Example Infinite set and a bijection from the set Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Is Pigeonhole Principle the negation of Dedekind-infinite?bijection between $mathbbN$ and $mathbbNtimesmathbbN$finding a bijection from the set of Primes to the set of square-free integersBijection from $mathbbN to mathbbN$Proving the equivalence of a finite setBijection between the set of irrational numbers from 0 to 1 and the set of infinite integers? (Actually, 10-adic integers)Prove by Contradiction that the set of Positive Multiples of 11 is InfiniteProving that the set of the natural numbers is infiniteProve that there are infinitely many natural numbers that are not powers of any prime.Can you use the principle of mathematical induction (PMI) on any countably infinite set?

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Example Infinite set and a bijection from the set



Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Is Pigeonhole Principle the negation of Dedekind-infinite?bijection between $mathbbN$ and $mathbbNtimesmathbbN$finding a bijection from the set of Primes to the set of square-free integersBijection from $mathbbN to mathbbN$Proving the equivalence of a finite setBijection between the set of irrational numbers from 0 to 1 and the set of infinite integers? (Actually, 10-adic integers)Prove by Contradiction that the set of Positive Multiples of 11 is InfiniteProving that the set of the natural numbers is infiniteProve that there are infinitely many natural numbers that are not powers of any prime.Can you use the principle of mathematical induction (PMI) on any countably infinite set?










0












$begingroup$


I was wondering if someone could give me an example of an infinite set and a bijection from the set to a proper subset of itself.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    beginalignmathbf N&longrightarrowmathbf N\ n&longmapsto 2nendalign
    $endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Mar 27 at 19:36










  • $begingroup$
    There's also $mathbb Nto 2,3,4,5,....$ via $nmapsto n+1$. And $mathbb R$ to $(-infty, 0]cup [1, infty)$ via $xle 0mapsto x$ while $x > 0mapsto x+1$. And there is $mathbb Rto mathbb Rsetminus0$ via $xmapsto x+1$ if $xin mathbb N$ but $x mapsto x$ otherwise. And so on.
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Mar 27 at 19:45






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Bernard That is a bijection from $mathbb N to 2mathbb N$ not from $mathbb N to mathbb N$. As a function to $mathbb Nto mathbb N$ it isn't a bijection (it's not onto; nothing is mapped to the odd numbers). Also $mathbb N$ is not a proper subset of itself.
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Mar 27 at 19:47










  • $begingroup$
    @fleablood: Why, yes!That's what the O.P. is asking for: the image is a proper subset of $mathbf N$.
    $endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Mar 27 at 20:04










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, but you wrote "$mathbb Nto mathbb N$. The function $f:mathbb Nto mathbb N$ via $f(n) = 2n$ is not a bijection. The function $g: mathbb N to 2mathbb N$ via $g(n) = 2n$ is, but $f$ is not.
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Mar 27 at 20:29















0












$begingroup$


I was wondering if someone could give me an example of an infinite set and a bijection from the set to a proper subset of itself.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    beginalignmathbf N&longrightarrowmathbf N\ n&longmapsto 2nendalign
    $endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Mar 27 at 19:36










  • $begingroup$
    There's also $mathbb Nto 2,3,4,5,....$ via $nmapsto n+1$. And $mathbb R$ to $(-infty, 0]cup [1, infty)$ via $xle 0mapsto x$ while $x > 0mapsto x+1$. And there is $mathbb Rto mathbb Rsetminus0$ via $xmapsto x+1$ if $xin mathbb N$ but $x mapsto x$ otherwise. And so on.
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Mar 27 at 19:45






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Bernard That is a bijection from $mathbb N to 2mathbb N$ not from $mathbb N to mathbb N$. As a function to $mathbb Nto mathbb N$ it isn't a bijection (it's not onto; nothing is mapped to the odd numbers). Also $mathbb N$ is not a proper subset of itself.
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Mar 27 at 19:47










  • $begingroup$
    @fleablood: Why, yes!That's what the O.P. is asking for: the image is a proper subset of $mathbf N$.
    $endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Mar 27 at 20:04










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, but you wrote "$mathbb Nto mathbb N$. The function $f:mathbb Nto mathbb N$ via $f(n) = 2n$ is not a bijection. The function $g: mathbb N to 2mathbb N$ via $g(n) = 2n$ is, but $f$ is not.
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Mar 27 at 20:29













0












0








0


1



$begingroup$


I was wondering if someone could give me an example of an infinite set and a bijection from the set to a proper subset of itself.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I was wondering if someone could give me an example of an infinite set and a bijection from the set to a proper subset of itself.







elementary-number-theory






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Mar 27 at 19:33









ForextraderForextrader

988




988







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    beginalignmathbf N&longrightarrowmathbf N\ n&longmapsto 2nendalign
    $endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Mar 27 at 19:36










  • $begingroup$
    There's also $mathbb Nto 2,3,4,5,....$ via $nmapsto n+1$. And $mathbb R$ to $(-infty, 0]cup [1, infty)$ via $xle 0mapsto x$ while $x > 0mapsto x+1$. And there is $mathbb Rto mathbb Rsetminus0$ via $xmapsto x+1$ if $xin mathbb N$ but $x mapsto x$ otherwise. And so on.
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Mar 27 at 19:45






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Bernard That is a bijection from $mathbb N to 2mathbb N$ not from $mathbb N to mathbb N$. As a function to $mathbb Nto mathbb N$ it isn't a bijection (it's not onto; nothing is mapped to the odd numbers). Also $mathbb N$ is not a proper subset of itself.
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Mar 27 at 19:47










  • $begingroup$
    @fleablood: Why, yes!That's what the O.P. is asking for: the image is a proper subset of $mathbf N$.
    $endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Mar 27 at 20:04










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, but you wrote "$mathbb Nto mathbb N$. The function $f:mathbb Nto mathbb N$ via $f(n) = 2n$ is not a bijection. The function $g: mathbb N to 2mathbb N$ via $g(n) = 2n$ is, but $f$ is not.
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Mar 27 at 20:29












  • 2




    $begingroup$
    beginalignmathbf N&longrightarrowmathbf N\ n&longmapsto 2nendalign
    $endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Mar 27 at 19:36










  • $begingroup$
    There's also $mathbb Nto 2,3,4,5,....$ via $nmapsto n+1$. And $mathbb R$ to $(-infty, 0]cup [1, infty)$ via $xle 0mapsto x$ while $x > 0mapsto x+1$. And there is $mathbb Rto mathbb Rsetminus0$ via $xmapsto x+1$ if $xin mathbb N$ but $x mapsto x$ otherwise. And so on.
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Mar 27 at 19:45






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Bernard That is a bijection from $mathbb N to 2mathbb N$ not from $mathbb N to mathbb N$. As a function to $mathbb Nto mathbb N$ it isn't a bijection (it's not onto; nothing is mapped to the odd numbers). Also $mathbb N$ is not a proper subset of itself.
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Mar 27 at 19:47










  • $begingroup$
    @fleablood: Why, yes!That's what the O.P. is asking for: the image is a proper subset of $mathbf N$.
    $endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Mar 27 at 20:04










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, but you wrote "$mathbb Nto mathbb N$. The function $f:mathbb Nto mathbb N$ via $f(n) = 2n$ is not a bijection. The function $g: mathbb N to 2mathbb N$ via $g(n) = 2n$ is, but $f$ is not.
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Mar 27 at 20:29







2




2




$begingroup$
beginalignmathbf N&longrightarrowmathbf N\ n&longmapsto 2nendalign
$endgroup$
– Bernard
Mar 27 at 19:36




$begingroup$
beginalignmathbf N&longrightarrowmathbf N\ n&longmapsto 2nendalign
$endgroup$
– Bernard
Mar 27 at 19:36












$begingroup$
There's also $mathbb Nto 2,3,4,5,....$ via $nmapsto n+1$. And $mathbb R$ to $(-infty, 0]cup [1, infty)$ via $xle 0mapsto x$ while $x > 0mapsto x+1$. And there is $mathbb Rto mathbb Rsetminus0$ via $xmapsto x+1$ if $xin mathbb N$ but $x mapsto x$ otherwise. And so on.
$endgroup$
– fleablood
Mar 27 at 19:45




$begingroup$
There's also $mathbb Nto 2,3,4,5,....$ via $nmapsto n+1$. And $mathbb R$ to $(-infty, 0]cup [1, infty)$ via $xle 0mapsto x$ while $x > 0mapsto x+1$. And there is $mathbb Rto mathbb Rsetminus0$ via $xmapsto x+1$ if $xin mathbb N$ but $x mapsto x$ otherwise. And so on.
$endgroup$
– fleablood
Mar 27 at 19:45




1




1




$begingroup$
@Bernard That is a bijection from $mathbb N to 2mathbb N$ not from $mathbb N to mathbb N$. As a function to $mathbb Nto mathbb N$ it isn't a bijection (it's not onto; nothing is mapped to the odd numbers). Also $mathbb N$ is not a proper subset of itself.
$endgroup$
– fleablood
Mar 27 at 19:47




$begingroup$
@Bernard That is a bijection from $mathbb N to 2mathbb N$ not from $mathbb N to mathbb N$. As a function to $mathbb Nto mathbb N$ it isn't a bijection (it's not onto; nothing is mapped to the odd numbers). Also $mathbb N$ is not a proper subset of itself.
$endgroup$
– fleablood
Mar 27 at 19:47












$begingroup$
@fleablood: Why, yes!That's what the O.P. is asking for: the image is a proper subset of $mathbf N$.
$endgroup$
– Bernard
Mar 27 at 20:04




$begingroup$
@fleablood: Why, yes!That's what the O.P. is asking for: the image is a proper subset of $mathbf N$.
$endgroup$
– Bernard
Mar 27 at 20:04












$begingroup$
Yes, but you wrote "$mathbb Nto mathbb N$. The function $f:mathbb Nto mathbb N$ via $f(n) = 2n$ is not a bijection. The function $g: mathbb N to 2mathbb N$ via $g(n) = 2n$ is, but $f$ is not.
$endgroup$
– fleablood
Mar 27 at 20:29




$begingroup$
Yes, but you wrote "$mathbb Nto mathbb N$. The function $f:mathbb Nto mathbb N$ via $f(n) = 2n$ is not a bijection. The function $g: mathbb N to 2mathbb N$ via $g(n) = 2n$ is, but $f$ is not.
$endgroup$
– fleablood
Mar 27 at 20:29










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

$$f: mathbb Nrightarrow 2mathbb N$$
$$n mapsto 2n$$



It's a bijection from the set of all natural numbers $1, 2, 3, cdots$ into its proper subset of all even natural numbers $2, 4, 6, cdots$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Thank you very much! I will accept your answer once stackexchange allows me to (8 minutes)
    $endgroup$
    – Forextrader
    Mar 27 at 19:40










  • $begingroup$
    You're welcome, and thank you too.
    $endgroup$
    – MarianD
    Mar 27 at 19:44


















0












$begingroup$

This is easy and more general than you think.



If $f:A to A$ is one to one then $f:Ato f(A)subseteq A$ is onto and a bijection. If $f:A to A$ is not onto then $f:A to f(A)subsetneq A$ is a bijection to a proper subset.



So all we need is 1) An infinite set $A$. 2) An injective but not onto function from $Ato A$.



$f:mathbb R to mathbb R$ via $f(x) = e^x$ is one to one and will always have $e^x > 0$ and the image of $f$ is $(0,infty)$.



So $f:mathbb R to (0,infty)$ via $f(x) = e^x$ is an example.



But probably the very first one most of us have probably heard of is:



"You know, there are the same number of even numbers and numbers because for every number if you multiply it by $2$ you get an even number."



Most of us heard that in the first grade or so (and lost three weeks of sleep immediately afterward).



This is $f: mathbb N to $even integers$$ via $f(n) = 2n$ is such a bijection.



Less easy but maybe more fundamental and more to the point is:



we know $|mathbb Q| = |mathbb Z| = |mathbb N|$ so by definition we know there are bijections from $mathbb Q to mathbb Z$ and from $mathbb Q to mathbb N$ and from $mathbb Z to mathbb N$.



So we can say if $qin mathbb Q^+$ and $q = frac ab > 0$ in lowest terms and we write down all the pairs of integers in the following order $(1,1),(2,1),(1,2),(3,1),(2,2),(1,3), (4,1),(3,2),(2,3),(1,4),(5,1),(4,2),.....$ and we cross out all the pairs that are not relatively prime so we get $(1,1),(2,1),(1,2),(3,1),(1,3),(4,1),(3,2),(2,3),(1,4),(5,1),(1,5),(6,1)....$ and count where $(a,b)$ appears in the list... then that is a bijection from $mathbb Q^+ to mathbb N$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$




















    0












    $begingroup$

    One example was given in the comments. Here’s another:



    $$n mapsto n+1$$



    is a bijection from $0,1,2,...$ to $1,2,...$ $subsetneq $ $0,1,2,...$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes








      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      1












      $begingroup$

      $$f: mathbb Nrightarrow 2mathbb N$$
      $$n mapsto 2n$$



      It's a bijection from the set of all natural numbers $1, 2, 3, cdots$ into its proper subset of all even natural numbers $2, 4, 6, cdots$.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$












      • $begingroup$
        Thank you very much! I will accept your answer once stackexchange allows me to (8 minutes)
        $endgroup$
        – Forextrader
        Mar 27 at 19:40










      • $begingroup$
        You're welcome, and thank you too.
        $endgroup$
        – MarianD
        Mar 27 at 19:44















      1












      $begingroup$

      $$f: mathbb Nrightarrow 2mathbb N$$
      $$n mapsto 2n$$



      It's a bijection from the set of all natural numbers $1, 2, 3, cdots$ into its proper subset of all even natural numbers $2, 4, 6, cdots$.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$












      • $begingroup$
        Thank you very much! I will accept your answer once stackexchange allows me to (8 minutes)
        $endgroup$
        – Forextrader
        Mar 27 at 19:40










      • $begingroup$
        You're welcome, and thank you too.
        $endgroup$
        – MarianD
        Mar 27 at 19:44













      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$

      $$f: mathbb Nrightarrow 2mathbb N$$
      $$n mapsto 2n$$



      It's a bijection from the set of all natural numbers $1, 2, 3, cdots$ into its proper subset of all even natural numbers $2, 4, 6, cdots$.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$



      $$f: mathbb Nrightarrow 2mathbb N$$
      $$n mapsto 2n$$



      It's a bijection from the set of all natural numbers $1, 2, 3, cdots$ into its proper subset of all even natural numbers $2, 4, 6, cdots$.







      share|cite|improve this answer














      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer








      edited Mar 27 at 19:42

























      answered Mar 27 at 19:38









      MarianDMarianD

      2,2761619




      2,2761619











      • $begingroup$
        Thank you very much! I will accept your answer once stackexchange allows me to (8 minutes)
        $endgroup$
        – Forextrader
        Mar 27 at 19:40










      • $begingroup$
        You're welcome, and thank you too.
        $endgroup$
        – MarianD
        Mar 27 at 19:44
















      • $begingroup$
        Thank you very much! I will accept your answer once stackexchange allows me to (8 minutes)
        $endgroup$
        – Forextrader
        Mar 27 at 19:40










      • $begingroup$
        You're welcome, and thank you too.
        $endgroup$
        – MarianD
        Mar 27 at 19:44















      $begingroup$
      Thank you very much! I will accept your answer once stackexchange allows me to (8 minutes)
      $endgroup$
      – Forextrader
      Mar 27 at 19:40




      $begingroup$
      Thank you very much! I will accept your answer once stackexchange allows me to (8 minutes)
      $endgroup$
      – Forextrader
      Mar 27 at 19:40












      $begingroup$
      You're welcome, and thank you too.
      $endgroup$
      – MarianD
      Mar 27 at 19:44




      $begingroup$
      You're welcome, and thank you too.
      $endgroup$
      – MarianD
      Mar 27 at 19:44











      0












      $begingroup$

      This is easy and more general than you think.



      If $f:A to A$ is one to one then $f:Ato f(A)subseteq A$ is onto and a bijection. If $f:A to A$ is not onto then $f:A to f(A)subsetneq A$ is a bijection to a proper subset.



      So all we need is 1) An infinite set $A$. 2) An injective but not onto function from $Ato A$.



      $f:mathbb R to mathbb R$ via $f(x) = e^x$ is one to one and will always have $e^x > 0$ and the image of $f$ is $(0,infty)$.



      So $f:mathbb R to (0,infty)$ via $f(x) = e^x$ is an example.



      But probably the very first one most of us have probably heard of is:



      "You know, there are the same number of even numbers and numbers because for every number if you multiply it by $2$ you get an even number."



      Most of us heard that in the first grade or so (and lost three weeks of sleep immediately afterward).



      This is $f: mathbb N to $even integers$$ via $f(n) = 2n$ is such a bijection.



      Less easy but maybe more fundamental and more to the point is:



      we know $|mathbb Q| = |mathbb Z| = |mathbb N|$ so by definition we know there are bijections from $mathbb Q to mathbb Z$ and from $mathbb Q to mathbb N$ and from $mathbb Z to mathbb N$.



      So we can say if $qin mathbb Q^+$ and $q = frac ab > 0$ in lowest terms and we write down all the pairs of integers in the following order $(1,1),(2,1),(1,2),(3,1),(2,2),(1,3), (4,1),(3,2),(2,3),(1,4),(5,1),(4,2),.....$ and we cross out all the pairs that are not relatively prime so we get $(1,1),(2,1),(1,2),(3,1),(1,3),(4,1),(3,2),(2,3),(1,4),(5,1),(1,5),(6,1)....$ and count where $(a,b)$ appears in the list... then that is a bijection from $mathbb Q^+ to mathbb N$.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$

















        0












        $begingroup$

        This is easy and more general than you think.



        If $f:A to A$ is one to one then $f:Ato f(A)subseteq A$ is onto and a bijection. If $f:A to A$ is not onto then $f:A to f(A)subsetneq A$ is a bijection to a proper subset.



        So all we need is 1) An infinite set $A$. 2) An injective but not onto function from $Ato A$.



        $f:mathbb R to mathbb R$ via $f(x) = e^x$ is one to one and will always have $e^x > 0$ and the image of $f$ is $(0,infty)$.



        So $f:mathbb R to (0,infty)$ via $f(x) = e^x$ is an example.



        But probably the very first one most of us have probably heard of is:



        "You know, there are the same number of even numbers and numbers because for every number if you multiply it by $2$ you get an even number."



        Most of us heard that in the first grade or so (and lost three weeks of sleep immediately afterward).



        This is $f: mathbb N to $even integers$$ via $f(n) = 2n$ is such a bijection.



        Less easy but maybe more fundamental and more to the point is:



        we know $|mathbb Q| = |mathbb Z| = |mathbb N|$ so by definition we know there are bijections from $mathbb Q to mathbb Z$ and from $mathbb Q to mathbb N$ and from $mathbb Z to mathbb N$.



        So we can say if $qin mathbb Q^+$ and $q = frac ab > 0$ in lowest terms and we write down all the pairs of integers in the following order $(1,1),(2,1),(1,2),(3,1),(2,2),(1,3), (4,1),(3,2),(2,3),(1,4),(5,1),(4,2),.....$ and we cross out all the pairs that are not relatively prime so we get $(1,1),(2,1),(1,2),(3,1),(1,3),(4,1),(3,2),(2,3),(1,4),(5,1),(1,5),(6,1)....$ and count where $(a,b)$ appears in the list... then that is a bijection from $mathbb Q^+ to mathbb N$.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$















          0












          0








          0





          $begingroup$

          This is easy and more general than you think.



          If $f:A to A$ is one to one then $f:Ato f(A)subseteq A$ is onto and a bijection. If $f:A to A$ is not onto then $f:A to f(A)subsetneq A$ is a bijection to a proper subset.



          So all we need is 1) An infinite set $A$. 2) An injective but not onto function from $Ato A$.



          $f:mathbb R to mathbb R$ via $f(x) = e^x$ is one to one and will always have $e^x > 0$ and the image of $f$ is $(0,infty)$.



          So $f:mathbb R to (0,infty)$ via $f(x) = e^x$ is an example.



          But probably the very first one most of us have probably heard of is:



          "You know, there are the same number of even numbers and numbers because for every number if you multiply it by $2$ you get an even number."



          Most of us heard that in the first grade or so (and lost three weeks of sleep immediately afterward).



          This is $f: mathbb N to $even integers$$ via $f(n) = 2n$ is such a bijection.



          Less easy but maybe more fundamental and more to the point is:



          we know $|mathbb Q| = |mathbb Z| = |mathbb N|$ so by definition we know there are bijections from $mathbb Q to mathbb Z$ and from $mathbb Q to mathbb N$ and from $mathbb Z to mathbb N$.



          So we can say if $qin mathbb Q^+$ and $q = frac ab > 0$ in lowest terms and we write down all the pairs of integers in the following order $(1,1),(2,1),(1,2),(3,1),(2,2),(1,3), (4,1),(3,2),(2,3),(1,4),(5,1),(4,2),.....$ and we cross out all the pairs that are not relatively prime so we get $(1,1),(2,1),(1,2),(3,1),(1,3),(4,1),(3,2),(2,3),(1,4),(5,1),(1,5),(6,1)....$ and count where $(a,b)$ appears in the list... then that is a bijection from $mathbb Q^+ to mathbb N$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          This is easy and more general than you think.



          If $f:A to A$ is one to one then $f:Ato f(A)subseteq A$ is onto and a bijection. If $f:A to A$ is not onto then $f:A to f(A)subsetneq A$ is a bijection to a proper subset.



          So all we need is 1) An infinite set $A$. 2) An injective but not onto function from $Ato A$.



          $f:mathbb R to mathbb R$ via $f(x) = e^x$ is one to one and will always have $e^x > 0$ and the image of $f$ is $(0,infty)$.



          So $f:mathbb R to (0,infty)$ via $f(x) = e^x$ is an example.



          But probably the very first one most of us have probably heard of is:



          "You know, there are the same number of even numbers and numbers because for every number if you multiply it by $2$ you get an even number."



          Most of us heard that in the first grade or so (and lost three weeks of sleep immediately afterward).



          This is $f: mathbb N to $even integers$$ via $f(n) = 2n$ is such a bijection.



          Less easy but maybe more fundamental and more to the point is:



          we know $|mathbb Q| = |mathbb Z| = |mathbb N|$ so by definition we know there are bijections from $mathbb Q to mathbb Z$ and from $mathbb Q to mathbb N$ and from $mathbb Z to mathbb N$.



          So we can say if $qin mathbb Q^+$ and $q = frac ab > 0$ in lowest terms and we write down all the pairs of integers in the following order $(1,1),(2,1),(1,2),(3,1),(2,2),(1,3), (4,1),(3,2),(2,3),(1,4),(5,1),(4,2),.....$ and we cross out all the pairs that are not relatively prime so we get $(1,1),(2,1),(1,2),(3,1),(1,3),(4,1),(3,2),(2,3),(1,4),(5,1),(1,5),(6,1)....$ and count where $(a,b)$ appears in the list... then that is a bijection from $mathbb Q^+ to mathbb N$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Mar 27 at 22:31









          J. W. Tanner

          5,0551520




          5,0551520










          answered Mar 27 at 20:47









          fleabloodfleablood

          1




          1





















              0












              $begingroup$

              One example was given in the comments. Here’s another:



              $$n mapsto n+1$$



              is a bijection from $0,1,2,...$ to $1,2,...$ $subsetneq $ $0,1,2,...$.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$

















                0












                $begingroup$

                One example was given in the comments. Here’s another:



                $$n mapsto n+1$$



                is a bijection from $0,1,2,...$ to $1,2,...$ $subsetneq $ $0,1,2,...$.






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$















                  0












                  0








                  0





                  $begingroup$

                  One example was given in the comments. Here’s another:



                  $$n mapsto n+1$$



                  is a bijection from $0,1,2,...$ to $1,2,...$ $subsetneq $ $0,1,2,...$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$



                  One example was given in the comments. Here’s another:



                  $$n mapsto n+1$$



                  is a bijection from $0,1,2,...$ to $1,2,...$ $subsetneq $ $0,1,2,...$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Mar 28 at 11:38

























                  answered Mar 27 at 19:41









                  J. W. TannerJ. W. Tanner

                  5,0551520




                  5,0551520



























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