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Lebesgue convergence theorem extension (random variables)


Martingale convergence almost surelyLebesgue Convergence TheoremNon-negativity in Fatou's Lemma and Lebesgue Dominated Convergence TheoremAbout Vitali Convergence Theorem and Uniform IntegrabilityProve the monotone convergence theorem for sequences of Lebesgue-integrable functionsTheoretical Advantages of Lebesgue IntegrationFunctions involving expectations - The dominated/monotone convergence theoremAn counterexample for the monotone convergence theorem and dominated convergence theoremConvergence of Riemann integralUsing the Lebesgue dominated convergence theorem













0












$begingroup$


Let $Z$ be a lower semi integrable r.v. and $W_n$ a sequence of bounded r.v increasing and dominated by another bounded r.v from above $W_n leq W$, why is true that $E[ZW_n]$ converges to $E[ZW]$?



The negative part $Z^-$ is taken care of by the standard Lebesgue convergence theorem, but the positive part $Z^+W_n$ I don't know how to make it converge since it may be negative.



This was used in the book of Paolo Baldi: Stochastic Calculus page 88. He uses the monotone class theorem to prove that to find the conditional expectation it is sufficient to check for a class generating the sigma algebra, stable with respect to finite intersections.



Thanks.



Taking the lebesgue measure in $[0,1]$, $lambda$, $Z=dfrac1x$, $W_n = -dfrac1n$, one can see that the integral sequence doesn't even exist.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$
















    0












    $begingroup$


    Let $Z$ be a lower semi integrable r.v. and $W_n$ a sequence of bounded r.v increasing and dominated by another bounded r.v from above $W_n leq W$, why is true that $E[ZW_n]$ converges to $E[ZW]$?



    The negative part $Z^-$ is taken care of by the standard Lebesgue convergence theorem, but the positive part $Z^+W_n$ I don't know how to make it converge since it may be negative.



    This was used in the book of Paolo Baldi: Stochastic Calculus page 88. He uses the monotone class theorem to prove that to find the conditional expectation it is sufficient to check for a class generating the sigma algebra, stable with respect to finite intersections.



    Thanks.



    Taking the lebesgue measure in $[0,1]$, $lambda$, $Z=dfrac1x$, $W_n = -dfrac1n$, one can see that the integral sequence doesn't even exist.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      Let $Z$ be a lower semi integrable r.v. and $W_n$ a sequence of bounded r.v increasing and dominated by another bounded r.v from above $W_n leq W$, why is true that $E[ZW_n]$ converges to $E[ZW]$?



      The negative part $Z^-$ is taken care of by the standard Lebesgue convergence theorem, but the positive part $Z^+W_n$ I don't know how to make it converge since it may be negative.



      This was used in the book of Paolo Baldi: Stochastic Calculus page 88. He uses the monotone class theorem to prove that to find the conditional expectation it is sufficient to check for a class generating the sigma algebra, stable with respect to finite intersections.



      Thanks.



      Taking the lebesgue measure in $[0,1]$, $lambda$, $Z=dfrac1x$, $W_n = -dfrac1n$, one can see that the integral sequence doesn't even exist.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Let $Z$ be a lower semi integrable r.v. and $W_n$ a sequence of bounded r.v increasing and dominated by another bounded r.v from above $W_n leq W$, why is true that $E[ZW_n]$ converges to $E[ZW]$?



      The negative part $Z^-$ is taken care of by the standard Lebesgue convergence theorem, but the positive part $Z^+W_n$ I don't know how to make it converge since it may be negative.



      This was used in the book of Paolo Baldi: Stochastic Calculus page 88. He uses the monotone class theorem to prove that to find the conditional expectation it is sufficient to check for a class generating the sigma algebra, stable with respect to finite intersections.



      Thanks.



      Taking the lebesgue measure in $[0,1]$, $lambda$, $Z=dfrac1x$, $W_n = -dfrac1n$, one can see that the integral sequence doesn't even exist.







      real-analysis probability-theory convergence lebesgue-integral






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Mar 20 at 18:55







      lucmobz

















      asked Mar 20 at 18:37









      lucmobzlucmobz

      404




      404




















          1 Answer
          1






          active

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          0












          $begingroup$

          It seems that Remark 4.2 refers to integrable random variables $X$ and $Z$. Proceeding with your example, where $([0,1],mathcalB_[0,1],lambda)$ is the prob. space and $Z(omega)=omega^-1times 1omega>0$, take $W_n(omega)=-1_[0,n^-1)(omega)$. Then $Z$ is l.s.i., $-1le W_nle 0$, and $W_nnearrow 0$. However,
          $$
          0=mathsfEWZnelim_ntoinftymathsfEW_nZ=-infty.
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            For the same reason one can only extend the $E[ZW]=E[XW]$ property to all bounded measurable functions when $X$ is integrable, and also when he talks about the expectation function given a random variable he assumes integrability when he says "for all bounded (l.s.i. is just bounded positive) measurable"? Thanks for clarifying, the book was a bit unclear there.
            $endgroup$
            – lucmobz
            Mar 20 at 22:31












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          active

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          0












          $begingroup$

          It seems that Remark 4.2 refers to integrable random variables $X$ and $Z$. Proceeding with your example, where $([0,1],mathcalB_[0,1],lambda)$ is the prob. space and $Z(omega)=omega^-1times 1omega>0$, take $W_n(omega)=-1_[0,n^-1)(omega)$. Then $Z$ is l.s.i., $-1le W_nle 0$, and $W_nnearrow 0$. However,
          $$
          0=mathsfEWZnelim_ntoinftymathsfEW_nZ=-infty.
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            For the same reason one can only extend the $E[ZW]=E[XW]$ property to all bounded measurable functions when $X$ is integrable, and also when he talks about the expectation function given a random variable he assumes integrability when he says "for all bounded (l.s.i. is just bounded positive) measurable"? Thanks for clarifying, the book was a bit unclear there.
            $endgroup$
            – lucmobz
            Mar 20 at 22:31
















          0












          $begingroup$

          It seems that Remark 4.2 refers to integrable random variables $X$ and $Z$. Proceeding with your example, where $([0,1],mathcalB_[0,1],lambda)$ is the prob. space and $Z(omega)=omega^-1times 1omega>0$, take $W_n(omega)=-1_[0,n^-1)(omega)$. Then $Z$ is l.s.i., $-1le W_nle 0$, and $W_nnearrow 0$. However,
          $$
          0=mathsfEWZnelim_ntoinftymathsfEW_nZ=-infty.
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            For the same reason one can only extend the $E[ZW]=E[XW]$ property to all bounded measurable functions when $X$ is integrable, and also when he talks about the expectation function given a random variable he assumes integrability when he says "for all bounded (l.s.i. is just bounded positive) measurable"? Thanks for clarifying, the book was a bit unclear there.
            $endgroup$
            – lucmobz
            Mar 20 at 22:31














          0












          0








          0





          $begingroup$

          It seems that Remark 4.2 refers to integrable random variables $X$ and $Z$. Proceeding with your example, where $([0,1],mathcalB_[0,1],lambda)$ is the prob. space and $Z(omega)=omega^-1times 1omega>0$, take $W_n(omega)=-1_[0,n^-1)(omega)$. Then $Z$ is l.s.i., $-1le W_nle 0$, and $W_nnearrow 0$. However,
          $$
          0=mathsfEWZnelim_ntoinftymathsfEW_nZ=-infty.
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          It seems that Remark 4.2 refers to integrable random variables $X$ and $Z$. Proceeding with your example, where $([0,1],mathcalB_[0,1],lambda)$ is the prob. space and $Z(omega)=omega^-1times 1omega>0$, take $W_n(omega)=-1_[0,n^-1)(omega)$. Then $Z$ is l.s.i., $-1le W_nle 0$, and $W_nnearrow 0$. However,
          $$
          0=mathsfEWZnelim_ntoinftymathsfEW_nZ=-infty.
          $$







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Mar 20 at 21:12









          d.k.o.d.k.o.

          10.5k630




          10.5k630











          • $begingroup$
            For the same reason one can only extend the $E[ZW]=E[XW]$ property to all bounded measurable functions when $X$ is integrable, and also when he talks about the expectation function given a random variable he assumes integrability when he says "for all bounded (l.s.i. is just bounded positive) measurable"? Thanks for clarifying, the book was a bit unclear there.
            $endgroup$
            – lucmobz
            Mar 20 at 22:31

















          • $begingroup$
            For the same reason one can only extend the $E[ZW]=E[XW]$ property to all bounded measurable functions when $X$ is integrable, and also when he talks about the expectation function given a random variable he assumes integrability when he says "for all bounded (l.s.i. is just bounded positive) measurable"? Thanks for clarifying, the book was a bit unclear there.
            $endgroup$
            – lucmobz
            Mar 20 at 22:31
















          $begingroup$
          For the same reason one can only extend the $E[ZW]=E[XW]$ property to all bounded measurable functions when $X$ is integrable, and also when he talks about the expectation function given a random variable he assumes integrability when he says "for all bounded (l.s.i. is just bounded positive) measurable"? Thanks for clarifying, the book was a bit unclear there.
          $endgroup$
          – lucmobz
          Mar 20 at 22:31





          $begingroup$
          For the same reason one can only extend the $E[ZW]=E[XW]$ property to all bounded measurable functions when $X$ is integrable, and also when he talks about the expectation function given a random variable he assumes integrability when he says "for all bounded (l.s.i. is just bounded positive) measurable"? Thanks for clarifying, the book was a bit unclear there.
          $endgroup$
          – lucmobz
          Mar 20 at 22:31


















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