in $C([0,t])$. We want to show this function is in fact unique in the whole space $C([0,t])$.
Suppose $v in C([0,t])$ is also a solution to the IVP, and let $tau = infleft(T cup t: t < T, right)$. Note that, since $v$ is continuous and $v(0) = alpha$, we must have that $tau > 0$.
Observe that,
$$u, v in Y := w in C([0,tau]) : sup_[0,tau] $$
and as a corollary of the Picard-Lindelof contraction argument you performed, you can conclude that $u equiv v$ on $[0,tau]$ (intuitively, we still get uniqueness if we look over a shorter time-scale). If $tau = T$, then $u equiv v$ in $C([0,t])$. Since this is the result we want, our goal now is to show that $tau < T$ gives a contradiction.
Suppose $tau < T$, and let $beta = u(tau)$. By the definition of $tau$, for any $tau < s < T$, $|v(s)| > K geq |u(s)|$. This means that the IVP
$$left{beginarraycc
partial_s w(s) = f(w(s)) &qquad tau < t < T\
w(tau) = u(tau)&
endarrayright.$$
has two solutions in any set $Z = w in C([tau, T^*]) : lVert w - beta rVert < M$ for any $M > 0$ and $T^* > tau$, since $u$ and $v$ instantly separate after time $tau$. But, you proved earlier that we can always find a 'locally unique' solution to this ODE, so this is a contradiction.
$endgroup$
Your work so far has shown that there exists a solution $u$ which is unique in the subset $B_K(alpha)$ (the $K$ ball around the constant function $alpha$ in $C([0,t])$. We want to show this function is in fact unique in the whole space $C([0,t])$.
Suppose $v in C([0,t])$ is also a solution to the IVP, and let $tau = infleft(T cup t: t < T, right)$. Note that, since $v$ is continuous and $v(0) = alpha$, we must have that $tau > 0$.
Observe that,
$$u, v in Y := w in C([0,tau]) : sup_[0,tau] $$
and as a corollary of the Picard-Lindelof contraction argument you performed, you can conclude that $u equiv v$ on $[0,tau]$ (intuitively, we still get uniqueness if we look over a shorter time-scale). If $tau = T$, then $u equiv v$ in $C([0,t])$. Since this is the result we want, our goal now is to show that $tau < T$ gives a contradiction.
Suppose $tau < T$, and let $beta = u(tau)$. By the definition of $tau$, for any $tau < s < T$, $|v(s)| > K geq |u(s)|$. This means that the IVP
$$left{beginarraycc
partial_s w(s) = f(w(s)) &qquad tau < t < T\
w(tau) = u(tau)&
endarrayright.$$
has two solutions in any set $Z = w in C([tau, T^*]) : lVert w - beta rVert < M$ for any $M > 0$ and $T^* > tau$, since $u$ and $v$ instantly separate after time $tau$. But, you proved earlier that we can always find a 'locally unique' solution to this ODE, so this is a contradiction.
answered Mar 21 at 21:15
StrantsStrants
5,80521736
5,80521736
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$begingroup$
In the standard proof of the Picard-Lindelöf existence and uniqueness theorem for IVP in the setup of an autonomous ODE, one first fixes some value for the radius $K$ (so that, at least, the ball of radius $K$ is contained in the domain of $f$). Then one obtains the maximum $M$ of the norm of function values $|f(x)|$ over the ball $xin bar B(α,K)$. Now the condition $MTle K$ provides a first bound for $T$. It ensures by the mean value theorem that any solution $uin C([0,T])$ of the initial value problem, if it exists, stays inside that ball, as
$$
|u(t)-α|=left|int_0^tf(u(s)),dsright|leint_0^t|f(u(s))|,dsle Mtle MTle Ktag1
$$
That is, any function in $C([0,T])$ that solves the IVP is automatically contained in $X$.
Next one further reduces the time interval by adding the restriction $2LTle 1$ where $L$ is the local Lipschitz constant of $f$ on $B(α,K)$ to ensure contractivity of the integral operator in the maximum norm. With everything now fixed you apply the Banach fixed-point theorem that ensures the actual existence of a local solution in $X$ as well as its uniqueness. To repeat, by construction of $T=min(fracKM,frac12L)$, there can be no solutions in $C([0,T])$ that are outside of $X$, see inequality (1).
As a consequence one gets that any solution in $C([0,b))$, $b>T$, when restricted to $[0,T]$ has to coincide with this local solution. Repeated application of that argument can also serve to show that the solution is unique as long as it exists. Because if that were not the case, there would be a first point $t_0$ where two solutions diverge from each other, resp. the last point where they are still the same. However, the IVP with $u(t_0)$ as initial value at $t=t_0$ has a unique local solution, so $t_0$ can not be the minimum under consideration.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
In the standard proof of the Picard-Lindelöf existence and uniqueness theorem for IVP in the setup of an autonomous ODE, one first fixes some value for the radius $K$ (so that, at least, the ball of radius $K$ is contained in the domain of $f$). Then one obtains the maximum $M$ of the norm of function values $|f(x)|$ over the ball $xin bar B(α,K)$. Now the condition $MTle K$ provides a first bound for $T$. It ensures by the mean value theorem that any solution $uin C([0,T])$ of the initial value problem, if it exists, stays inside that ball, as
$$
|u(t)-α|=left|int_0^tf(u(s)),dsright|leint_0^t|f(u(s))|,dsle Mtle MTle Ktag1
$$
That is, any function in $C([0,T])$ that solves the IVP is automatically contained in $X$.
Next one further reduces the time interval by adding the restriction $2LTle 1$ where $L$ is the local Lipschitz constant of $f$ on $B(α,K)$ to ensure contractivity of the integral operator in the maximum norm. With everything now fixed you apply the Banach fixed-point theorem that ensures the actual existence of a local solution in $X$ as well as its uniqueness. To repeat, by construction of $T=min(fracKM,frac12L)$, there can be no solutions in $C([0,T])$ that are outside of $X$, see inequality (1).
As a consequence one gets that any solution in $C([0,b))$, $b>T$, when restricted to $[0,T]$ has to coincide with this local solution. Repeated application of that argument can also serve to show that the solution is unique as long as it exists. Because if that were not the case, there would be a first point $t_0$ where two solutions diverge from each other, resp. the last point where they are still the same. However, the IVP with $u(t_0)$ as initial value at $t=t_0$ has a unique local solution, so $t_0$ can not be the minimum under consideration.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
In the standard proof of the Picard-Lindelöf existence and uniqueness theorem for IVP in the setup of an autonomous ODE, one first fixes some value for the radius $K$ (so that, at least, the ball of radius $K$ is contained in the domain of $f$). Then one obtains the maximum $M$ of the norm of function values $|f(x)|$ over the ball $xin bar B(α,K)$. Now the condition $MTle K$ provides a first bound for $T$. It ensures by the mean value theorem that any solution $uin C([0,T])$ of the initial value problem, if it exists, stays inside that ball, as
$$
|u(t)-α|=left|int_0^tf(u(s)),dsright|leint_0^t|f(u(s))|,dsle Mtle MTle Ktag1
$$
That is, any function in $C([0,T])$ that solves the IVP is automatically contained in $X$.
Next one further reduces the time interval by adding the restriction $2LTle 1$ where $L$ is the local Lipschitz constant of $f$ on $B(α,K)$ to ensure contractivity of the integral operator in the maximum norm. With everything now fixed you apply the Banach fixed-point theorem that ensures the actual existence of a local solution in $X$ as well as its uniqueness. To repeat, by construction of $T=min(fracKM,frac12L)$, there can be no solutions in $C([0,T])$ that are outside of $X$, see inequality (1).
As a consequence one gets that any solution in $C([0,b))$, $b>T$, when restricted to $[0,T]$ has to coincide with this local solution. Repeated application of that argument can also serve to show that the solution is unique as long as it exists. Because if that were not the case, there would be a first point $t_0$ where two solutions diverge from each other, resp. the last point where they are still the same. However, the IVP with $u(t_0)$ as initial value at $t=t_0$ has a unique local solution, so $t_0$ can not be the minimum under consideration.
$endgroup$
In the standard proof of the Picard-Lindelöf existence and uniqueness theorem for IVP in the setup of an autonomous ODE, one first fixes some value for the radius $K$ (so that, at least, the ball of radius $K$ is contained in the domain of $f$). Then one obtains the maximum $M$ of the norm of function values $|f(x)|$ over the ball $xin bar B(α,K)$. Now the condition $MTle K$ provides a first bound for $T$. It ensures by the mean value theorem that any solution $uin C([0,T])$ of the initial value problem, if it exists, stays inside that ball, as
$$
|u(t)-α|=left|int_0^tf(u(s)),dsright|leint_0^t|f(u(s))|,dsle Mtle MTle Ktag1
$$
That is, any function in $C([0,T])$ that solves the IVP is automatically contained in $X$.
Next one further reduces the time interval by adding the restriction $2LTle 1$ where $L$ is the local Lipschitz constant of $f$ on $B(α,K)$ to ensure contractivity of the integral operator in the maximum norm. With everything now fixed you apply the Banach fixed-point theorem that ensures the actual existence of a local solution in $X$ as well as its uniqueness. To repeat, by construction of $T=min(fracKM,frac12L)$, there can be no solutions in $C([0,T])$ that are outside of $X$, see inequality (1).
As a consequence one gets that any solution in $C([0,b))$, $b>T$, when restricted to $[0,T]$ has to coincide with this local solution. Repeated application of that argument can also serve to show that the solution is unique as long as it exists. Because if that were not the case, there would be a first point $t_0$ where two solutions diverge from each other, resp. the last point where they are still the same. However, the IVP with $u(t_0)$ as initial value at $t=t_0$ has a unique local solution, so $t_0$ can not be the minimum under consideration.
edited Mar 21 at 20:13
answered Mar 21 at 17:46
LutzLLutzL
60.1k42057
60.1k42057
add a comment |
add a comment |
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2
$begingroup$
Assume another solution $v$ exists, then $$|u(t)-v(t)|le int_0^t| f(u)-f(v)|, ds, $$ and now use the Lipschitz condition on $f$ and the Gronwall lemma.
$endgroup$
– Giuseppe Negro
Mar 20 at 17:53
$begingroup$
Hi Giuseppe, I'm afraid I am not familiar with this lemma. I have just read the wikipedia page for it, and I fail to see how it is used for this problem. Could you please elaborate slightly? Thank you.
$endgroup$
– David Hughes
Mar 20 at 18:01
1
$begingroup$
Never mind. I see. I can use it to assert that $|u - v| = 0$. Thank you very much
$endgroup$
– David Hughes
Mar 20 at 18:04
1
$begingroup$
@lutzl: this is, according to me, a common (mild) mistake. The contraction mapping theorem implies uniqueness in a small ball centered around the constant function. Who says that there is not another solution, far away from that constant function? Of course the result is true, and uniqueness does hold, but there is a little more work to do, it is not just an immediate consequence of the contraction mapping theorem. I suggested to use the Gronwall inequality, but if course there are also other ways.
$endgroup$
– Giuseppe Negro
Mar 21 at 15:51
1
$begingroup$
@GiuseppeNegro : And any other solution to the IVP has to enter the ball around $α$ of radius $K$, and the part inside the ball has to coincide with the local solution. There can be no other solution somewhere far away outside the ball that has the same initial value, as all solutions are continuous (and differentiable).
$endgroup$
– LutzL
Mar 21 at 17:48